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B6 Revision (Questions from PowerApps)

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these is a communicable disease?

a)

Scurvy

b)

Obesity

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

Measles

2.

Which is not a method of spreading communicable diseases?

a)

Genes

b)

Cuts

c)

The respiratory system

d)

The reproductive system

3.

Which is not a method of pathogens causing disease?

a)

Pathogen entry

b)

Pathogen toxins

c)

Fever caused by pathogen

d)

Cell damage by pathogens

4.

To monitor a disease outbreak scientists study the ..

a)

Pathogen population

b)

Pathogen type

c)

Incidence of disease

d)

Symptoms of disease

e)

all of these are studied

5.

Which is a method of preventing spread of communicable diseases?

a)

Sharing needles

b)

Using a condom

c)

Warming up leftover food

d)

Coughing over others

6.

Which is not a method farmers use to prevent spread of disease?

a)

Burning diseased plant material

b)

Treating animals with drugs

c)

Using chemical dips

d)

Moving livestock around

7.

What is HIV ?

a)

Human influenza virus

b)

AIDs

c)

Human immunodeficiency virus

d)

Human impetigo virus

8.

What is an example of a bacterial plant disease?

a)

Tobacco mosaic virus

b)

Powdery mildew

c)

Dutch elm disease

d)

Crown gall disease

9.
Which component of blood is needed for a scab to form?
a)
Platelets
b)
Plasma
c)
Red blood cells
d)
White blood cells
10.

What traps microorganisms entering the respiratory system?

a)

Cilia

b)

Mucus

c)

Stomach acid

d)

Tears

11.

After vaccination what remain in your body and give you immunity years later?

a)

Healthy, live pathogens

b)

Antibodies to the pathogen

c)

Red blood cells

d)

Memory cells

12.

Which of these techniques would NOT be suitable for collecting live insects from a woodland or meadow?

a)

Sweep nets

b)

Tree beating

c)

Pooters

d)

Sticky traps

13.
Which of the following drugs would be the best to help reduce blood cholesterol that might increase the risk of CVD?
a)
statins
b)
beta blockers
c)
antiplatelets
d)
nitrates
14.

Which of the following drugs would be the best to treat high blood pressure by preventing excessive excitation by adrenaline?

a)

statins

b)

beta blockers

c)

antiplatelets

d)

nitrates

15.

Which of the following drugs would be the best to treat high blood pressure due to narrowed arteries?

a)

statins

b)

beta blockers

c)

antiplatelets

d)

nitrates

16.
Which of the following is unlikely to be reduced by eating fewer processed foods?
a)
protein
b)
salt
c)
sugar
d)
saturated fat
17.

Which of the following is not a surgical treatment for cardiovascular disease?

a)

Inserting a stent

b)

replacing a valve

c)

using angioplasty

d)

removing a valve

18.

Which of the following is less likely to increase the risk of CVD?

a)

too much salt in the diet

b)

too much complex carbohydrate in the diet

c)

too much saturated fat in the diet

d)

too much sugar in the diet

19.
Which of the following is not a likely outcome of regular exercise?
a)
risk of a diabetes
b)
stronger heart due to more muscle
c)
lower cholesterol levels
d)
healthier joints
20.

Which of the following is the best definition for the term cardiovascular disease?

a)

disease of the heart muscle

b)

disease of the arteries, including atherosclerosis

c)

disease of the heart or blood vessels

d)

blockage of a coronary artery

21.

Blockage of which of the following blood vessels is the most common cause of a heart attack?

a)

coronary vein

b)

coronary artery

c)

carotid artery

d)

aorta

22.
The scientific name for a vessel blocked by a blood clot is ....
a)
thrombosis
b)
arteriosclerosis
c)
atherosclerosis
d)
thrombolism
23.

Too much salt in the diet can lead to high blood pressure because .....

a)

less water is reabsorbed by the kidney

b)

the salt sticks to the inner lining of the arteries

c)

more water is reabsorbed by the kidney

d)

the salt helps plaques to form

24.

Which part of tobacco smoke is cancerous?

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

tar

c)

nicotine

d)

particulates

25.

Which part of tobacco smoke results in less oxygen being transported by the blood?

a)

tar

b)

nicotine

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

particulates

26.

Which part of tobacco smoke is addictive?

a)

tar

b)

nicotine

c)

carbon monoxide

d)

particulates

27.

What is the name of the drug in alcohol?

a)

ethanal

b)

ethylene

c)

ethanoic acid

d)

ethanol

28.
Which organ of the body breaks down alcohol into waste products?
a)
liver
b)
kidney
c)
pancreas
d)
stomach
29.

Which part of the brain is most damaged by alcohol?

a)

medulla

b)

pituitary gland

c)

cerebrum

d)

hypothalamus

30.

Which of the following give the correct order of some stages in drug testing?

a)

tested on a small sample of volunteer patients, tested on human cells, tested on animals, tested on healthy volunteers

b)

tested on a small sample of volunteer patients, tested on animals,tested on human cells, tested on healthy volunteers

c)

tested on human cells, tested on animals,tested on a small sample of volunteer patients, tested on healthy volunteers.

d)

tested on human cells, tested on animals, tested on healthy volunteers, tested on a small sample of volunteer patients

31.
Which of the following is not an example of preclinical testing?
a)
testing on healthy human volunteers
b)
testing on live cells
c)
testing on bacteria
d)
testing on tissue culture
32.

What is a placebo?

a)

a weak version of the drug

b)

a replica of the drug containing calming chemicals

c)

a replica of the drug containing no active ingredient

d)

the drug given in different concentrations to different patients

33.

A trial in which the Dr. knows who is given the drug and who the placebo, but the patient doesn't know is described as a ....

a)

open trial

b)

single blind trial

c)

double blind trial

d)

triple blind trial

34.

Which type of trial overcomes the placebo effect in clinical trials?

a)

open trial

b)

blind trial

c)

double blind trial

d)

triple blind trial

35.

Which of the following is not currently a source of new drugs?

a)

plants

b)

synthesis in the laboratory

c)

human organs

d)

computer modelling

36.
What can be used to help identify unknown organisms?
a)
dichotomous key
b)
diplodocous key
c)
dihybrid key
d)
didactic key
37.

Which piece of equipment would you use to collect sample data on insects crawling across the ground?

a)

sweep net

b)

kick sampling

c)

pooter

d)

pitfall trap

38.

Which method of sampling would you use to collect data on number of diving beetles in a river?

a)

Sweep net

b)

Kick sampling

c)

Pitfall trap

d)

Pooter

39.
Which piece of equipment would you use to collect sample data on number of moths in a habitat?
a)
Sweep net
b)
Kick sampling
c)
Pitfall trap
d)
Pooter
40.

Which technique is used by scientists to estimate the size of animal populations?

a)

a transect

b)

capture-recapture

c)

a pooter

d)

a quadrat

41.

Which of the following is used to study how the distribution of organisms varies over a distance?

a)

random quadrat sampling

b)

kick sampling

c)

capture-recapture

d)

a transect

42.

How can you determine where to place your quadrat when random sampling?

a)

throw it with your eyes closed so it can land anywhere

b)

throw something safer with your eyes closed (e.g. a pencil) and place the quadrat where the pencil lands

c)

mark out an area and use a random numbers table to determine the coordinates

d)

mark out an area and place the quadrat every 50cm along the area

43.

What causes the oxygen levels to fall in a lake during eutrophication

a)

too many plants growing on the surface and photosynthesising

b)

decomposers respiring as they feed on the dead plants

c)

lack of light to plants below the surface of the water

d)

too much fertiliser in the water

44.
Which of the following kills unwanted plants growing in crop fields?
a)
herbicides
b)
insecticides
c)
pesticides
d)
floracides
45.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which agriculture has led to loss of biodiversity?

a)

use of pesticides

b)

planting hedgerows

c)

eutrophication

d)

removal of hedgerows

46.
Which of the following is NOT a purpose of seed banks?
a)
to provide a store of genetic material
b)
to conserve plants
c)
to provide genetically engineered seeds to farmers
d)
to provide a backup against the extinction of plant species
47.
Which of the following is NOT a method of active management of a nature reserve?
a)
planting of alien species
b)
controlled grazing
c)
feeding animals
d)
reintroduction of species
48.

What is CITES?

a)

Countries in international talks on endangered species

b)

Confederation for inbreeding of endangered species

c)

Confederation for inspirational talks and education on species diversity

d)

Convention on international trade in endangered species

49.

Which of the following is an indicator species for low levels of water pollution?

a)

water louse

b)

water boatman

c)

mayfly larva

d)

diving beetle

50.
Which of the following is an indicator species for very high levels of water pollution?
a)
sludgeworm
b)
flatworm
c)
water boatman
d)
caddisfly larva
51.

Which of the following is an indicator species for low levels of air pollution?

a)

Liverwort

b)

Leafy lichen

c)

Bushy Lichen

d)

Crusty lichen

52.

What is food security?

a)

the ability of human populations to store food for the future

b)

the ability of human populations to access affordable food of sufficient quality and quantity

c)

the ability of human populations to eat whatever they want

d)

the ability of human populations to provide food for all farmed animals

53.

In what way do changing diets threaten food security?

a)

there is an increase in veganism in western countries

b)

people in developing countries are increasing the range of vegetables they eat

c)

fewer people in the west eat meals at restaurants or fast food outlets than used to

d)

wealthier people eat more varied diets which usually include more meat

54.

Which of the following is NOT a method of increasing cheap food production?

a)

using industrial greenhouses to maximise photosynthesis

b)

growing organic crops

c)

using fertilisers

d)

using genetically modified crops that are pest resistant

55.
What is intensive farming?
a)
a method of farming which maximises crop/animal product yield from the minimum area of land
b)
a method of farming in which artificial chemicals are not used
c)
a method of farming which allows animals to roam in large spaces
d)
a method of farming which requires a large work force of intensively trained people
56.

What is hydroponics?

a)

A method of growing plants with limited water supply

b)

A method of growing plants in an irrigated system in field rows

c)

A type of plant genetically engineered to survive in drought conditions

d)

A method of growing plants in just water with dissolved minerals

57.
Why do we eat fish?
a)
they are a valuable source of protein
b)
they are a valuable source of carbohydrate
c)
they are a valuable source of vitamin C
d)
they are in plentiful supply and unlikely to run out
58.

Which of the following is NOT a way in which farmers could reduce their use of artificial fertilisers?

a)

use manure

b)

use crop rotation

c)

use organic matter

d)

use herbicides

59.
What is a biological control in farming?
a)
a natural predator of a pest
b)
a limited supply of nutrients
c)
a hormonal based drug for cattle
d)
a method of limiting reproduction in cattle
60.

What is the first step in selective breeding?

a)

cross-breed the selected parents

b)

decide which characteristic of the species is desirable

c)

repeat for many generations

d)

select the parents

61.

Which is the final step in selective breeding?

a)

select parents with high levels of the desired characteristics

b)

repeat the process for many generations

c)

select the best offspring and breed them again

d)

cross-breed the parents with the desired characteristics

62.

Wheat has been selective bred for many years. Which of the following is NOT a feature to make it easier to harvest?

a)

stalks grow to the same heights

b)

ears ripen at the same time

c)

stronger stalks so ears stay on until harvest time

d)

large ears with many seeds

63.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of selective breeding?

a)

increased gene pool

b)

decreased gene pool

c)

decreased chance of inheriting a genetic disease

d)

decreased chance of all members of a species dying from the same disease

64.

What is genetic engineering?

a)

a technique by which scientists change an organism's genome to improve the organism

b)

a technique by which scientists delete a gene in an organism's genome

c)

a technique by which scientists change the way in which DNA is translated in an organism

d)

a technique by which scientists help infertile people have a baby

65.

Which of the following are NOT allowed to be modified by genetic engineering?

a)

cotton

b)

corn

c)

humans

d)

bacteria

66.

Which of the following is NOT an example of an improvement in a genetically modified organism

a)

increased yield e.g. in cotton or corn

b)

increased susceptibility to certain pathogens

c)

modification of bacteria to produce insulin

d)

plants that can produce toxins to kill insects e.g. corn

67.
Which of the following is NOT a risk of genetic engineering?
a)
increased risk of viruses in insulin produced by GM bacteria
b)
unknown health problems that may result from eating GM food
c)
possible disruption of the ecosystem
d)
cross-pollination between GM crops and wild plants
68.

Which of the following enzymes cuts DNA to create sticky ends?

a)

ligase

b)

catalase

c)

amylase

d)

restriction enzymes

69.

Which of the following enzymes is used to cut the bacterial plasmid open in genetic engineering?

a)

a restriction enzyme that is different from the one used to cut out the donor DNA

b)

ligase

c)

the same restriction enzyme that is used to cut out the donor DNA

d)

helicase

70.

Which enzyme is used to join together the donor DNA and the plasmid DNA?

a)

catalase

b)

ligase

c)

amylase

d)

helicase

71.

What is the first step in the process of genetically engineering bacteria to produce insulin?

a)

the plasmid loop of DNA is cut open

b)

the transgenic bacteria are grown in large numbers

c)

the insulin gene is removed from the human DNA

d)

the recombinant plasmid is returned to the bacteria

72.
What is the final step in the process of genetically engineering bacteria to produce insulin?
a)
the recombinant plasmid is returned to the bacteria
b)
the plasmid is cut open using restriction enzymes
c)
the gene for insulin is cut out of human DNA using restriction enzymes
d)
the human gene is inserted into the plasmid and the DNA sealed using ligase
73.

What is one way in which the bacteria that contain the human gene can be identified before being grown in large numbers?

a)

culture the bacteria and see if they produce the product of the gene (e.g. insulin)

b)

add a dye to the insulin gene so you can follow it in the process

c)

insert a gene for chlorophyll production at the same time so the plasmids appear green

d)

insert an antibiotic resistance gene into the plasmid at the same time as the human gene

74.

Name one human hormone other than insulin that has been produced by genetically modified bacteria.

a)

human amylase

b)

human growth hormone

c)

ADH

d)

paracetamol

75.

which of the following cannot be used as a vector for genetically modifying an organism?

a)

plasmid

b)

virus

c)

bacterium

d)

fungi

76.

Golden rice is a genetically modified form of rice which has a gene from which flower inserted into it?

a)

buttercup

b)

dandelion

c)

daffodil

d)

evening primrose

77.
Golden rice is an improved version of normal rice because it helps reduce deficiency in which vitamin?
a)
Vitamin A
b)
Vitamin B
c)
Vitamin C
d)
Vitamin D
78.

Golden rice is an improved version of rice because it helps reduce the number of cases of which disorder?

a)

anaemia

b)

osteoporosis

c)

blindness

d)

scurvy

79.

How is Bt corn an improved version of maize?

a)

it is sweeter tasting

b)

the corn cobs grow larger

c)

the corn cobs stay on the plants better

d)

the corn produces a poison against insect pests

80.

Which of the following statements describes the difference between a pathogen and a vector of a disease

a)

a vector causes the disease whereas a pathogen spreads the disease

b)

a pathogen causes disease whereas a vector spreads the disease

c)

a vector is a virus causing a disease whereas a pathogen is bacterium or fungi causing a disease

d)

a vector can be killed by antibiotics whereas a pathogen cannot

81.

Many people with HIV die from which other communicable disease?

a)

measles

b)

influenza

c)

tuberculosis

d)

malaria

82.

Which of the following is NOT a method by which pathogens spread between plants?

a)

vectors, e.g. insects

b)

burning infected plant matter

c)

direct contact of sap from an infected plant

d)

the wind

83.

Chemical dips are installed on farms to kill pathogens found on ...

a)

hair

b)

arms

c)

hands

d)

footwear

84.
What does the term contagious mean?
a)
highly infectious
b)
the disease continues to develop long term
c)
cannot be passed from one person to another
d)
can only be passed via direct contact
85.

Powdery mildew is a plant disease caused by fungal growth. It is spread by ...

a)

seeds

b)

birds

c)

insects

d)

spores

86.

Crown gall disease in plants is caused by Agrobacterium tumefaciens. How does this pathogen enter the plant?

a)

through the roots during mineral ion uptake

b)

through the stomata when open for transpiration

c)

through pores in the bark called lenticels

d)

through wounds anywhere on the plant

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