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WorksheetsAPES 2016 Review 2
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Any impaired function of the body with a characteristic set of symptoms.
a)
Disease
b)
Prions
c)
Epidemiology
d)
Infectious disease
2.
Caused by pathogens; diseases not caused by pathogens include cardiovascular diseases, respiratory and digestive diseases, and most cancers
a)
Chronic Disease
b)
Infectious diseases
c)
Acute diseases
d)
Disease
3.
Rapidly impair the functioning of a person's body (ex: Ebola hemorrhagic fever)
a)
Plague
b)
Malaria
c)
Acute diseases
d)
Infectious Disease
4.
A widespread disease that has killed millions of people over centuries; caused by an infection from any one of he several species of protists in the genus plasmodium; the parasite spends one stage of its life inside a mosquito
a)
Malaria
b)
Mad Cow
c)
Ebola
d)
HIV
5.
A highly contagious disease caused by a bacterium that primarily infects the lungs; spread when a person coughs and expels bacteria into the air
a)
HIV
b)
Bird flu
c)
Ebola
d)
Tuberculosis
6.
Infectious diseases that were previously not described or have not been common for at least the prior 20 years
a)
Emergent Infectious disease
b)
Tuberculosis
c)
West Nile Virus
d)
Bird flu
7.
In the late 1970's, rare types of pneumonia and cancer began appearing in individuals with weak immune systems.
a)
Carcinogens
b)
AIDS
c)
HIV
d)
Ebola hemorhagic fever
8.
A disease caused by the Ebola Virus first discovered by researchers in 1976; symptoms include fever, vomiting, and sometimes internal' external bleeding.
a)
Mad Cow
b)
Ebola
c)
Prions
d)
West Nile Virus
9.
A neurological disease first described in the 1980's in which pathogen slowly damages a cow's nervous system; the cow loses coordination of its body, comparable to a person going man, and the dies.
a)
Mad Cow
b)
Bird flu
c)
Ebola
d)
Prions
10.
An avian influenza similar to the spanish flu that is caused by the h1n1 virus
a)
bird flu
b)
west nile virus
c)
vCJD
d)
BSE
11.
This is most commonly transmitted by mosquitoes from bird to bird but originated in humans in Uganda and causes an inflammation of the brain leading to illness and sometimes death.
a)
bird flu
b)
vCJD
c)
West Nile Virus
d)
neurotoxins
12.
These studies expose animals or plants to different amounts of chemicals and then they observe a variety of possible responses including mortality or changes in behavior or reproduction.
a)
ED50
b)
LD50
c)
acute sudies
d)
does-response studies
13.
chemicals that interfere with the normal development of embryos or fetuses
a)
teratogens
b)
allergens
c)
carcinogens
d)
mutagens
14.
___________are chemicals that cause cancer.
a)
Teratogens
b)
mutagens
c)
carcinogens
d)
allergens
15.
the effective dose that causes 50 percent of the individuals to display the harmful, but nonlethal,effect
a)
LD50
b)
sub lethal effect
c)
REACH
d)
ED50
16.
the increase in chemical concentration in animal tissues as the chemical moves up the food chain.
a)
bio accumulation
b)
bio-diesel
c)
allergens
d)
biomagnification
17.
are chemicals that interfere with the normal functioning of hormones in an animal’s body.
a)
disruptors
b)
neurotoxins
c)
endorcrine
d)
endocrine disruptors
18.
The _____________of a chemical refers to how long the chemical remains in the environment.
a)
solubility
b)
reactivity
c)
probablity
d)
persistence
19.
Four of the following are reasons protecting marine biodiversity is difficult; one is not. Choose the one that is not.
a)
Human ecological footprint is expanding.
b)
Much of the damage is not visible to most people.
c)
There is no understanding of what needs to be done.
d)
People view the ocean as inexhaustible.
20.
Which of the following is not a threat to the leatherback sea turtles?
a)
tourism
b)
bottom trawling fishing
c)
plastic bags
d)
being hunted for meat, leather, and eggs
21.
Which of the following countries has a significant whaling industry and whale meat market?
a)
China
b)
United States
c)
Japan
d)
Australia
22.
The traditional approach to estimating fish populations is the
a)
maximum sustained yield
b)
minimum sustained yield
c)
commercial sustained yield
d)
optimum sustained yield
23.
Which of the following is NOT one of the earth's interior concentric zones?
a)
the asthenosphere
b)
the crust
c)
the mantle
d)
the core
24.
The Earth zone with the most volume and mass is the
a)
lithosphere.
b)
core.
c)
crust.
d)
mantle.
25.
Which of the following is the source of most nonrenewable resources we use?
a)
core
b)
asthenosphere
c)
mantle
d)
crust
26.
The majority of earthquakes and volcanoes occur
a)
in the interior of continents.
b)
on oceanic islands.
c)
along the edge of continents.
d)
in the open ocean.
27.
Tectonic plates move apart in opposite directions at a
a)
divergent plate boundary.
b)
transform fault.
c)
convergent plate boundary.
d)
subduction zone.
28.
document on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (1987) was an international agreement, signed by most of the industrialized nations, to substantially reduce the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Signed in January 1989, the original document called for a 50-percent reduction in CFC use by 1992 relative to 1986 levels
a)
Montreal Protocol
b)
Taft Act
c)
Pendelton Act
29.
A type of feedback that occurs when the system’s response is in the opposite direction of the output. Thus negative feedback is self-regulating.
a)
negative feedback loop
b)
positive feedback loop
c)
circular feedback loops
30.
document on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer (1987) was an international agreement, signed by most of the industrialized nations, to substantially reduce the use of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Signed in January 1989, the original document called for a 50-percent reduction in CFC use by 1992 relative to 1986 levels
a)
Montreal Protocol
b)
Taft Act
c)
Pendelton Act
31.
Solar cells are usually thin wafers made of purified silicon or polycrystalline _?_ traced with other metals that allow them to produce electricity.
a)
carbonate
b)
silicon
c)
sodium chloride
d)
zinc
32.
You can also convert solar energy directly into _?_ energy by using photovoltaic (PV) cells or solar cells.
a)
electrical
b)
wind
c)
hydrolelectrical
d)
large
33.
What is solar energy measured in?
a)
kilowatt-hours
b)
liters
c)
meters
d)
kiloamps
34.
Water diversion has significantly reduced the size of:
a)
the Aral Sea
b)
Lake Erie
c)
The Nile
d)
Lake Baikal
35.
When deep wells are heavily pumped, one result can be:
a)
decreased groundwater recharge
b)
spring formation
c)
a cone of depression
d)
a rise in the water table
36.
Groundwater recharge:
a)
is the result of precipitation
b)
occurs rapidly in confined aquifers
c)
does not occur in unconfined aquifers
d)
sometimes occurs as a spring
37.
The correct order of freshwater from greatest to least would be:
a)
Ice, Lakes, Aquifers, Swamps, Rivers
b)
Ice, Rivers, Lakes, Swamps, Aquifers
c)
Lakes, Aquifers, Rivers, Swamps, Ice
d)
Ice, Aquifers, Lakes, Swamps, Rivers
38.
The area in the open water of a lake just below where the light penetrates is known as:
a)
Benthic Zone
b)
Profundal Zone
c)
Limnetic Zone
d)
Littoral Zone
39.
What is a watershed?
a)
Land that collects and channels water froma small body of water to a larger body of water
b)
the shape of the land determined by elevation
c)
A natural stream of water of considerable volume
d)
a river and all its tributaries
40.
Which of the items below is NOT a side-effect of leading poisoning?
a)
Lower IQ
b)
Altered behavior
c)
Increase in criminal activity
d)
Shorter life spans
41.
Which of the following was responsible for turning Flint's water brown and smelly?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Lead
d)
Corrosion
42.
Where does the largest input of solar energy occur?
a)
Equator
b)
North Pole
c)
South Pole
d)
at 30o S
43.
Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Carbon Monoxide
c)
Water Vapor
d)
Methane
44.
Which term describes the temperature, precipitation, and humidity of an area over hours or days?
a)
Biome
b)
Climate
c)
Weather
d)
Ecosystem
45.
How do the tropical rain forest differ from the temperate deciduous forest?
a)
Deciduous forests have a slower rate of decomposition than rain forests
b)
Deciduous forests have a dense canopy of broad leaves, compared with an open canopy of the rain forest.
c)
Rain forests have lower species diversity than deciduous forests
d)
Deciduous forests have a dense canopy of broad leaves, compared with an open canopy of the rain forest.
46.
The biome with the highest diversity is the ____.
a)
Cold Dessert
b)
Tropical Rainforest
c)
Temperate Rainforest
d)
Savanna
47.
Which of the following biomes has been most disturbed by human activities?
a)
Tundra
b)
Tropical Rainforest
c)
Temperate Deciduous Forest
d)
Taiga
48.
Which of the following are the two greatest long-term threats to coral reefs?
a)
Erosion and sea-level rise
b)
Climate change and predation
c)
Damage by divers and predation
d)
Climate change and acidification
49.
Oysters, sea stars, and lobsters would be considered what type of organism?
a)
Phytoplankton
b)
Nekton
c)
Benthos
d)
Zooplankton
50.
Several key factors help to determine the types and numbers of organisms found in the various layers of both freshwater and marine systems. What is not one of these?
a)
availability of nutrients
b)
temperature
c)
dissolved oxygen levels
d)
algal bloom
51.
Which of the following is not part of the saltwater or marine aquatic life zones?
a)
oceans
b)
estuaries
c)
inland wetlands
d)
mangrove forests
52.
The deepest part of the ocean is the ____.
a)
abyssal zone
b)
euphotic zone
c)
bathyal zone
d)
benthic zone
53.
The open, sunlit surface area away from the shore is in which zone?
a)
bathyal
b)
profundal
c)
limnetic
d)
littoral
54.
Which of the following would be characteristic of a eutrophic lake?
a)
small supply of plant nutrients
b)
Moderate supply of plant nutrients
c)
well-supplied with nutrients for producers
d)
limited population of phytoplankton
55.
After a mass extinction, what happens to biodiversity rates?
a)
They never recover.
b)
They quickly recover.
c)
They recover over thousands of years.
d)
They recover over millions of years.
56.
An endangered species ____.
a)
may soon become extinct over all or most of its range
b)
is one that is evolving into another species
c)
may eventually become threatened or rare
d)
is one that may become rare in the next 100 years
57.
The biggest problem with invasive species is that in the new location, they ____.
a)
are always bigger than native species
b)
have no population controls such as predators
c)
have higher reproductive rates than native species
d)
evolve more quickly than native species
58.
A population of rabbits with typical variations of traits lives in a meadow with a depression that runs through
the middle. Over time, the depression fills in with water and becomes a river, separating the one population
into two over a period of several years. This is an example of:
the middle. Over time, the depression fills in with water and becomes a river, separating the one population
into two over a period of several years. This is an example of:
a)
Artificial selection
b)
Allopatric speciation
c)
Bottleneck effect
d)
Sympatric speciation
59.
Which of the following is not a key component of the theory of evolution by natural selection?
a)
Individuals produce an excess of offspring
b)
Not all offspring can survive
c)
Differences in traits are not associated with differences in the ability to survive and reproduce
d)
Individuals differ in their traits
60.
When natural selection occurs, what is the key factor that will determine which individuals will survive and
pass on the beneficial traits?
pass on the beneficial traits?
a)
The traits that are more useful to humans will be passed on
b)
Size; the larger the animal or plant, the more likely it will survive
c)
How large the initial population is
d)
The environment will determine which traits are most beneficial
61.
Which of the following correctly lists the 6 “criteria” air pollutants as specified under the Clean Air Act?
a)
Pb, SO2, NOX, CO, PM, and tropospheric O3
b)
Tropospheric O3, SO2, NOX, PM, Pb, and CO2
c)
SO4, NOX, CO, PM, Pb, and tropospheric O3
d)
SO2, NOX, CO, Hg, PM, and tropospheric O3
62.
Which pollutant or pollutants are most likely to create eutrophic areas?
a)
nitrates and phosphates
b)
heavy metals
c)
synthetic organic compounds
d)
pharmaceuticals
63.
The US legislation that imposes a tax on targeted industrial facilities and then utilizes those funds to cleanup selected abandoned hazardous waste sites is:
a)
NEPA
b)
RCRA
c)
CERCLA
d)
NPA
64.
What is the conversion of nitrate to molecular nitrogen by the action of bacteria – an important step in the nitrogen cycle?
a)
Ammonification
b)
Nitrification
c)
Denitrification
d)
Nitrogen Fixation
65.
Which of the following is NOT a part of the carbon cycle?
a)
transpiration
b)
combustion
c)
photosynthesis
d)
respiration
66.
Developing countries tend to have a(n) _______ age structure diagram.
a)
rectangular-shaped
b)
inverted triangle
c)
pyramid shaped
d)
square
67.
The total fertility rate (TFR) is an estimate of:
a)
the number of children that will survive to adulthood
b)
the number of years a typical infant will live
c)
the number of children each woman in a population will have
d)
the number of births per 1000 people per year
68.
Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have:
a)
high death rates
b)
the same proportion of individuals in each age group
c)
a declining population
d)
a high growth rate
69.
Many sub-Saharan tribesmen of Africa regularly use the blood, milk, and fur of their livestock, without
killing them. Based on this information alone we might classify this relationship as ____. However, the cattle
actually derive an overall benefit because the herdsman also protect them from predators and help them find
water and food. Therefore, this relationship should instead be classified as ____.
killing them. Based on this information alone we might classify this relationship as ____. However, the cattle
actually derive an overall benefit because the herdsman also protect them from predators and help them find
water and food. Therefore, this relationship should instead be classified as ____.
a)
commensalism; mutualism
b)
mutualism; competition
c)
parasitism; commensalism
d)
parasitism; mutualism
70.
Using the rule of 70, a population growing at 10% would double in:
a)
7 years
b)
10 years
c)
15 years
d)
17 years
71.
In the use of coal to produce energy, which of the following does NOT decrease the energy efficiency of the process?
a)
extracting the coal from the ground
b)
waste heat
c)
cogeneration
d)
energy required to build the power plant
72.
The energy source that can provide the greatest amount of electricity generation in the United States due to its abundance is
a)
oil
b)
coal
c)
nuclear
d)
hydroelectric
73.
If an average refrigerator uses 500 watts of energy per hour on a daily basis, and your energy cost is $0.11 per kwh, approximately how much does the energy used by the refrigerator cost per month?
a)
$1.30
b)
$13
c)
$40
d)
$55
74.
Uranium-235 is considered ideal for nuclear reactors due to
a)
is wide distribution as a resource
b)
its stable nature as an isotope
c)
its high EROEI
d)
its fissionability
75.
Put the items below in correct sequence for the generation of electricity using the wind
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
1 – generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy
2 – wind turns the wind turbine blade
3 – the gear box transfers mechanical energy to the generator
4 – electricity is transferred to the grid
a)
1-2-3-4
b)
2-1-3-4
c)
2-3-1-4
d)
2-4-3-1
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