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WorksheetsFinal SCPASS Review
Total questions: 178
Worksheet time: 9hrs 25mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1st step technological design
a)
problem Identification
b)
solution design
c)
implementation
d)
dsuevacuation
2.
A question that can be answered through an investigation.
a)
hypothesis
b)
testable questions
c)
variable
d)
observation
3.
A possible answer to a testable question.
a)
testable question
b)
variable
c)
hypothesis
d)
observation
4.
A carefully controlled test to answer a question.
a)
variable
b)
hypothesis
c)
observation
d)
experiment
5.
Anything that uses science to make people's lives easier.
a)
design
b)
technology
c)
solution
d)
mixture
6.
Name the tool pictured
a)
Electronic scale
b)
Triple beam balance
c)
Spring scale
d)
Weight
7.
A series of steps used by scientists to solve a problem or answer a question.
a)
scientific method
b)
recipe
c)
data collection
d)
metric system
8.
Your teacher has asked you to explain the difference between quantitative and qualitative observations. Which statement is correct?
a)
A Quantitative uses numbers, qualitative uses the senses.
b)
A Quantitative uses the senses, qualitative uses numbers.
c)
A Quantitative uses measurement, qualitative uses numbers.
d)
A Quantitative uses colors, qualitative uses the senses.
9.
If your teacher asked you to make qualitative observations about the class’s pet hamster, which group of words might be used?
a)
A mass of 3 kg, 11 cm long, age of 16 months
b)
A mass of 3 kg, 11 cm long, cute
c)
A long hair, white and brown colored, soft
d)
A temperature, length, weight
10.
This layer of Earth is solid Iron and Nickel
a)
Outer Core
b)
Mantle
c)
Inner Core
d)
Crust
11.
What is the name of the layer that contains the uppermost mantle and crust
a)
Asthenosphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)
Lithosphere
d)
Transosphere
12.
The physical layer of Earth made of solid rock and soil is called the
a)
mesosphere
b)
lithosphere
c)
asthenosphere
d)
mantle
13.
The layer of Earth made of molten iron and nickel is known as the
a)
outer core
b)
inner core
c)
mantle
d)
asthenosphere
14.
Which compositional layer of Earth is located above the outer core?
a)
crust
b)
inner core
c)
mantle
d)
lithosphere
15.
Identify layer #20.
a)
mantle
b)
asthenosphere
c)
inner core
d)
outer core
16.
What is the order of the layers?
a)
inner core,lithosphere,Mesosphere,outer core,Asthenosphere
b)
Asthenosphere,lithosphere,Mesosphere,outer core,inner core
c)
lithosphere,Asthenosphere,Mesosphere,outer core,inner core
17.
what is the top layer?
a)
Mantle
b)
Innercore
c)
Outercore
d)
Crust
18.
Which layer is a solid
a)
innercore
b)
Outercore
19.
Name this plate boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
allegiant
20.
Name this plate boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
transformers
21.
Name this plate boundary.
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
insurgent
22.
What forms when denser oceanic crust is pushed under less dense oceanic crust?
a)
mountains
b)
volcanic islands
c)
rift valleys
d)
mid-ocean ridges
23.
This theory states that Earth's plates move on top of the mantle at a slow and constant rate due to convection currents
a)
plate tectonics
b)
continental drift
c)
seafloor spreading
d)
pangaea
24.
Large pieces of Earth's lithosphere that move around are called?
a)
sections
b)
plates
c)
land masses
d)
faults
25.
What is associated with transform boundaries?
a)
mountains
b)
volcanoes
c)
earthquakes
d)
islands
26.
What forms when an oceanic and continental plate converge?
a)
island arcs
b)
folded mountains
c)
volcanic mountains
d)
rift valleys
27.
What is a subduction zone?
a)
where plates move into each other
b)
where plates are moving away form each other
c)
where plates move past each other
d)
area where plate slips under another plate
28.
This plate is involved in all of the Ring of Fire Volcanoes.
a)
The Nazca Plate
b)
The North American Plate
c)
The Pacific Plate
d)
The Indian Plate
29.
Ring of Fire Volcanoes have...
a)
Blocky lava
b)
Sea water trapped inside
c)
Huge, violent eruptions
d)
All of the above
30.
What percent of the Earth's volcanoes reside in the Ring of Fire?
a)
75%
b)
100%
c)
90%
d)
0%
31.
A subduction zone is...
a)
plates pull apart.
b)
the continental plate slides under the oceanic plate.
c)
where the oceanic plate slides under the continental plate.
d)
plates slap each other a high five.
32.
The picture shows one example of evidence for continental drift. what evidence does it depict?
a)
similar fossils
b)
shape of coastlines
c)
land bridges
d)
rock types & structures
33.
The process by which plate tectonics produces new oceanic lithosphere is called ___
a)
subduction
b)
divergence
c)
sea floor spreading
d)
mountain building
34.
Which of the following is a CONSTRUCTIVE plate boundary?
a)
oceanic-oceanic convergent
b)
continental-continental convergent
c)
oceanic-continental convergent
d)
oceanic-oceanic divergent
35.
Spreading at divergent boundaries within a continent creates a
a)
trench
b)
rift valley
c)
subduction zone
d)
folded mountains
36.
Continental-continental convergence produces ___
a)
subduction zone
b)
folded mountains
c)
rift valley
d)
sea-floor spreading
37.
Force
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
Where an object is located in space.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
38.
Movement
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
Where an object is located in space.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
39.
Position
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
Where an object is located in space.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
40.
Direction
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
Where an object is located in space.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
41.
Gravity
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
The force that causes objects with mass to attract one another.
d)
A line or course along which something is moving.
42.
Friction
a)
A push or pull that causes an object to move, stop, or change direction.direction.
b)
A change in position or location
c)
The force that causes objects with mass to attract one another.
d)
A force that resists the motion of two surfaces sliding across one another.
43.
The force that opposes the motion of two surfaces sliding past each other is called ___________.
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
friction
d)
unbalanced
44.
The force resulting from the pull of the earth on an object.
a)
mass
b)
gravity
c)
acceleration
d)
unbalance
45.
Rubbing your hands together is an example of....
a)
mass
b)
gravity
c)
force
d)
friction
46.
____________ is another word for movement.
a)
mass
b)
gravity
c)
motion
d)
friction
47.
Juan is in the gym and rolls a basketball down the court. He notices that starts off fast but it slows down after a few seconds. What is causing it to slow down?
a)
motion
b)
mass
c)
motion
d)
friction
48.
Jessica's favorite season is fall. She enjoys this season cause the temperatures are much cooler and the leaves start to turn a different color and fall to the ground. What causes the leaves to fall to the ground?
a)
motion
b)
mass
c)
gravity
d)
friction
49.
Where in the universe does gravity act?
a)
nowhere
b)
only on Earth
c)
only between the Sun and planets
d)
everywhere
50.
The variable that will be changed is also known as the...
a)
independent variable
b)
dependent variable
c)
operative variable
51.
The variable that will be measured is known as the
a)
independent variable
b)
dependent variable
c)
operative variable
52.
__________ is the tendency of an object to resist a change in motion.
a)
inertia
b)
balance
c)
magnetism
d)
particles
53.
With unbalanced forces, the object will move in the direction of the _______ force.
a)
larger
b)
smaller
c)
equal
54.
You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.
a)
20N
b)
40N
c)
10N
d)
70N
55.
Friction and gravity are both examples of a force.
a)
True
b)
False
56.
___________ forces cancel each other out, because they are equal.
a)
unbalanced
b)
balanced
c)
large
d)
heavy
57.
What is the formula to calculate speed?
a)
S = t/d
b)
S = d/t
c)
S = d x t
d)
S = t x d
58.
What is speed?
a)
how far you go
b)
how much distance is covered over a period of time
c)
how fast you accelerate
d)
the change in the location of a object
59.
What is velocity?
a)
the quickness of an object
b)
the location of an object
c)
acceleration
d)
speed in a specific direction
60.
A runner races in the 100 meter dash. It takes her 10 seconds to finish. What is her average speed?
a)
10 m/s
b)
1000 m/s
c)
100 seconds
d)
10 seconds
61.
Total distance divided by total time is
a)
average speed
b)
constant speed
c)
instantaneous speed
d)
acceleration
62.
Alan travels 100km in 5hrs. Find his average speed in km/h
a)
5km/hr
b)
10km/hr
c)
50km/hr
d)
20km/hr
63.
Find speed when distance is 142 km and time is 2 hours.
a)
71km/hr
b)
52km/hr
c)
17km/hr
d)
90km/hr
64.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
65.
What is happening at D?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
66.
What is happening at E?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Steady speed; returning to start position
67.
What is happening at A?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Steady speed; returning to start position
68.
Which runner won the race?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
69.
Which runner had a head start?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
70.
The amount of energy a wave carries corresponds with its ____.
a)
crest
b)
wavelength
c)
amplitude
d)
period
71.
A series of vibrations you can hear
a)
sound waves
b)
pitch
c)
sound
d)
speed of sound
72.
The measure of energy a wave carries
a)
sound wave
b)
wavelength
c)
amplitude
d)
pitch
73.
Area where air is pushed together by vibrations
a)
speed of sound
b)
compression
c)
pitch
d)
sound waves
74.
Measure of how high or low a sound is
a)
amplitude
b)
compression
c)
speed of sound
d)
pitch
75.
An object that does not vibrate cannot produce
a)
sound
b)
light
c)
heat
d)
electricity
76.
If wave length decreases, then frequency ______________.
a)
decreases
b)
increases
c)
stays the same
77.
A medium can be a .....
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
d)
all of the above
78.
Where are the three smallest bones in your body found?
a)
outer ear
b)
middle ear
c)
inner ear
d)
eye
79.
Which part of the ear is responsible for capturing sound and moving it into your ear?
a)
outer ear
b)
middle ear
c)
inner ear
d)
eardrum
80.
What happens in the inner ear?
a)
Sound waves are captured.
b)
Sound waves move deeper into the ear.
c)
Sound waves are reflected.
d)
Sound waves are converted into nerve impulses.
81.
Where does HEARING (interpreting the nerve impulses) take place?
a)
outer ear
b)
middle ear
c)
inner ear
d)
brain
82.
the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information, enabling us to recognize meaningful objects and events.
a)
perception
b)
sensation
c)
bottom-up processing
d)
sensory adaptation
83.
The hammer, anvil, and stirrup are found in the:
a)
middle ear.
b)
inner ear.
c)
cochlea.
d)
outer ear.
84.
Which of the following correctly lists the order of structures through which sound travels after entering the ear?
a)
Auditory canal, eardrum, middle ear, cochlea
b)
Eardrum, auditory canal, middle ear, cochlea
c)
Eardrum, middle ear, cochlea, auditory canal
d)
Auditory canal, middle ear, eardrum, cochlea
85.
The cochlea is responsible for
a)
protecting the surface of the eye.
b)
transmitting vibrations received by the eardrum to the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.
c)
transforming vibrations into neural signals.
d)
coordinating impulses from the rods and cones in the retina.
86.
The part of your eye that gives it its color. It is a muscle that controls the size of your pupil.
a)
cornea
b)
lens
c)
pupi
d)
iris
87.
The first part of the eye that light hits.
a)
lens
b)
cornea
c)
pupil
d)
retina
88.
Lets the light in and it is the black portion of eye.
a)
pupil
b)
retina
c)
lens
d)
cornea
89.
Controls how much light enters the eye by changes the size of the pupil. It is also the color part of your eye.
a)
iris
b)
cornea
c)
Retina
d)
pupil
90.
Focusing light onto the retina and flips the image in the back of the eye.
a)
Retina
b)
lens
c)
Iris
d)
Neurons
91.
What is #18?
a)
Pinna
b)
Auditory Nerve
c)
Anvil
d)
Cochlea
92.
What is #13?
a)
Eardrum
b)
Anvil
c)
Hammer
d)
Cochlea
93.
A periodic disturbance in a solid, liquid, or gas as energy is transmitted through a medium
a)
A. surface wave
b)
B. transverse wave
c)
C. wave
d)
D. mechanical wave
94.
A physical environment in which phenomena occur
a)
A. longitudinal wave
b)
B. medium
c)
C. electromagnetic wave
d)
D. transverse wave
95.
A wave that requires a medium through wave which to travel
a)
A. electromagnetic wave
b)
B. longitudinal wave
c)
C. mechanical wave
d)
D. transverse wave
96.
A wave that does not require a medium
a)
A. electromagnetic wave.
b)
B. surface wave
c)
C. medium
d)
D. transverse wave
97.
A wave in which the particles of the medium move perpendicularly to the direction the wave is traveling
a)
A. surface wave
b)
B. transverse wave
c)
C. electromagnetic wave
d)
D. longitudinal wave
98.
A wave in which the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave motion
a)
A. mechanical wave
b)
B. surface wave
c)
C. longitudinal wave
d)
D. wave
99.
A transverse and a longitudinal wave that combine at or near the boundary between two media
a)
A. surface wave
b)
B. mechanical wave
c)
C. wave
d)
D. electromagnetic wave
100.
The maximum distance that the particles of a wave’s medium vibrate from their rest position
a)
A. frequency
b)
B. wavelength
c)
C. wave speed
d)
D. amplitude
101.
A change in the direction of a wave when the wave finds an obstacle or an edge.
a)
A. refraction
b)
B. reflection
c)
C. standing wave
d)
D. diffraction
102.
The bending of a wave as the wave passes between two substances in which the speed of the wave differs
a)
A. refraction
b)
B. reflection
c)
C. resonance
d)
D. standing wave
103.
The bouncing back of a ray of light, sound, or heat when the ray hits a surface that it does not penetrate
a)
A. refraction
b)
B. reflection
c)
C. resonance
d)
D. standing wave
104.
A wave can make a leaf bob up and down on the water, but it cannot move the leaf toward the shore. This is because waves only transfer
a)
A. matter.
b)
B. energy.
c)
C. media.
d)
D. crests.
105.
For a laboratory experiment, Antonia wants to measure the amplitude of a transverse wave. Which of the following distances is equal to the amplitude of a transverse wave?
a)
A. the distance from one crest to the next
b)
B. the distance from the highest point to the lowest point
c)
C. the distance from one trough to the next
d)
D. the distance from the rest position of the wave to its highest point
106.
Which of these waves do NOT require a medium?
a)
A. ocean waves
b)
B. seismic waves
c)
C. sound waves
d)
D. radio waves
107.
If you're moving from gamma rays to microwave, describe how the energy level changes
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Energy level doesn't change
d)
We never talked about it
108.
How much of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible?
a)
All of it
b)
None of it
c)
Most of it
d)
Only a small part
109.
Select the correct order of waves on the Electromagnetic Spectrum
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
110.
Put the visible light colors in order from longest wavelength to shortest wavelength
a)
Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow, Red
b)
Red, Yellow, Green, Orange, Violet, Blue, Indigo
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
111.
This type of Electromagnetic wave shows a break in bones.
a)
gamma ray
b)
x-ray
c)
brokenometer
d)
radio wave
112.
The higher the frequency the ______ the energy.
a)
higher
b)
lower
c)
neither, stays the same
113.
_______ carry the greatest amount of energy.
a)
x-rays
b)
gamma rays
c)
infrared rays
d)
visible light
114.
This wave has the second highest frequency on the spectrum.
a)
microwaves
b)
visible light
c)
x-rays
d)
gamma ray
115.
Wavelengths on the right side of the Electromagnetic spectrum are ______________.
a)
short
b)
long
c)
average
116.
Sound waves are NOT___________________________.
a)
Electromagnetic Waves
b)
Waves
c)
Mechanical Waves
d)
Compression
117.
The acronym (letters) used to remember visible light is____________
a)
KTPERRY
b)
ROYGBIV
c)
DOGPOUND
d)
ROMERO
118.
Electromagnetic waves________________travel through space.
a)
Never
b)
Cannot
c)
Can
d)
Wish they could
119.
Cancer can be treated with_______________waves.
a)
Penicillin
b)
Radio
c)
Infrared
d)
Gamma
120.
Which rays can be felt as heat?
a)
X-Rays
b)
Infrared Radiation
c)
Ultraviolet Radiation
d)
Microwaves
121.
Which waves are used to show heat loss with heat sensitive cameras?
a)
Infrared radiation
b)
ultraviolet radiation
c)
microwaves
d)
gamma rays
122.
The wave with high and low pressure areas is called a ________. The high pressure is a _____________ and the low pressure______________.
a)
Electromagnetic waves, Crest, Trough
b)
Mechanical Longitudinal, Compression, Rarefaction
c)
Mechanical Transverse, Rarefaction, Compression
d)
Electromagnetic Waves, Trough, Crest
123.
An earthquake sends out mechanical waves in all directions from its source. In answering the following question, assume the waves all have the same energy when they leave the source of the earthquake. These mechanical waves will reach point a,b,c and d. The medium the waves are traveling through is the Earth. Which of the following is true for all points
a)
Particles at those points will vibrate
b)
Particles at those points will change frequency
c)
Particles will change in their color
d)
Particles will become lucid
124.
Which wave has a greater frequency?
a)
A
b)
B
125.
Which letter represents amplitude?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
126.
Which letter represents the wave trough?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
127.
Which letter represents the wave crest?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
128.
Which letter represents wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
129.
What is an example of a Longitudinal wave
a)
Earthquake
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Light Waves
d)
X-rays
130.
Which direction does a Longitudinal wave travel
a)
parallel
b)
perpendicular
131.
Which direction does a Transverse wave travel
a)
parallel
b)
perpendicular
132.
Can you hear sounds in a vacuum?
a)
Yes
b)
No
133.
Which of these waves can travel in a vacuum (empty space)/
a)
sound wave
b)
radio wave
c)
compressional wave
d)
water wave
134.
These seismic waves can only travel through solids:
a)
p-waves
b)
s-waves
c)
surface waves
d)
z-waves
135.
These seismic waves compress and expand the ground like an accordion:
a)
p-waves
b)
s-waves
c)
surface waves
d)
z-waves
136.
These seismic waves can travel through both liquids and solids:
a)
p-waves
b)
s-waves
c)
surface waves
d)
z-waves
137.
These seismic waves can travel through both liquids and solids:
a)
p-waves
b)
s-waves
c)
surface waves
d)
z-waves
138.
These seismic waves arrive first to signal an earthquake and can damage buildings.
a)
p-waves
b)
s-waves
c)
surface waves
d)
z-waves
139.
These seismic waves produce movement that is similar to rolling waves in an ocean:
a)
p-wave
b)
s-wave
c)
surface wave
d)
z-wave
140.
These seismic waves can vibrate up and down or side to side at a 90 degree angle to the direction they travel:
a)
p-wave
b)
s-wave
c)
surface wave
d)
z-wave
141.
These seismic waves arrive second and can shake the ground violently.
a)
p-waves
b)
s-waves
c)
surface waves
d)
z-waves
142.
a celestial body orbiting around a planet or star.
a)
satellite
b)
sun
c)
moon
d)
crater
143.
a natural satellite that orbits a planet.
a)
sun
b)
atmosphere
c)
moon
d)
craters
144.
How many phases of the moon are there?
a)
4
b)
8
c)
10
d)
16
145.
The phases of the moon, IN ORDER, are:
a)
new moon-->waxing gibbous-->1st quarter-->waxing crescent-->full moon-->waning crescent-->3rd quarter-->waning gibbous
b)
new moon-->waning crescent-->1st quarter-->waning gibbous-->full moon-->waxing gibbous-->3rd quarter-->waxing crescent
c)
new moon-->1st quarter-->waxing crescent-->waxing gibbous-->full moon-->waning gibbous-->waning crescent-->3rd quarter
d)
new moon-->waxing crescent-->first quarter-->waxing gibbous-->full moon-->waning gibbous-->3rd quarter-->waning crescent
146.
What are the positions or order of the Earth, Moon and Sun when there is a full moon?
a)
Sun, Moon, Earth
b)
Sun, Earth, Moon
c)
Moon, Earth, Sun
d)
Moon, Sun, Earth
147.
Name this phase of the moon.
a)
waning crescent
b)
first quarter moon
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
148.
Name this moon phase.
a)
new moon
b)
firt quarter moon
c)
third quarter moon
d)
waning gibbous
149.
What is this moon phase?
a)
waning crescent
b)
waxing crescent
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waxing gibbous
150.
Name this moon phase.
a)
first quarter
b)
third quarter
c)
new moon
d)
waxing crescent
151.
Name this moon phase.
a)
waxing crescent
b)
waxing gibbous
c)
waning gibbous
d)
waning crescent
152.
As the moon's shape appears to get smaller, we say that the moon is _.
a)
swelling
b)
waxing
c)
waning
d)
disappearing
153.
What causes the Earth's seasons?
a)
The tilt of the Earth's axis
b)
The rotation of the Earth around it's axis
c)
The ocean's tides
d)
The prevailing winds
154.
The Earth rotates around it's axis every...
a)
12 hours
b)
365 days
c)
24 hours
d)
366 days
155.
Rotation means to...
a)
Dance
b)
Go around something
c)
Spin
d)
Stop
156.
Which moon phase is when you can't see the moon at all?
a)
Waning crescent
b)
Full moon
c)
Waxing gibbous
d)
New moon
157.
What season is the Northern Hemisphere in letter A?
a)
Winter
b)
Summer
c)
Spring
d)
Fall
158.
When the Northern Hemisphere is pointing towards the sun, what season is the Southern Hemisphere?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Fall
d)
Summer
159.
What are the reasons for the seasons?
a)
Earth's tilt and rotation.
b)
Earth's rotation and revolution.
c)
Earth's tilt and revolution.
d)
Earth's tilt and resolution
160.
The area where a total solar eclipse is experienced is called the:
a)
Penumbra
b)
Umbra
161.
A lunar eclipse is when:
a)
The shadow of Earth falls on the moon
b)
The shadow of the moon falls on the Earth
c)
The shadow of the sun falls on the moon
d)
The suns light shows red on the moon
162.
When the Sun, Earth, and the Moon are forming a 90 degree angle we are having a ____________________ tide.
a)
Beach
b)
Neap
c)
Spring
d)
Moon
163.
A __________________ tide occurs during a_______________________ moon and a __________________________moon.
a)
Spring, 1st quarter, 3rd/last quarter
b)
Moon, 1st quarter, 3rd/last quarter
c)
Neap, 1st quarter, 3rd/last quarter
d)
Beach, 1st quarter, 3rd/last quarter
164.
Spring tides occurs during a ___________moon and a __________________moon.
a)
New, Full
b)
1st Quarter, 3rd Quarter
c)
Waxing Gibbous, Waning Crescent
d)
1st Quarter, Full
165.
Tides are caused by
a)
strong winds that blow over ocean waters.
b)
the interaction of Earth, the moon and the sun.
c)
the shifting of the plates on the ocean floor.
d)
variations in the salinity of ocean water
166.
Tides are mostly affected by ___________
a)
wind
b)
gravitational pull of moon
c)
waves gravitation toward land
d)
rain
167.
Which body has the greater effect on Earth's tides?
a)
Sun
b)
Saturn
c)
Moon
d)
Venus
168.
How many low tides and high tides happen in a day?
a)
1 low tide, 1 high tide
b)
4 low tides, 4 high tides
c)
3 low tides, 3 high tides
d)
2 low tides, 2 high tides
169.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
170.
What type of tides would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
c)
new moon tide
d)
full moon tide
171.
Wha type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?
a)
full moon tide
b)
new moon tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
172.
What is a difference between spring and neap tides?
a)
Spring tides occur when the earth and sun are IN LINE with the new or full moon.
b)
Spring tides occur when moon in 3rd or 1st quarter phases
c)
Spring tides are LOWER than neap tides
173.
Why do globes lean sideways?
a)
To allow them to spin easier.
b)
To demonstrate the tilt of Earth's axis.
c)
To demonstrate the effects of gravity.
d)
To demonstrate day and night.
174.
The moon's __________ pulls the water on the earth towards it causing tides to occur.
a)
gravitational force
b)
light
c)
shadow
d)
orbit
175.
What happens when light hits an object you can see?
a)
The light turns corners.
b)
The light curves around the object.
c)
The object reflects the light.
d)
The light and the object do not form a shadow.
176.
What is a property of a transparent object?
a)
Almost all of the light rays that reach it are scattered.
b)
Almost all of the light rays that reach it are absorbed.
c)
Almost all of the light rays that reach it are reflected.
d)
Almost all of the light rays that reach it pass through it.
177.
Which is translucent?
a)
tissue paper
b)
air
c)
wood
d)
clear plastic
178.
What kind if lens would you find in your eye?
a)
opaque
b)
concave
c)
convex
d)
prism
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