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Worksheets10 Exam Revision
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 7hrs 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a scientific theory?
a)
100%, unimpeachable FACT
b)
A possible explanation based on measurable scientific evidence.
c)
A guess that some people believe
d)
A prediction about what you think will happen in an experiment.
2.
The Big Bang Theory explains the formation of the -
a)
Earth
b)
Sun
c)
Universe
d)
Solar System
3.
Before the Big Bang, where was all the matter and energy contained?
a)
Inside the sun
b)
In a single point
c)
It was invisible
d)
Under a rock
4.
Right after the big bang, what happened to all the matter and energy?
a)
It spread out in all directions
b)
It evaporated
c)
it shot forward in a straight beam
d)
It oozed slowly along a flat plane
5.
Which piece of evidence supports the Big Bang theory?
a)
The more distant galaxies are moving the slowest
b)
The more distant galaxies are moving the quickest
c)
The more distant galaxies are moving towards us
d)
Galaxies and space is not changing
6.
What does the Big Bang theory suggest?
a)
The universe was just there
b)
The Milky Way is the only solar system
c)
The universe is continually expanding
d)
The universe is collapsing in toward a single point
7.
What is most likely to be found in a nebula?
a)
salt crystals
b)
planets
c)
gas clouds
d)
ateroids
8.
Our solar system began as a -
a)
nebula
b)
quasar
c)
prototype
d)
neutron star
9.
In the last year, scientists confirmed Albert Einstein's theory when they recorded these for the first time.
a)
Collapsing stars
b)
Laser shows on late night television
c)
Nebulas forming stars
d)
Gravitational Waves
10.
Galaxies are formed when...
a)
the big bang happened
b)
stars move to nicer neighborhoods with better schools for their nebulas
c)
a catalyst compresses gas particles in a nebula and the particles fall into each other's gravitational field
d)
massive stars pull smaller stars into their gravitational field moving them in orbit around the massive star(s)
11.
Rate of chemical reaction means
a)
amount of product formed
b)
speed of reaction
c)
concentration of reacting particles
d)
combining reactants with products
12.
A substance that increases speed of chemical reaction without being being changed is called:
a)
Catalyst
b)
Acid
c)
Base
d)
pressure
13.
Increase in temperature of the reactants can do one of the following
a)
Slow collision frequency
b)
Allow less effective collision between the particles
c)
Neutralise the reaction
d)
increase collision between the particles thus increasing the rate.
14.
Increasing the pressure of a reacting vessel only affects:
a)
Gaseous reactants
b)
Solid reactants
c)
Liquid reactants
d)
None of the above
15.
To show how surface area affects rate of reaction you will use one of the following methods.
a)
Add catalyst
b)
Increase the temperature
c)
Decrease the pressure of reactants
d)
Finely divide the reacting substances
16.
To slow down a chemical reaction you will do one of the following:
a)
Place the reactants in hot water
b)
Place the products in ice bath
c)
Place the reactants in a ice bath
d)
Keep stirring the reactants with a stirring rod
17.
One of the signs of a chemical reaction taking place is:
a)
Bubbles are produced in the reacting vessel
b)
Reactants are not combining
c)
Products are not forming
d)
Colour is not changing
18.
A student is studying the effect of temperature on the speed of a reaction between hydrochloric acid and magnesium ribbon. What is the independent variable in her experiment?
a)
Hydrochloric acid
b)
Speed
c)
Temperature
d)
How fine is the magnesium ribbon
19.
In another experiment a students keeps the mass of magnesium ribbon same in every trial.The variable he is studying is:
a)
independent
b)
dependent
c)
controlled
d)
none of the above
20.
45 m/s2 is the...
a)
Mass
b)
Force
c)
Acceleration
d)
weight
21.
What Unit do we Measure Force in?
a)
Newtons
b)
Joules
c)
Force
d)
Don't know
22.
Which of Newton's laws is illustrated when a magician pulls a tablecloth out from under the dishes without disturbing them?
a)
first
b)
second
c)
third
d)
fourth
23.
With unbalanced forces, the object will move in the direction that the _______ force is being applied.
a)
larger
b)
smaller
c)
equal
24.
You push on a tree with 20 N of force. If the tree doesn't move, the tree is pushing back on you with _____of force.
a)
20N
b)
40N
c)
10N
d)
70N
25.
Which has more Inertia? (so need more force to move)
a)
Truck
b)
Ant
c)
A cat
d)
A skateboard
26.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2. what was the force
a)
25
b)
200 N
c)
20 N
d)
10 N
27.
Unit of mass
a)
m/s 2
b)
m/s
c)
newtons
d)
kg
28.
A person is pushed forward into their seatbelt when a car stops
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
2 and 3
d)
3rd
29.
What is Newton's First Law known as? The Law of
a)
Friction
b)
Mass
c)
Inertia
d)
Gravity
30.
What is Newton's First Law
a)
F=ma
b)
Every action has an equal and opposite reaction
c)
An object at rest stays at rest, an object in motion stays in motion.
d)
Friction
31.
When you kick a ball across a feild and it hits someone in the face and they fly backwards
a)
Action=Reaction
b)
Speed
c)
Motion
d)
Air
32.
An object in motion will stay in what kind of motion as long as the net forces acting on it are zero?
a)
slowing motion in a straight line
b)
accelerating motion in a straight line
c)
constant motion in a straight line
d)
constant motion in an unpredictable direction
33.
What is the name for a push or pull?
a)
A movement
b)
A force
c)
Speed
d)
Density
34.
Write 7.113 x 107 in standard form.
a)
71,130,00
b)
7,113,000
c)
0.0000007113
d)
7,113
35.
Write 0.00000707 in scientific notation.
a)
7.07 x 10-6
b)
7.07 x 106
c)
707 x 108
d)
707 x 10-8
36.
Write 2.08 x 102 in standard form.
a)
208
b)
0.0208
c)
20,800
d)
0.208
37.
Write 7.8 x 10-3 in standard form.
a)
0.0078
b)
7,800
c)
78
d)
0.078
38.
Write 8.73 x 10-4 in standard form.
a)
0.000873
b)
0.0873
c)
87,300
d)
8,730
39.
Write 6,700 in scientific notation.
a)
6.7 x 103
b)
6.7 x10-3
c)
67 x 102
d)
67 x 10-2
40.
Write 52,300,000 in scientific notation.
a)
5.23 x 107
b)
5.23 x 10-7
c)
52.3 x 106
d)
52.3 x 10-6
41.
Write 0.037 in scientific notation.
a)
3.7 x 10-2
b)
3.7 x 102
c)
37 x 10-3
d)
37 x 103
42.
The Law of Conservation of Energy states:
a)
Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed
b)
Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed
c)
Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed
43.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
44.
The gravitational potential energy stored between an object and Earth depends on
a)
The object's speed and height.
b)
The object's mass and speed.
c)
the object's size and weight.
d)
The object's height and weight.
45.
Energy due to motion is ____________ energy.
a)
Potential
b)
Energy
c)
Kinetic
d)
Friction
46.
Newton's 1st Law is
a)
F=MxA
b)
Action/Reaction
c)
Inertia
47.
Newton's 2nd Law is
a)
F=MxA
b)
Action/Reaction
c)
Inertia
48.
Newton's 3rd Law is
a)
F=MxA
b)
Action/Reaction
c)
Inertia
49.
LT4: The graph shows Ashley riding her bike to Maria's house.
What was occurring from point B to point C?
What was occurring from point B to point C?
a)
She was increasing her speed.
b)
She stopped for 4 minutes
c)
She was decreasing in speed
50.
LT4: The graph shows Ashley riding her bike to Maria's house.
What is occurring from point A to point B?
What is occurring from point A to point B?
a)
they are traveling at a constant speed
b)
they are decreasing in speed
c)
they stopped to take a break
51.
If your mass on Earth is 900g, what would your mass be on the Moon?
a)
900g
b)
150g
c)
5400g
d)
0g
52.
Your weight on Earth would be different than your weight on Mars.
a)
True
b)
False
53.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Not moving
54.
Forces always act in equal and opposite pairs.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
55.
Which law explains when a magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
56.
A person is driving a car 80 mi/h but not wearing a seat belt. A deer runs out in front of the car, forcing the driving to slam on his brakes. Which of the following would be true?
a)
The person will not move at all.
b)
The person will move forward into the dashboard
c)
Inertia stops the person from moving forward
57.
The yellow part of this picture is DNA. What do you think the turquoise part around it is?
a)
chromosome
b)
gene
c)
DNA
d)
ACTG
58.
DNA is inside your cells. What part of the cell is the DNA inside of?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
59.
What is a gene?
a)
A bundle (like a hot dog bun) that the DNA is packed into
b)
something inside the nucleus
c)
a piece of DNA
d)
all of your DNA
60.
What is the human genome?
a)
a piece of DNA
b)
a chromosome
c)
all of your cells
d)
all of your DNA
61.
Which sentence is FALSE?
a)
All organisms have 23 pairs of DNA.
b)
Chromosomes are made of genes.
c)
DNA is made out of 4 chemicals: adenine, cytosine, thymine, guanine
d)
DNA is the recipe for life.
62.
The twisted ladder shape of DNA is referred to as a ....
a)
Twizzler candy
b)
twisted ladder
c)
double helix
d)
yo mama
63.
Which of the following types of information are needed to construct a karyogram?
I. Size of the chromosomes
II. Gene mutations of the chromosomes
III. Age of the individual
I. Size of the chromosomes
II. Gene mutations of the chromosomes
III. Age of the individual
a)
I only
b)
II only
c)
I and II only
d)
I, II and III
64.
What is the difference between the alleles of a gene?
a)
Their position on the chromosome
b)
Their amino acid sequence
c)
Their pentose sugars
d)
Their base sequence
65.
Why can DNA profiling be used to determine paternity?
a)
Genes of children are exactly the same as their father’s
b)
Half the genes of children are the same as their father’s.
c)
The father passes on all of his genes to each of his children.
d)
The father passes on a fraction of his genes equal to the number of his children.
66.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partiaal strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
67.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
68.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
69.
What are the 4 nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, cytoplasm, and guanine
b)
adenine, thymine cytosine, and guanine
c)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and gylcerol
d)
adenine, thymine, cytosine, and glucose
70.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
71.
The purpose of meiosis is to form ________ cells.
a)
body
b)
sex
c)
somatic
d)
brain
72.
Meiosis occurs in the testes in men and the ___________ in women.
a)
uterus
b)
cervix
c)
ovaries
d)
stomach
73.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
74.
Which of these cells would undergo meiosis?
a)
skin cells
b)
liver cells
c)
brain cells
d)
sperm cells
75.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
76.
With mitosis you get ___, _________ cells, but with meiosis, you get ___, ____________.
a)
4, different, 2, identical
b)
4, identical, 2, different
c)
2, different, 4, identical
d)
2, identical, 4, different
77.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
gametes
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
78.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
79.
Structure (a) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
80.
Name the phase:
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Prophase
81.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
82.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
83.
The organelle that helps in cell division and produces spindle fibers.
a)
Chromosome
b)
Centriole
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Chloroplast
84.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
85.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
86.
Crossing over is important because....
a)
It prevents mutations from entering the gametes.
b)
It allows for even distribution of chromosomes in the gametes.
c)
It allows for more genetic diversity of gametes.
d)
It allows for genetic uniformity of gametes.
87.
What are chromosomes?
a)
different versions of genes
b)
condensed DNA
c)
uncoiled DNA
88.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
89.
Most of the cells in the human body are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
90.
type of reproduction of meiosis
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
91.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
92.
Name that process...
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Cell Cycle
d)
DNA replication
93.
Somatic cells (body cells)
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Transformation
d)
Mutations
94.
Name that process
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Mutation
d)
Cell Cycle
95.
a)
Co-dominance
b)
Blocked gene
c)
Sex-linked
d)
Incomplete dominance
96.
How many children do #5 & #6 have?
a)
1 male child
b)
2 male and 2 female children
c)
2 male children
d)
1 daughter and 1 son
97.
What do the shaded shapes represent?
a)
Normal individuals
b)
Affected individuals
c)
Carriers
d)
Deceased
98.
What do the shaded shapes represent?
a)
Normal individuals
b)
Affected individuals
c)
Carriers
d)
Deceased
99.
If this image were real, it would represent what type of inheritance?
a)
incomplete dominance
b)
codominance
c)
polygenic inheritance
d)
compete dominance
100.
The image shows the pattern of inheritance for colorblindness. From this diagram we can tell that colorblindness is
a)
a codominant trait
b)
a sex-linked trait
c)
carried on the Y chromosome
d)
is associated with a dominant allele
101.
How much of your DNA do you inherit from your mom?
a)
10%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
it varies
102.
Height in Pea Plants follows the patter of incomplete dominance. Two heterozygous (Tt) tall pea plants are crossed. Which describes their offspring?
a)
50% tall and 50% short
b)
25%tall, 50% medium, and 25% short
c)
100%short
103.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous
d)
DNA
104.
If the dominant allele (B) represents brown hair and the recessive allele (b) represents blonde hair, which offspring represents a homozygous recessive genotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
blonde
d)
bb
105.
In a breeding experiment what are the first 2 individuals called?
a)
P generation
b)
F1 generation
c)
F2 generation
106.
In a breeding experiment what is the 3rd generation called?
a)
P generation
b)
F1 generation
c)
F2 generation
107.
What is the definition of Heterozygous?
a)
when an individual has two sets of the same allele
b)
when it is neither dominant or recessive
c)
A pair of genes where one is dominant and one is recessive.
108.
Albinism is an example of what kind of trait?
a)
X-linked
b)
Blocked
c)
Lost
d)
Hidden
109.
What does the Law of Conservation of Mass state?
a)
Matter cannot be gained or lost in a chemical reaction.
b)
Matter can only be lost in a chemical reaction.
c)
Matter can only be gained in a chemical reaction.
d)
Matter can be gained and lost in a chemical reaction.
110.
What is the little number after an element in a chemical equation called.
Example: H2
Example: H2
a)
Coefficient
b)
Subscript
c)
Atom
d)
Equation
111.
What is the left part of a chemical equation called...
H2 + O --> H2O
H2 + O --> H2O
a)
Reactants
b)
Products
c)
Yields
d)
Chemical Equation
112.
What is the right part of a chemical equation called...
H2 + O --> H2O
H2 + O --> H2O
a)
Reactants
b)
Products
c)
Yields
d)
Chemical Equation
113.
What is the arrow in a chemical equation...
H2 + O --> H2O
H2 + O --> H2O
a)
Reactants
b)
Products
c)
Yields
d)
Chemical Equation
114.
Balance this equation...
H2 + Cl2 --> HCl
H2 + Cl2 --> HCl
a)
It is balanced
b)
3H2 + Cl2 --> 6H2Cl
c)
H2 + Cl2 --> 2HCl
115.
Is this balanced?...
Fe + S --> FeS
Fe + S --> FeS
a)
YES!
b)
NO!
116.
Balance this equation...
HgO --> 2Hg + O2
HgO --> 2Hg + O2
a)
It is balanced
b)
2HgO --> Hg + O2
c)
2HgO --> 2Hg + O2
117.
Is this balanced?...
Al + O2 --> 2Al2O3
Al + O2 --> 2Al2O3
a)
Yes!
b)
NO!
118.
In the equation, 2Mg + O2 ---> 2MgO, which are the reactants?
a)
Mg and O
b)
MgO
c)
Mg and MgO
d)
O and MgO
119.
Name this reaction, Cl2 + 2KI --> I2 + 2KCl
a)
Synthesis
b)
Single Replacement
c)
Double Replacement
d)
Decomposition
120.
Name this Reaction, CO2 + H2O --> H2CO3
a)
Decomposition
b)
Single Replacement
c)
Synthesis
d)
Combustion
121.
At the end of chemical reactions, what is the total mass of the reactants compared to the total mass of the products?
a)
the product is doubled
b)
the product is half the mass of the reactants
c)
the mass is the same
d)
the mass changes depending on the reaction
122.
Why is the following chemical equation not balanced?
H2 + O2 --> H2O
H2 + O2 --> H2O
a)
each side of the equation has a different number of oxygen atoms
b)
each side of the equation has a different number of hydrogen atoms
c)
each side has the same mass
123.
The Physical remains of a plant or animal preserved in rock or Earth's crust.
a)
Adapt
b)
Fossil
124.
Change over time...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide
125.
Charles Darwin came up with this theory
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Mutation
126.
Which of these is part of a nucleotide?
a)
Base
b)
Chocolate
127.
__________ is the method scientists use to determine whether one fossil is older than another fossil
a)
Absolute Dating
b)
Relative Dating
128.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
129.
A mutation can happen when ______________.
a)
the wrong base is used in the place of the correct base
b)
a base is left out
c)
different order
d)
All of the above.
130.
Fossil of the actual shape or animal is called a ___________________.
a)
True Fossil
b)
Trace Fossil
131.
What is one point of Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection.
a)
Over production and Variation
b)
Successful Reproduction
c)
Struggle to live
d)
all of the above.
132.
Darwin's explanation for evolution was dependent on which scientific concept?
a)
The ability of organisms to learn
b)
The significance of social behaviors to survival
c)
The existence of variations in a population
d)
The relationship between size and survival
133.
The theory of Natural Selection was developed by
a)
Darwin
b)
Lemarck
c)
Gould
d)
Weissman
134.
Because of the type of vegetation available to the Maumoo salamander, there are now two species in VA. This is an example of (Darwin's finches were also an example of this).......
a)
genetic drift
b)
speciation
c)
genetic equilibrium
d)
polygenics
135.
What you keep the same during the experiment is known as the ____ variable.
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Controlled
136.
What you measure in the experiment is known as the ______ variable.
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Controlled
d)
Constant
137.
What you change in the experiment is known as the _______ variable.
a)
Controlled
b)
Dependent
c)
Independent
d)
Constant
138.
During an experiment, you must always have a _____ group to compare to your experimental group.
a)
Variable
b)
Problem
c)
Hypothesis
d)
Control
139.
If plants are exposed to sunlight, then they will grow taller. What is this an example of?
a)
Title
b)
Hypothesis
c)
Question
d)
Observation
140.
"Will ice melt faster in salt water?", is an example of a
a)
Hypothesis
b)
Question
c)
Dependent variable
d)
Control
141.
How many valence electrons does hydrogen have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
7
d)
8
142.
How many valence electrons does helium have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
7
d)
8
143.
How many valence electrons does lithium have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
144.
How many valence electrons does beryllium have?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
145.
How many valence electrons does boron have?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
146.
Two or more different elements, chemically combined.
a)
atom
b)
molecule
c)
compound
d)
coefficient
147.
What is this type of diagram called?
a)
Electron Diagram
b)
Valence Diagram
c)
Dot Diagram
d)
Orbital Diagram
148.
How many valence electrons does this atom have?
a)
4
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
149.
What charge ion will this atom create?
a)
+
b)
+2
c)
-
d)
-2
150.
What charge ion will this atom create?
a)
+
b)
+2
c)
-
d)
-2
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