WorksheetsHon. Bio Tri B Review
Total questions: 250
Worksheet time: 5hrs 53mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Chromosomes are copied.
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
2.
Cytokinesis is the creation of two identical cells called _____.
a)
children cells
b)
new cells
c)
daughter cells
d)
son cells
3.
Nuclear membrane forms around chromosomes and begins to separate.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Telophase
4.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
5.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
6.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
7.
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
8.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
9.
What is the first phase of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
anaphase
c)
metaphase
d)
interphase
10.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
11.
The longest phase of the cell cycle
a)
prophase
b)
interphase
c)
metaphase
d)
mitosis
12.
The stage where chromosomes condese, pair up, and the nucleus starts to dissolve
a)
Prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
Telephase
13.
The stages of mitosis in order
a)
Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase
b)
Prophase, Anaphase, Metaphase, Telophase
c)
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase
d)
Anaphase, Prophase, Telophase, Metaphase
14.
The result of meiosis is:
a)
two diploid cells
b)
two haploid cells
c)
four diploid cells
d)
four haploid cells
15.
Crossing over is important because....
a)
It prevents mutations from entering the gametes.
b)
It allows for even distribution of chromosomes in the gametes.
c)
It allows for more genetic diversity of gametes.
d)
It allows for genetic uniformity of gametes.
16.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
17.
Most of the cells in the human body are produced by
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
18.
type of reproduction of meiosis
a)
sexual
b)
asexual
19.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
20.
if a cell has 24 chromosomes how many will it have at the end of mitosis
a)
6
b)
12
c)
24
d)
48
21.
The purpose of meiosis is to form ________ cells.
a)
body
b)
sex
c)
somatic
d)
brain
22.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
23.
Which of these cells would undergo meiosis?
a)
skin cells
b)
liver cells
c)
brain cells
d)
sperm cells
24.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
gametes
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
25.
How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
26.
What are some examples of SEXUAL reproduction?
a)
fertilization, pollinization
b)
binary fission, budding, regeneration, vegetative, propagation
c)
regeneration, fertilization, pollinization
d)
fertilization
27.
The offspring from asexually reproduced organisms are?
a)
Different than their parents
b)
Identical to parents
c)
Like a combination from both parents
d)
A different species
28.
A Goat has 60 chromosomes in its body cells. What is the haploid number?
a)
60
b)
30
c)
100
d)
120
29.
A dog has 78 chromosomes in its body cells. What is the diploid number?
a)
78
b)
39
c)
1
d)
100
30.
How many cells are produced in Mitosis?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
31.
Among the following, the term that includes the others is ___.
a)
interphase
b)
nuclear division
c)
mitosis
d)
cell cycle
32.
Cells of organism must replicate for ?
a)
growth
b)
repair of damaged cells
c)
replacement of dying cells.
d)
All of the above
33.
Eukaryotic cells store their genetic information(DNA) in __________.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Centromeres
c)
karyotypes
d)
Proteins
34.
Before cells can divide, what must be copied?
a)
mitochondria
b)
cytoplasm
c)
DNA
d)
Cell Wall
35.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
obesity
b)
cancer
c)
diabetes
d)
hepatitis
36.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
37.
In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell
a)
Grows
b)
Matures
c)
Carries on normal activities
d)
All of the above
38.
In the S stage of interphase_______________
a)
the cell grows
b)
the nucleus divides
c)
the cell membrane divides
d)
the DNA is replicated
39.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
40.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
41.
The chromosome in the diagram
a)
has been replilcated
b)
consists of 2 copies of 1 chromosome
c)
is about to go through cell division
d)
all of the above.
42.
When a plant cell goes through cell division, _____________.
a)
the 2 new nuclei are separated by the cell membrane pinching off.
b)
4 new cells are formed
c)
a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new nuclei
d)
None of the above
43.
When an animal cell goes through cytokinesis,__________
a)
a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new nuclei.
b)
the cell membrane pinches off the 2 new cells.
c)
4 new cells are formed.
d)
None of the above
44.
As a cell increases in size, the surface area to volume ratio _________________.
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
stays the same
45.
Which is an example of sexual reproduction?
a)
yeast producing identical cells
b)
dolphins laying eggs
c)
cutting off the arm of a starfish
d)
Butterflies receive nectar when they deposit pollen on flower
46.
Requires only ONE parent creating a clone of themselves-no diversity, large amounts of offspring
a)
natural selection
b)
selective breeding
c)
sexual reproduction
d)
asexual reproduction
47.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
48.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome
49.
Why would it be important to replicate DNA before a cell divides in mitosis or meiosis?
a)
In order for genetic information to be transferred into daughter cells.
b)
In order for the cell to be able to increase in size.
c)
In order for the DNA to be contained in the nucleus.
d)
In order for the cell to re-order the DNA sequencing in the new cells.
50.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
51.
Transcription takes place in the
a)
cytoplasm
b)
chloroplast
c)
nucleus
d)
mitochondria
52.
This cannot leave the nucleus
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
53.
Contains the bases adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both
54.
The genetic code...
a)
is composed of lipids
b)
is composed of protein
c)
is composed of carbohydrates
d)
is composed of nucleotides
55.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCA
a)
Met-Leu
b)
Met-Pro
c)
Tyr-Gly
d)
Tyr-Pro
56.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAA?
a)
Met
b)
Glu
c)
Tyr
d)
Arg
57.
What is the job of tRNA in protein synthesis?
a)
It is the blueprint of the genetic code
b)
it reads the mRNA
c)
it brings Amino Acids to the ribosome
d)
it is not involved in protein synthesis
58.
mRNA is important, because it __________.
a)
Carries info from genes to ribosomes
b)
Carries amino acids to ribosomes
c)
Helps with RNA splicing
d)
Makes up ribosomes
59.
Translation takes place in the __________.
a)
Ribosome
b)
Chloroplast
c)
Nucleus
d)
Mitochondria
60.
What is the term for a three nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid? For example: AUG
a)
Nitrogen base
b)
Codon
c)
Amine
d)
Phosphate group
61.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
62.
What would happen if we did not have start codons?
a)
Polypeptide chains would continue to grow
b)
Amino acids would bind to tRNA
c)
Protein synthesis wouldn't occur
d)
mRNA would form a double strand
63.
Which type of point mutations are frameshift mutations?
a)
substitution and deletion
b)
deletion and insertion
c)
insertion and substitution
d)
substitution only
64.
What is one major difference between DNA and RNA?
a)
DNA is single stranded
b)
RNA contains the sugar deoxyribose
c)
DNA contain the nitrogen base Thymine
d)
RNA is double stranded
65.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, a phosphate and this....
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
Nitrogen Base
d)
Peptide bond
66.
In the drawing, what nucleotide is going to be added at point 1, opposite from thymine?
a)
adenine
b)
thymine
c)
cytosine
d)
guanine
67.
In the drawing, what chemical is adding base pairs to the strand?
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
nucleosomes
c)
histonase
d)
chromatinase
68.
All of the following statements are true of a DNA molecule except that it-
a)
is made up of lipids.
b)
contains nucleotides.
c)
stores genetic information.
d)
duplicates itself.
69.
What is a nucleotide?
a)
A monomer made of a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base
b)
A monomer made of a adenosine triphosphate, a phosphate, and a sugar
c)
A polymer made of DNA and RNA
d)
No other choice is correct.
70.
Which component of DNA specifies the traits of an organism?
a)
5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose)
b)
hydrogen bonds
c)
phosphate groups
d)
nitrogenous base pairs
71.
What is responsible for holding the two strands of the DNA double helix together?
a)
hydrogen bonds
b)
alleles
c)
London dispersion forces
d)
deoxyribose sugars
72.
What term names the process during which DNA is copied prior to cell division?
a)
DNA polymerase
b)
DNA replication
c)
DNA regneration
d)
DNA redistribution
73.
Which best represents the sequence of bases on mRNA?
a)
A U C G
b)
A T U G
c)
A T C G
d)
U T C G
74.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
75.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
76.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
77.
How are the amino acids linked together during translation?
a)
by creating peptide bonds
b)
by creating hydrogen bonds
c)
by creating covalent bonds
d)
by creating phospate bonds
78.
How many amino acids can be represented by a single 3-base DNA sequence?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
8
79.
What type of mutation occurs when a piece of a chromosome is lost during cell division?
a)
Deletion
b)
Inversion
c)
Addition
d)
Translocation
80.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
81.
What are the building blocks of proteins call?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
82.
Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
83.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
84.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Inversion
d)
Translocation
85.
A type of substitution in which no amino acids change is called
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
86.
Which change below would result in a different Amino Acid?
3'-GCT-5'
3'-GCT-5'
a)
GTT
b)
TCT
c)
TCC
d)
GCA
87.
What is the first step in protein synthesis?
DNA->mRNA
DNA->mRNA
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
88.
What is the final step in protein synthesis?
mRNA-->protein
mRNA-->protein
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
89.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Transcription
90.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
91.
Which phrase best describes translation?
a)
converts mRNA into a polypeptide (protein)
b)
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
c)
produces RNA from DNA molecules
d)
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
92.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
93.
Which of these is correct?
a)
DNA --> mRNA --> polypeptide chain
b)
DNA --> polypeptide chain --> mRNA
c)
mRNA --> DNA --> polypeptide chain
d)
polypeptide chain --> DNA --> mRNA
94.
What would be the tRNA anticodon for the mRNA codon CAG?
a)
GTC
b)
GUC
c)
CUG
d)
CAG
95.
The codon is located on the
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
96.
What is the name of the enzyme that is used to "Unzip" the DNA to begin DNA replication?
a)
Ligase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Helicase
d)
Primase
97.
What kind of organic molecule is DNA?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
98.
What kind of sugar is found in DNA?
a)
Glucose
b)
Fructose
c)
Sucrose
d)
Deoxyribose
99.
The five carbon sugar found in RNA
a)
Ribose
b)
Deoxyribose
c)
Glucose
100.
Brown fur is dominant to white fur in dogs. A homozygous dominant dog is crossed with a heterozygous dog. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
101.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
102.
Squidward has light blue skin, and his genotype for this trait is Bb. Would Squidward be considered a purebred or hybrid for light blue skin?
a)
Purebred
b)
Hybrid
103.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
104.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
105.
Having two of the same alleles for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
106.
Having two different alleles for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
107.
Magda is a tall, 11 year old drummer. She has a scar on her right cheek. She is good at swimming. Which of her traits did Magda most likely inherit?
a)
height
b)
the scar
c)
ability to swim
d)
ability to play drums
108.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
109.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
110.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present is called a ______.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
111.
Two heterozygous (Tt) tall pea plants are crossed. Which describes their offspring?
a)
50% tall and 50% short
b)
75%tall and 25% short
c)
100%short
112.
Which of the following is homozygous dominant?
a)
Yy
b)
Y
c)
yy
d)
YY
113.
If "T" is the allele for tall and "t" is the allele for short, then Tt would produce?
a)
tall
b)
short
c)
medium
d)
not enough info
114.
Which set of chromosomes determines that you are a male?
a)
XX
b)
BB
c)
XY
d)
Bb
115.
The different forms of a gene are called _____.
a)
variable
b)
traits
c)
alleles
d)
offspring
116.
If a pea plant were homozygous recessive for height, how would its alleles be represented?
a)
TT
b)
Tt
c)
tt
d)
tT
117.
Is the sex of a baby determined by the baby's mother or the father?
a)
mother
b)
father
118.
A human usually has _____ total chromosomes.
a)
6
b)
22
c)
4
d)
46
119.
The cells produced by meiosis are called _____.
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
120.
What process produces 2 identical cells?
a)
mitosis
b)
meiosis
121.
Females have the sex chromosomes
a)
XX
b)
XY
c)
XXX
d)
XYY
122.
______________________ is the mathematical chance that something will happen.
a)
division
b)
selective breeding
c)
ratio
d)
probability
123.
What are the possible combinations of a pea plant with the alleles PP and a male pea plant with the alleles pp.
P= purple
p= white
P= purple
p= white
a)
all Pp
b)
all PP
c)
Pp,PP,Pp,PP
d)
all pp
124.
A couple has 6 children, all girls. If the mother gives birth to a 7th child, what is the probability that the seventh child will be a girl?
a)
7 out of 7
b)
6 out of 7
c)
1 out of 2
d)
1 out of 7
125.
Purebred is another word for __________, while hybrid is another word for __________.
a)
dominant; recessive
b)
recessive; dominant
c)
homozygous; heterozygous
d)
heterozygous; homozygous
126.
Freckles (F) are dominant over no freckles. What is the phenotype of individual #3
a)
Ff
b)
ff
c)
freckles
d)
nonfreckles
127.
In the punnett square shown, what must the genotype of the missing parent be?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Tt
128.
What part of an organism's genetic makeup is received from its mother?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
129.
Genes make up DNA and DNA makes up...
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Genetics
c)
Genotype
d)
Punnett Square
130.
Different forms of a same gene are called an __________________
a)
DNA
b)
Gene
c)
Allele
d)
Nuclei
131.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
132.
What is another way of saying "hybrid"?
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous dominant
c)
homozygous recessive
d)
none of these choices
133.
Two heterozygous parents produce offspring. What is the probability of the HETEROZYGOUS GENOTYPE appearing in the offspring generation?
a)
75%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
134.
Two heterozygous parents produce offspring. What is the probability of the HOMOZYGOUS DOMINANT GENOTYPE appearing in the offspring generation?
a)
75%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
135.
HH crossed with Hh. What is the probability of hh?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
136.
B=brown eyes
b= blue eyes
What is true about two brothers that have brown eyes?
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
b= blue eyes
What is true about two brothers that have brown eyes?
One has genotype BB the other Bb.
a)
they have same phenotype and genotype
b)
they have different genotypes and phenotypes
c)
they have same phenotype but different genotypes
d)
they have same genotype but different phenotypes
137.
This is an example of what?
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
None of the above
138.
If T=Tall & t=short, what is the genotypic ratio?
a)
1:3
b)
3:1
c)
1:2:1
d)
2:2
139.
A corn plant heterozygous for tall sprouts mates with a corn plant with short sprouts. If tall sprouts are dominant, how many different phenotypes are possible in the offspring?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
140.
If a Homozygous red snapdragon and a Heterozygous pink snapdragon were crossed - what percentage of the offspring would be homozygous white?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
141.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
142.
W=white hair
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
a)
none
b)
3/4
c)
1/2
d)
all
143.
In certain rats, black fur is dominant over white fur. If two rats, both heterozygous for fur color are mated, their offspring would be expected to have
a)
four different genotypes and two different colors
b)
two different genotypes and three different colors
c)
three different genotypes and two different colors
d)
three different genotypes and three different colors
144.
A person with type O blood marries a person with type AB blood. Possible blood genotypes of their children are
a)
I(A)i and I(B)I(B)
b)
I(B)I(B) and I(A)I(A)
c)
I(A)i and I(B)i
d)
I(A)I(B) and ii
145.
In screech owls, red feathers are dominant over gray feathers. If two heterozygous red-feathered owls are mated, what percentage of their offspring would be expected to have red feathers?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
146.
A cross between two tall garden pea plants produced 314 tall plants and 98 short plants. What genotypes are the parents?
a)
TT and tt
b)
TT and Tt
c)
Tt and Tt
d)
TT and TT
147.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
148.
What does a Punnett Square help you do?
a)
Determine the ratio of phenotypes
b)
Determine the ratio of genotypes
c)
Predict possible traits the offspring will have
d)
All of the above
149.
What is genetic engineering?
a)
Manipulation/addition of genes
b)
Naturally breeding two animals with desired traits
c)
Cross-pollinating two crops
d)
Harvesting stem cells
150.
In some carnations, flower color exhibits codominance. When crosses, Red (R) and white (W) flowers make speckled flowers (RW) that show both colors.
Complete a cross between A speckled flower and a red flower. Find the phenotype ratio.
Complete a cross between A speckled flower and a red flower. Find the phenotype ratio.
a)
2 red: 2 speckled: 0 white
b)
4 red: 0 speckled: 0 white
c)
0 red: 4 speckled: 0 white
d)
0 red: 2 speckled: 2 white
151.
In Andalusian fowls, black individuals (BB) and white individuals (bb) are homozygous. Heterozygous individuals are grey (Bb).
Cross a black fowl with a white fowl. What is the phenotype ratio?
Cross a black fowl with a white fowl. What is the phenotype ratio?
a)
4 black: 0 grey: 0 white
b)
2 black: 2 grey: 0 white
c)
0 black: 4 grey: 0 white
d)
0 black: 2 grey: 2 white
152.
A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (orange and white). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan steer mate together?
a)
4: Orange and White
b)
1: Orange : 1 White
c)
2 Orange: 2 Orange and White: 0 White
d)
1: Orange: 2 Orange and White: 1 White
153.
A round watermelon is crossed with a long watermelon and all of the offspring are oval. If two oval watermelons are crossed, what is the percent of the watermelons that will be round?
a)
0
b)
25
c)
50
d)
75
154.
In a certain species of plant, the trait for tall is dominant and the trait for short is recessive. The trait for yellow seeds is dominant and the trait for green seeds is recessive. A cross between two plants results in 292 tall yellow and 103 short green plants. What are the genotypes of the parents?
a)
TTYY x Ttyy
b)
TTYy x TTYy
c)
TTyy x TTYy
d)
TtYy x TtYy
155.
The expression of both alleles for a trait in a hybrid individual is
a)
pleiotropy
b)
epistasis
c)
polygenic
d)
codominance
156.
How many autosomes does the human male normally have?
a)
2
b)
44
c)
46
d)
23
157.
A man with a sex-linked allele will pass it on
a)
to all his daughters
b)
half his daughters
c)
all of his sons
d)
half his sons
158.
Blood type is controlled by 3 alleles. What inheritance pattern is this?
a)
multiple alleles
b)
codominance
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
law of dominance
159.
Blood type AB
a)
epistasis
b)
codominance
c)
incomplete dominance
d)
hybrid vigor
160.
Genes are segments of
a)
DNA
b)
Protein
c)
Alleles
d)
Cells
161.
When humans breed purebred dogs to look a certain way and have traits that they like, this is an example of ___________________________
a)
Probably Breeding
b)
Sectional Breeding
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Suspended Breeding
162.
FF crossed with ff, what is the probability of the DOMINANT PHENOTYPE appearing in the offspring generation?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
163.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
164.
What does GMO stand for?
a)
Genetics Modification Organics
b)
Genetically Modified Oranges
c)
Genetically Made Oranges
d)
Genetically Modified Organisms
165.
What is recombinant DNA?
a)
DNA containing genes foreign to that organism
b)
DNA which has been impacted by epigenetics
c)
DNA that has restriction enzymes
d)
DNA that has been sequenced
166.
A female guinea pig homozygous dominant for black fur color is mated with a male homozygous for white fur color. In a litter of eight offspring, probability would predict there would be _____.
a)
8 black guinea pigs
b)
4 black and 4 white guinea pigs
c)
2 black, 4 gray, and 2 white guinea pigs
d)
8 white guinea pigs
167.
The man who studied genetics and came up with genetics is
a)
Watson
b)
Crick
c)
Mendel
d)
Darwin
168.
A pattern of inheritance in which one allele is not completely dominant over the other. The heterozygous phenotype clearly expresses both alleles.
a)
Mendelian inheritance
b)
Co-dominance
c)
Incomplete dominance
d)
Sex-linked inheritance
169.
In fruit flies eye color is carried on the X chromosome. RED is dominant to WHITE. What is the sex and color of the following: XRXR
a)
female red
b)
female white
c)
male red
d)
male white
170.
Colorblindness is a recessive, X chromosome sex-link disorder. Cross the parents to figure out which percentage of their offspring will be colorblind.
a)
25%
b)
0%
c)
75%
d)
50%
171.
What is the cause of some traits seeming to "skip" a generation?
a)
dominant traits
b)
recessive traits
c)
mutations
d)
natural selection
172.
A diploid body cell with the genotype RrYy undergoes meiosis to form gametes. What are all of the possible allelic combinations that can be found in the gametes? (you need to FOIL)
a)
RR, YY, Rr, Yy
b)
Ry and rY
c)
RrYy and RRYY
d)
RY, Ry, rY, ry
173.
The law that states that the inheritance of one trait has no effect on the inheritance of another is
a)
the law of independent assortment
b)
the law of dominance
c)
the law of segregation
174.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
175.
How many girls did the mother and father from the first generation have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
176.
What type of heredity is shown in the pedigree?
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
(hint: check your notes - "modes of inheritance")
a)
Sex-Linked Dominant
b)
Sex-Linked Recessive
c)
Autosomal Dominant
d)
Autosomal Recessive
177.
Which individual in the first generation is a carrier?
a)
The male
b)
The female
c)
individual 1
d)
None of the above
178.
In the second generation-how many people have the disease or display the physical trait?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
179.
What does a horizontal line between a square and a circle mean?
a)
They are siblings
b)
They are cousins
c)
They are married ("together")
d)
They are the children
180.
What does a vertical line coming down from a square and circle that are connected by horizontal line indicate?
a)
They are cousins
b)
The children
c)
Aunts and Uncles
181.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
182.
In an ecosystem, which is NOT a density-
dependent limiting factor?
dependent limiting factor?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism
c)
predation
d)
natural disaster
183.
If a population grows larger than its environmental carrying capacity, then
a)
death rate may rise.
b)
death rate may fall significantly.
c)
birth rate may rise significantly.
d)
immigration rate may increase.
185.
How does an increase in population density impact the spread of infectious disease?
a)
as population density increases, spread of infectious disease decreases
b)
as population density decreases, spread of infectious disease decreases
c)
as population density decreases, spread of infectious disease increases
d)
as population density increases, spread of infectious disease increases
185.
How does an increase in population density impact the spread of infectious disease?
a)
as population density increases, spread of infectious disease decreases
b)
as population density decreases, spread of infectious disease decreases
c)
as population density decreases, spread of infectious disease increases
d)
as population density increases, spread of infectious disease increases
186.
Any abiotic or biotic factor in an ecosystem that causes a population’s size to slow or decrease is a ____________ factor.
a)
growth
b)
limiting
c)
carrying
d)
density dependent
187.
A density independent limiting factor is a limiting factor of a population that can affect population growth no matter what the population density. What is a density independent limiting factor that can affect the human population growth of North Carolina?
a)
disease
b)
hurricanes
c)
food supply
d)
water supply
188.
The BP oil spill in the Gulf of Mexico has harmed many aquatic organisms that live in the Gulf region.
a)
density-dependent
b)
density-independent
189.
A new strain of influenza (the flu) breaks out in New York City.
a)
density-dependent
b)
density-independent
190.
As a population reaches its carrying capacity, there may be an increase in competition for
a)
food
b)
shelter
c)
mates
d)
all the above
191.
What is population density?
a)
The number of people living across Europe.
b)
The number of plants occupying an area.
c)
The number of people living in an area.
d)
The number of insects in an ecosystem.
192.
The carrying capacity of an environment for a particular species at a particular time is determined by the
a)
number of individuals in the species.
b)
distribution of the population.
c)
reproductive potential of the species.
d)
supply of the most limited resources
193.
What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
194.
Regarding population dispersion patterns, which of the following is an improper pairing
a)
random—not evenly spaced
b)
uniform—evenly spaced
c)
clumped—clustered in space
d)
random—clustered in space
195.
An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing?
a)
density
b)
dispersion
c)
carrying capacity
d)
quardrats
196.
The most common kind of dispersion in nature is
a)
clumped
b)
uniform
c)
random
d)
inderminate
197.
If the carrying capacity of a predator decreases, what will happen to the carrying capacity of the prey?
a)
Will Increase
b)
Will Decrease
c)
Will stay the same
d)
Will fluctuate
198.
Organisms move away (out) from an area
a)
Competition
b)
Predation
c)
Emigration
d)
Immigration
199.
What do you call a period of rapid growth (experiencing unlimited resources)?
a)
Exponential growth
b)
Logistic growth
c)
Emigration
d)
Mortality
200.
What type of growth model is this?
a)
exponential growth model
b)
logistic growth model
c)
Type I curve
d)
Type III curve
201.
relationship in which two species live closely together
a)
resource
b)
mutualism
c)
succession
d)
symbiosis
202.
symbiotic relationship in which one organism benefits and the other organism is harmed
a)
secondary succession
b)
predation
c)
pioneer species
d)
parasitism
206.
the species that starts life in primary succession
a)
pioneer species
b)
succession
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
cellular respiration
207.
the process by which a new community replaces another community that has been destroyed
a)
exponential growth
b)
primary succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
succesion
208.
symbiotic relationship in which one organisms benefits and the other organism is not affected
a)
invasive (non-native) species
b)
mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
commensalism
206.
the species that starts life in primary succession
a)
pioneer species
b)
succession
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
cellular respiration
207.
the process by which a new community replaces another community that has been destroyed
a)
exponential growth
b)
primary succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
succesion
208.
symbiotic relationship in which one organisms benefits and the other organism is not affected
a)
invasive (non-native) species
b)
mutualism
c)
nitrogen fixation
d)
commensalism
209.
the process by which a new community forms where no community lived before
a)
resource
b)
invasive (non- native) species
c)
primary succession
d)
competition
210.
The variety of all living things
a)
biome
b)
niche
c)
biodiversity
d)
species
211.
population numbers get too large for the environment to support it and growth slows
a)
Exponential growth
b)
Logistic growth
c)
Natality
d)
Emigration
212.
What kind of factor: temperature?
a)
density-independent
b)
density-dependent
213.
A stable ecological community that has reached equilibrium
a)
ecological succession
b)
climax community
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
214.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
215.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
216.
The picture shows what type of succession?
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
tertiary
d)
quadanary
217.
What type of growth curve is pictured?
a)
exponential
b)
logistic
c)
predator-prey
d)
invasive
218.
What is an ecosystem?
a)
All the interacting organisms that live in an environment and the abiotic parts of the environment that affect the organisms
b)
A person who observes and studies the interactions between the biotic and abiotic parts of the environment
c)
The relationship among the biotic parts of the environment
d)
The relationship between all the abiotic elements of a pond
219.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
220.
Choose the correct sequence for energy flow within an ecosystem
a)
herbivores --> producers --> carnivores --> scavengers
b)
producers --> herbivores --> carnivores --> scavengers
c)
producers --> carnivores --> herbivores --> scavengers
d)
carnivores --> scavengers --> herbivores --> producers
221.
How is the majority of energy within an ecosystem lost?
a)
heat loss
b)
energy used to grow biomass
c)
cellular respiration
d)
cellular metabolism
222.
Use Figure 3-2. Which ecosystem is the most productive?
a)
tundra
b)
tropical rainforest
c)
coral reefs
d)
swamps and marshes
223.
Use Figure 3-2. How would you describe the relationship between temperature of a continental ecosystem and net primary productivity based on the data provided?
a)
there is no clear relationship between temperature and productivity
b)
the warmer the ecosystem, the higher the productivity
c)
the colder the ecosystem the higher the productivity
d)
the warmer the ecosystem, the lower the productivity
224.
Use Figure 3-3. Looking at the ecological pyramid above, what would be the most likely number of joules to fill in X, Y and Z?
a)
X=100; Y=1000; Z=10,000
b)
X=1; Y=500; Z=10,000
c)
X=10,000; Y=500; Z=1
d)
X=50; Y=50,000; Z=500,000
225.
Use Figure 3-3. What type of organism would you expect to find on the lowest level of the pyramid above?
a)
gazelle
b)
lion
c)
vulture
d)
grasses
226.
Which stage of the hydrologic cycle can be the most direct cause of algal blooms?
a)
Evaporation
b)
Precipitation
c)
transpiration
d)
runoff
227.
What impact does deforestation have on the carbon cycle?
a)
Increase in amount of CO2 in the atmosphere
b)
decrease in amount of CO2 in the atmosphere
c)
Increase in amount of photosynthesis
d)
Increase in the amount of cellular respiration performed by autotrophs
228.
Which element is the most abundant in the atmosphere?
a)
oxygen
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
sulfur
229.
What is the major source of phosphorus on land?
a)
Deposition from atmospheric phosporus
b)
compounds that are formed by autotrophs during photosynthesis
c)
compounds released from the weathering of rocks
d)
compounds formed from bacterial conversion
230.
What is a watershed?
a)
network of streams leading to a larger river
b)
network of rivers and bays that lead to the ocean
c)
reservoir of water stored underground
d)
area of land that drains to a body of water
231.
What happens during nitrogen fixation?
a)
Bacteria in the soil convert nitrate into nitrogen gas and nitrous oxide.
b)
Nitrogen wastes are into ammonium.Organisms convert nitrogen into carbon dioxide and energy,
c)
Organisms convert nitrogen into carbon dioxide and energy,
d)
Atmospheric nitrogen diffuses into the soil and is converted into ammonia.
232.
Despite having plenty of sun and rain, the tropical rainforest has very poor _____.
a)
biodiversity
b)
soil
c)
animal life
d)
air quality
235.
This biome contains mostly spruce trees and Douglas firs, which are both evergreen. The winters are long and cold and the summers are short and rainy. The soil is very rich. Moose and elk live here. This biome is classified as a
a)
taiga
b)
tundra
c)
deciduous forest
d)
temperate forest
234.
Benthos are organisms that live
a)
On the surface of the water
b)
throughout the water column
c)
ocean floor
d)
shallow water
235.
This biome contains mostly spruce trees and Douglas firs, which are both evergreen. The winters are long and cold and the summers are short and rainy. The soil is very rich. Moose and elk live here. This biome is classified as a
a)
taiga
b)
tundra
c)
deciduous forest
d)
temperate forest
236.
What is the most helpful thing when looking at a fossil record?
a)
size of the fossil
b)
color of the fossil
c)
surface area of the rocks found around the fossil
d)
depths in which the fossils are found
237.
Structures that are present in a species but the structure no longer has a purpose
a)
homologous structures
b)
vestigial structures
c)
analogous structures
d)
adapations
238.
What type of structures are these?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
analogous
d)
fossil
239.
Structures that have the same function but different structures are...
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
vestigial structures
d)
embryology
240.
_______________________ is the change in the frequency of a gene in a population as a result of chance.
a)
Gene Flow
b)
Evolution
c)
Frequency Change
d)
Genetic Drift
241.
What do phylogenic trees do?
a)
Help you visualize how species are related.
b)
Provide windbreaks in your yard.
c)
Provide DNA details.
d)
Show the distribution of organisms
242.
The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in a group is called a(n)
a)
change
b)
adaption
c)
species
d)
variation
243.
a bird that can easily outcompete other birds for food and that can produce many eggs has a high
a)
life expectancy
b)
mutation rate
c)
fitness
d)
adaptability
244.
What kid of isolation occurs when two populations of birds have different courtship dances?
a)
geographic
b)
sexual
c)
temporal
d)
behavioral
245.
two species are in different environments and look very similar. However, that are not closely related (analogous). Their resemblance is most likely an example of.
a)
sexual selection
b)
temporal isolation
c)
convergent evolution
d)
divergent evolution
246.
Natural selection could not occur without
a)
geographic isolation
b)
variation in the population
c)
stable environments
d)
competition for unlimited resources
247.
The forelimbs of vertebrates, like the ones pictured here, are similar in terms of number of bones and the orientation of bones. Which best describes how comparing homologous structures provides evidence of evolution?
a)
The genes for the body plan and forelimb layout were present in a common ancestral species vertebrates share, thus passed onto all vertebrates.
b)
Similar anatomical structures show how animals adapt to changing environments
c)
Homologous structures show that different species evolve at different rates
d)
Homologous structures don’t actually provide evidence for evolution
248.
What type of evolution do homologous structures show?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
artificial selection
d)
disruptive selection
249.
What type of evolution do anallogous structures show?
a)
convergent
b)
divergent
c)
artificial selection
d)
disruptive selection
250.
What type of rock are fossils most commonly preserved in?
a)
igneous
b)
metamorphic
c)
sedimentary
d)
lava
100 %
