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WorksheetsIPC Semester Exam Review Units 1-4
Total questions: 88
Worksheet time: 44mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The distance between crests on a wave is the
a)
wavelength
b)
amplitude
c)
frequency
d)
none of these
2.
Which of the following best defines amplitude?
a)
distance between adjacent crests
b)
number of vibration per second
c)
one-half the height between the crest and the trough
d)
none of these
3.
For any given wave, energy is most related to the
a)
crest of the wave
b)
wavelength of the wave
c)
amplitude of the wave
d)
none of these
4.
What is the period of vibration for a wave with a frequency of 50 hertz?
a)
50 seconds
b)
2 seconds
c)
0.02 seconds
d)
None of these
5.
If a wave has amplitude of 0.2 meters, a wavelength of 0.5 meters, and a frequency of 32 Hz, at what speed is it moving?
a)
6.4 m/s
b)
16 m/s
c)
32.5 m/s
d)
none of these
6.
How fast is a wave moving if it has a frequency of 10 Hz and there are 4 meters between crests?
a)
40 m/s
b)
34 m/s
c)
72 m/s
d)
none of these
7.
In which type of wave does the medium move perpendicular to the direction of energy transport?
a)
primary wave
b)
longitudinal wave
c)
transverse wave
d)
none of these
8.
In which type of wave does the medium move parallel to the direction of the energy transport?
a)
secondary wave
b)
longitudinal wave
c)
surface wave
d)
none of these
9.
Which type of wave is characterized by circular motion?
a)
transverse wave
b)
primary wave
c)
surface wave
d)
none of these
10.
During constructive interference, two waves moving through the same medium will
a)
not occupy the same space
b)
amplify each other
c)
move around each other
d)
none of the these
11.
During constructive interference, two waves travel through the same medium so that the effect of the first wave are
a)
subtracted from the effects of the second wave
b)
added to the effects of the second wave
c)
multiplied by the effects of the second wave
d)
none of these
12.
Another name for destructive interference is
a)
cancellation
b)
amplification
c)
multiplication
d)
none of these
13.
A standing wave is one which travels through space indefinitely.
a)
True
b)
False
14.
A standing wave is one which appears fixed or stationary in space.
a)
True
b)
False
15.
At nodes, the two waves undergo destructive interference and cancel each other out. At antinodes, the two waves undergo constructive interference and amplify each other.
a)
True
b)
False
16.
When refraction occurs, a change in wave speed leads to a change in wave direction.
a)
True
b)
False
17.
Reflection occurs with light waves only, not sound or water waves.
a)
True
b)
False
18.
The Doppler Effect means that all observers of a moving wave source detect the same wave frequency.
a)
True
b)
False
19.
Which of the following statements is true about the movement of sound waves?
a)
they can only travel through a vacuum
b)
they can travel through air only
c)
they need a medium through which to be transmitted
d)
none of these
20.
Which of the following is closest to the speed at sound in air at sea level?
a)
3 m/s
b)
30 m/s
c)
330 m/s
d)
none of these
21.
Heating the air will
a)
not affect the speed of sound
b)
block the movement of sound
c)
slightly increase the speed of sound
d)
none of these
22.
Refraction of sound waves often takes place when
a)
there are temperature difference in air
b)
there are walls around a room to bounce back sound
c)
sound wave frequencies are increased
d)
none of these
23.
To what is the pitch of sound related?
a)
frequency of the sound waves
b)
amplitude of the sound waves
c)
speed of the sound waves
d)
none of these
24.
Which part of the ear sends sound messages to the brain?
a)
cochlear nerve
b)
ossicles
c)
ear drum
d)
none of these
25.
Because radio waves are the waves with the most photon energy, they can be damaging to the human body.
a)
True
b)
False
26.
The frequencies of visible light are the highest frequencies on the electromagnetic spectrum.
a)
True
b)
False
27.
A photon is a massless bundle of electromagnetic energy.
a)
True
b)
False
28.
Dispersion is the separation of white light into separate colors by
a)
differences in wavelength and wave speed
b)
differences in wave amplitude
c)
the blocking of light
d)
none of these
29.
All the colors of visible light can be combined to form
a)
black light
b)
ultraviolet light
c)
white light
d)
none of these
30.
Each color of visible light corresponds to a different
a)
wavelength and frequency
b)
atomic number
c)
number of electrons
d)
none of these
31.
Which of the following is an example of a chemical change?
a)
melting a stick of butter
b)
dissolving salt in water
c)
using magnesium to displace hydrogen gas from water
d)
none of these
32.
Consider the chemical equation CH4 + 2 O2 --> CO2 + 2 H2O. In this equation, CH4 is a
a)
product
b)
reactant
c)
displacement
d)
none of these
33.
During an exothermic reaction, what happens to energy in relation to the surroundings?
a)
mixed with the surroundings
b)
released to the surroundings
c)
absorbed from the surroundings
d)
none of these
34.
Which generalized equation represents a double displacement reaction?
a)
A + BC --> AC + B
b)
AC + BD --> AD + BC
c)
AB --> A + B
d)
none of these
35.
What type of reaction is the equation C + O2 --> CO2
a)
decomposition
b)
single displacement
c)
synthesis
d)
none of these
36.
What type of reaction is the equation NaCl --> Na + Cl?
a)
decomposition
b)
single displacement
c)
synthesis
d)
none of these
37.
According to the law of conservation of energy, the total amount of energy in the universe is
a)
increasing
b)
decreasing
c)
constant
d)
none of these
38.
In an exothermic chemical reaction, the energy gained by the surroundings must be what compared to the energy lost by the reaction?
a)
equal to
b)
greater than
c)
less than
d)
none of these
39.
When chemical bonds are broken, energy is
a)
absorbed
b)
released
c)
not needed
d)
none of these
40.
How many total atoms of nitrogen (N) are represented by the chemical formula 3 NH4?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
12
d)
none of these
41.
How many total atoms of hydrogen (H) are represented by the chemical formula 3 NH4?
a)
1
b)
4
c)
12
d)
none of these
42.
How many total atoms of sulfur (S) are represented by the chemical formula 2 SO2?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
4
d)
none of these
43.
An alpha particle is made up of two protons and two neutrons.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Radioactive decay takes place when an atomic nucleus spontaneously emits particles and/or high energy radiation.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
Isotopes of uranium are the most common fuel used in nuclear power plants.
a)
True
b)
False
46.
Nuclear fusion is easily used to produce commercial nuclear power.
a)
True
b)
False
47.
Nuclear power plants run by using ores of plutonium for fuel.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
Nuclear fission is used in nuclear power plants.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
Which of the following is the best definition of work?
a)
something that happens when a force is applied to an object and the object moves
b)
the amount of force that you apply to an object
c)
the distance over which an object travels with time
d)
none of these
50.
Which of the following equations is used to calculate work?
a)
work=force X distance
b)
work=force/distance
c)
work=force - distance
d)
none of these
51.
A box is moved 2 meters using 100 N of force. How much work is done on the box?
a)
98N
b)
200 Nm
c)
50 Nm
d)
None of these
52.
Which equation is used to calculate power?
a)
power=work/time
b)
power=force/distance
c)
power=time X force
d)
None of these
53.
If you do 200 joules of work in 100 seconds, what is your power?
a)
100 J
b)
2 J/s
c)
20 J/s
d)
None of these
54.
Which of the following is an expression of power?
a)
J/s
b)
N
c)
Nm
d)
None of these
55.
Because simple machines are so basic, they do very little good in modern days and are not able to make work easier
a)
True
b)
False
56.
A screw is an inclined plane wrapped around a cylinder.
a)
True
b)
False
57.
Simple machines are divided into two main categories. Levers and inclined planes
a)
True
b)
False
58.
If a machine gives you a mechanical advantage of 4 and the input force is 10, what is the force output?
a)
6 N
b)
2.5 N
c)
40 N
d)
None of these
59.
Which equation correctly describes mechanical advantage?
a)
MA=input force-output force
b)
MA=output force/1
c)
MA=output force/input force
d)
None of these
60.
What is the mechanical advantage of a machine that requires an input force of 50 N and gives you an output force of 100 N?
a)
50
b)
2
c)
150
d)
None of these
61.
Which of the following is an example of a third-class lever?
a)
rake
b)
nutcracker
c)
seesaw
d)
None of these
62.
Which of the following simple machines is categorized with the levers?
a)
wheel and axle
b)
wedge
c)
inclined plane
d)
None of these
63.
Scissors are an example of which type of simple machine?
a)
pulley
b)
wheel and axle
c)
lever
d)
None of these
64.
Which of the following describes what happens to force as you increase distance (length) of a ramp while the amount of work remains the same?
a)
force will stay the same
b)
force will increase
c)
force will decrease
d)
None of these
65.
Which of the following describes what needs to occur in order to reduce force while doing the same amount of work?
a)
the distance over which the force is exerted must increase
b)
the distance over which the force is exerted must decrease
c)
the mass of the object being moved must be increased
d)
None of these
66.
When a mover uses a ramp to move a heavy object, which of the following are they doing in order to make work easier?
a)
increasing the force
b)
increasing the distance
c)
increasing the mass
d)
None of these
67.
Muscles and bones in your arms and legs work like which simple machine?
a)
pulley
b)
lever
c)
inclined plane
d)
None of these
68.
A bicycle is an example of a
a)
simple machine
b)
compound machine
c)
form of technology NOT classified as a machine
d)
None of these
69.
A compound machine is one that
a)
contains two or more simple machines
b)
makes work harder instead of easier
c)
has no simple machines in it
d)
None of these
70.
If an atom has 3 protons, 3 electrons, and 2 neutrons, what is the atom's electrical charge?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
none of these
71.
If a neutral atoms gains electrons, what kind of charge will it develop?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
balanced
d)
none of these
72.
What does the law of conservation of charge state?
a)
Electrical charge cannot be created or destroyed. It can only be transferred.
b)
Electrical charge cannot be created or transferred. It can only be destroyed.
c)
Electrical charge cannot be created or transferred. It can only be changed from positive to negative.
d)
None of these
73.
Which of the following units is used to express electrical charge?
a)
Newton
b)
Coulomb
c)
Joule
d)
None of these
74.
Which equation correctly states Coulomb's law?
a)
force=k(q1q2)/d2
b)
force=k(q2)/d
c)
force=k(d1d2)/q
d)
None of these
75.
In Coulomb's law, electrical force is a function of the distance between particles and the
a)
size of each particle
b)
type of element that makes each particle
c)
quantity of charge associated with each particle
d)
None of these
76.
A medium that allows electric current to flow through it is a(n):
a)
conductor
b)
insulator
c)
alternator
d)
none of these
77.
A medium that resists the flow of electric charge is a(n):
a)
conductor
b)
insulator
c)
alternator
d)
none of these
78.
Which of the following materials is the best choice for an insulating material?
a)
silver metal
b)
steel bars
c)
rubber
d)
none of these
79.
Which of the following is a way that static and current electricity are different?
a)
It involves the relocating of electrons from the surface of one object to the surface of another object when the objects contract each other.
b)
It requires movement of electrons through some form of matter.
c)
One lasts only a fraction of a second and the other can flow continuously with time.
d)
All of these
80.
Electric current is measured in
a)
amperes
b)
volts
c)
ohms
81.
Electric current flows when there is what kind difference across the ends of a conductor?
a)
voltage
b)
mass
c)
protons
d)
none of these
82.
Which of the following describes an open circuit?
a)
Flow of energy in a complete, unbroken circle
b)
Flow of energy that becomes disrupted by a disconnected wire or switch
c)
Flow of energy in a continuous wire without disruption
d)
None of these
83.
In an electromagnet, you can increase the strength of the magnetic field by
a)
decreasing the thickness of the wire
b)
increasing the number of coils in the wires
c)
using more insulated wires
d)
none of these
84.
An electromagnet converts electrical energy into
a)
mechanical energy
b)
chemical energy
c)
radiant energy
d)
none of these
85.
An electromagnet produces mechanical energy from
a)
thermal energy
b)
electrical energy
c)
chemical energy
d)
none of these
86.
According to Farady's law, voltage cannot be changed by changing the magnetic field strength.
a)
Ture
b)
False
87.
Electromagnetic induction means that moving a magnet through a loop of wire creates an electric current.
a)
True
b)
False
88.
Electromagnetic induction is the creation of an electric current by moving a loop of wire through a magnetic field.
a)
True
b)
False
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