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WorksheetsBio2A Final Review #2
Total questions: 66
Worksheet time: 3595secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
2.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
3.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
4.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
5.
If a body cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
6.
Human eggs and sperm are _____, and each has ____ chromosomes.
a)
diploid, 23
b)
diploid, 46
c)
haploid, 23
d)
haploid, 46
7.
Identify the phase.
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase II
8.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
9.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
10.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
11.
When homologous chromosomes match up, they form a structure call a ___________.
a)
tetrad
b)
triad
c)
diploid
d)
gamete
12.
Is the following cell diploid or haploid?
a)
Diploid
b)
Haploid
13.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
gametes
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
14.
What is it called when the gametes meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
15.
Which cellular process is shown?
a)
meiosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
mitosis
d)
phagocytosis
16.
Synapsis and formation of a tetrad, as well as crossing over occur during:
a)
Prophase I
b)
Prophase II
c)
Metaphase I
d)
Metaphase II
17.
This is an example of what?
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
None of the above
18.
Red/green color blindness is a recessive trait. A woman who is a carrier for this allele marries a normal-vision male. What is the probability that they will have a child who is color blind?
a)
1/4
b)
1/2
c)
3/4
d)
1
19.
Which of the following terms refers to the different possibilities of a gene?
a)
chromosome
b)
DNA
c)
Punnett Squares
d)
allele
20.
What does a Punnett Square help you do?
a)
Determine the ratio of phenotypes
b)
Determine the ratio of genotypes
c)
Predict possible traits the offspring will have
d)
All of the above
21.
A cross of a red cow with a white bull produces all road offspring. This type of inheritance is known as
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
"breed time:
22.
A person with type O blood marries a person with type AB blood. Possible blood genotypes of their children are
a)
I(A)i and I(B)I(B)
b)
I(B)I(B) and I(A)I(A)
c)
I(A)i and I(B)i
d)
I(A)I(B) and ii
23.
What equation is this?
a)
Hardy Weinberg
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Chi-Squared
d)
Linear
24.
When the expression of a trait is controlled by multiple alleles this is called?
a)
Epistasis
b)
Multiple Genes
c)
Multiple Alleles
d)
Multiple DNA
25.
Human height is a polygenic trait. This means that the
a)
trait is controlled by more than one pair of genes.
b)
trait is controlled by the genes inherited from the mother only.
c)
trait is completely controlled by only one pair of genes.
d)
trait is controlled by the genes inherited from the father only.
26.
AB blood type is an example of __________.
a)
polygenic inheritance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
independent assortment
d)
codominance
27.
The DNA profiles of five people potentially involved in a robbery are shown below. The profile on the left was obtained from DNA belonging to the robber. The four other profiles were obtained from the suspects.
Which suspect is most likely to be the robber?
Which suspect is most likely to be the robber?
a)
Suspect 1
b)
Suspect 2
c)
Suspect 3
d)
Suspect 4
28.
______ is a source of genetic variation that refers to a random error in the genetic code.
a)
A mutation
b)
Mitosis
c)
Meiosis
d)
Fertilization
29.
Looking at this pedigree, how many female family members are carriers?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
10
d)
7
30.
Which gender can be carriers of colorblindness and not have it?
a)
Just males
b)
Just females
c)
Both genders
31.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
32.
Which of the following best represents this genotype for the traits carried on this pair of chromosomes?
a)
AgTB
b)
AaGgTtBB
c)
AAggTTBB
d)
aaGGttBB
33.
Homologous chromosomes have the same _____, but may have different ______.
a)
genes, alleles
b)
alleles, genes
c)
phenotype, genotype
d)
genotype, phenotype
34.
Which of the following is a possible gamete that could form from the parental genotype AabbCC?
a)
AabbCC
b)
ABC
c)
abc
d)
AbC
35.
Mike has type O+ blood. Mike is a Universal Recipient.
a)
True
b)
False
36.
Tonia looked closely at her blood typing plate and sees no aggulation in any of the wells. Her blood type is O-.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
Blood type is determined by the antigens.
a)
True
b)
False
38.
Someone who has Type O blood has what for antibodies (clumping proteins)?
a)
No antibodies
b)
A antibodies
c)
B antibodies
d)
A and B antibodies
39.
The rH factor determines what part of the blood type?
a)
+ or -
b)
the number of antigens
c)
the number of antibodies
d)
aggulation
40.
The bones labeled X can be referred to as ____ structures and provide evidence that organisms___:
a)
fossil structures; must have lived at different times
b)
homologous; share a common ancestor
c)
sequential; evolved in response to each other
d)
vestigial; are now extinct
41.
Natural selection is the process by which
a)
organisms with traits well suited to their environment survive and reproduce more successfully than organisms less suited to the same environment
b)
acquired traits are passed on from one generation to the next
c)
the age of selected fossils is calculated
d)
geologic processes occurred in the past the same way they occur today
42.
When individuals with an average form of a trait have the highest fitness, the result is
a)
stabilizing selection
b)
disruptive selection
c)
not predictable
d)
directional selection
43.
Graph C shows smaller and larger beaks in a population of finches. One group of birds has a short, parrotlike beak and another group has a long, narrow beak. What process has probably occurred?
a)
genetic drift
b)
directional selection
c)
stabilizing selection
d)
disruptive selection
44.
When individuals at only one end of a bell curve of phenotype frequencies have high fitness, the result is
a)
disruptive selection
b)
genetic drift
c)
directional selection
d)
stabilizing selection
45.
Restriction Enzymes . . .
a)
cut DNA at precise locations
b)
help bacteria to pick up DNA
c)
move DNA through a gel
d)
copy DNA
46.
Some restriction enzymes produce "sticky ends". Sticky ends are . . .
a)
single-stranded DNA "overhangs" that can bind to complementary DNA
b)
smooth cuts that are sticky due to the "goo" left behind by the enzyme
c)
The two wires (black and red) on a gel box
d)
The surface of the LB agar plates so that bacteria can grow
47.
What shape are plasmids?
a)
linear
b)
circular
c)
double helix
d)
square
48.
What charge is DNA?
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
49.
What do restriction enzymes recognize in order to cut the DNA into pieces?
a)
palindrome sequences of bases
b)
repeating sequences of bases
c)
specific genes in the DNA
d)
their homologous pair
50.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
51.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
52.
Which suspect is linked to the crime scene by this DNA analysis
a)
Suspect A
b)
Suspect C
c)
Suspect D
d)
Suspect B
53.
Restriction Enzyme A reads AGTC and cuts between G and T. Cut the following DNA:
ACTCAGTCCTCTAAGCCAGTCCTCAAAAGTC
How many fragments are there?
ACTCAGTCCTCTAAGCCAGTCCTCAAAAGTC
How many fragments are there?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
54.
Shannon does not know who her father is. There are three possibilities: Jack, Daniel and Bill. Who is the father?
a)
Jack
b)
Daniel
c)
Bill
55.
How do EcoRI and BamHI differ?
a)
different blunt ends
b)
different restriction sites
c)
produce different proteins
d)
cut DNA
56.
Imagine the shaded individuals are those WITH a "hitchhikers thumb." What must be the genotype of individual II-1?
a)
TT
b)
tt
c)
Tt
d)
Impossible to tell
57.
Is this trait (the shaded individuals) dominant or recessive?
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
58.
How do you find degrees of freedom?
a)
one less than the possible genotypes
b)
one less than the possible phenotypes
c)
total number divided 2
d)
total number times 2
59.
How many degrees of freedom will be present?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
7
60.
Observed in the wild are 10 circles, 20 squares and 30 triangles. The ratio for this particular population is 2:3:5
observed: 10 circles expected: 12
observed 20 squares expected : 18
observed 30 triangles expected: 30
Chi square + 5.96
Would you accept or reject?
observed: 10 circles expected: 12
observed 20 squares expected : 18
observed 30 triangles expected: 30
Chi square + 5.96
Would you accept or reject?
a)
accept
b)
reject
61.
Which Hardy-Weinberg equation represents the genotype frequencies in a population?
a)
p + q = 1
b)
p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
c)
p2 + pq2 + q2 = 1
d)
p + 2pq + q3 = 1
62.
Which Hardy-Weinberg factor represents the frequency of heterozygous individuals in a population?
a)
p2
b)
2pq
c)
q2
d)
p2 + 2pq
63.
In the Hardy-Weinberg Equation, q2 is the frequency of what?
a)
The recessive allele
b)
the dominant allele
c)
the recessive genotype
d)
the dominant genotype
64.
The Hardy-Weinberg Model is...
a)
available at local hobby stores and retailers throughout the Greater Tazewell area.
b)
a mathematical tool that biologists can use to predict allele frequencies and determine whether or not evolution is occurring within a population.
c)
always occurring within individual organisms in nature.
d)
only useful in the lab and cannot be practically applied to real-world populations of organisms.
65.
When a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what is NOT happening to the species?
a)
Survival
b)
Reproduction
c)
Death
d)
Evolution
66.
What is the best explanation for a population being described as an evolutionary unit?
a)
Population can evolve, not individuals
b)
Natural selection only involves individuals, not populations
c)
Genetic changes only occur in populations
d)
A population's gene pool remains the same throughout time
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