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WorksheetsGeo Science Final Review 100 Questions
Total questions: 101
Worksheet time: 51mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following processes allows a sedimentary rock to change into another sedimentary rock without first changing into another rock?
a)
uplift
b)
transportation
c)
heat and pressure
d)
burial
2.
Which of the following processes brings rocks to Earth’s surface, where they can be weathered?
a)
transportation
b)
uplift
c)
heat and pressure
d)
burial
3.
The geographic position of Australia on Earth’s surface has been changing mainly because
a)
The tilt of the Earth’s axis has changed several times shifting Earth’s landmass.
b)
The gravitational force of the Moon has been pulling on Earth’s landmasses forcing them to move
c)
Temperature differences have been creating convection currents in Earth’s interior moving landmasses
d)
Earth’s rotation has spun Australia into different locations.
4.
A mid-ocean ridge will likely form between which two plates?
a)
Nazca and South American
b)
African and South American
c)
North American and Pacific
d)
Pacific and African
5.
Which type of plate boundary exists between the South American and Nazca Plate?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
None of the above
6.
Which of the following was not STRONG evidence for Alfred Wegner’s proposal of continental drift?
a)
Matching continental outlines
b)
Matching fossils between continents
c)
Matching rocks and structures
d)
Proven mechanism for plate movement
7.
Which part of Earth’s interior is inferred to have convection currents that cause tectonic plates to move?
a)
Rigid Mantle
b)
Asthenosphere
c)
Outer Core
d)
Inner Core
8.
Which type of plate boundary is shown in the diagram?
a)
Divergent
b)
Transform
c)
Convergent
d)
Universal
9.
Which type of plate boundary occurs along the San Andreas Fault?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
Universal
10.
Where is the primary source of energy powering plate tectonics?
a)
The Sun
b)
Earth’s mantle
c)
Water
d)
Atmosphere
11.
The Moon is very hot on the side facing the Sun and very cold on the dark side. This extreme temperature difference is primarily due to the Moon’s…
a)
Mineral composition
b)
Thin atmosphere
c)
Reflective rocks
d)
Lack of volcanic activity
12.
The characteristic that makes a greenhouse gas different from other gases in the atmosphere is…
a)
the density of the gas
b)
the ability of the gas to absorb and retain infrared light
c)
the ability of the gas to absorb and retain ultraviolet light
d)
the amount of the gas in the atmosphere
13.
Which of the following are the two most abundant greenhouse gases in the Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
Nitrogen (N2) and Oxygen (O2).
b)
Methane (CH4) and Nitrogen (N2)
c)
Water Vapor (H2O) and Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
d)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) and Carbon Monoxide (CO)
14.
If there was a loss of greenhouse gases, and a loss of the greenhouse effect, what effect would that have on earth?
a)
Earth would become very cold
b)
Earth would become very hot
c)
More ultraviolet rays would reach Earth’s surface
d)
Earth would lose its seasons
15.
Which of the following best explains the temperatures observed at Earth’s surface?
a)
With a greenhouse effect, heat flows from the cold atmosphere to the warm surface
b)
Without a greenhouse effect, all the Sun’s energy is absorbed deep into Earth’s crust
c)
With a greenhouse effect, the upper atmosphere reflects away all the sun’s energy
d)
Without a greenhouse effect, energy absorbed at Earth’s surface is lost to space
16.
Which of the following pairs of gases are the most abundant in Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
Nitrogen (N2) and Oxygen (O2)
b)
Methane (CH4) and Nitrogen (N2)
c)
Water Vapor (H2O) and Oxygen (O2)
d)
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) and Carbon Monoxide (CO)
17.
The greenhouse effect is:
a)
directly responsible for the global cooling which resulted in our last ice age
b)
an undesired atmospheric phenomenon which should be eliminated
c)
an increase in atmospheric temperature due to gases that absorb and retain heat radiation
d)
a recent atmospheric event due solely to the actions of humans burning fossil fuels
18.
Greenhouse gases help keep Earth at a habitable temperature by
a)
erving as essential nutrients for atmospheric phytoplankton
b)
blocking the cold winds and ices originating in outer space
c)
retaining some of the Sun’s energy in our lower atmosphere
d)
allowing only infrared light to reach Earth’s surface
19.
CO2 is added to the atmosphere by all these except for:
a)
burning fossil fuel
b)
hydrogen fuel cells
c)
decay of organic matter
d)
erupting volcanoes
20.
This graph shows the relationship between Global temperatures and the amount of carbon dioxide gas in the atmosphere. Based on the data, how would you describe the relationship?
a)
As CO2 levels increases in the atmosphere, global temperatures decrease
b)
As CO2 levels decrease in the atmosphere, global temperatures decrease
c)
As CO2 levels increase in the atmosphere, global temperatures increase
d)
As CO2 levels decrease in the atmosphere, global temperatures increase
21.
Which process causes moisture to depart from green plants?
a)
Condensation
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
d)
Transpiration
22.
Which process requires the input of heat energy to occur?
a)
Condensation
b)
Infiltration
c)
Runoff
d)
Evaporation
23.
What type of heat transfer is responsible for the heating of Earth’s surface and atmosphere?
a)
Conduction from the sun
b)
Radiation from the sun
c)
Convection within the Earth
d)
Fusion within the Earth
24.
A parcel of hot, moisture-laden air rises within the atmosphere. Which occurrence is UNLIKELY to follow? The parcel of air will…
a)
Get warmer and continue to rise
b)
Get cooler and stop rising
c)
Begin to condense into a cloud
d)
Begin to precipitate
25.
Convection distributes heat energy by
a)
transferring energy without involving a physical substance in the transmission
b)
transporting groups of molecules from one place to another within a substance
c)
direct, point-to-point contact with static, neighboring molecules
d)
emitting alpha and beta particles from unstable atomic nuclei
26.
Most water enters the atmosphere by the process of
a)
conduction and convection
b)
radiation and condensation
c)
absorption and infiltration
d)
evaporation and transpiration
27.
What would the most likely effect on the water cycle be if the amount of insolation received by a given area were to DECREASE?
a)
Evaporation increases, transpiration decreases
b)
Evaporation increases, transpiration increases
c)
Evaporation decreases, transpiration decreases
d)
Evaporation decreases, transpiration increases
28.
Air is a poor conductor. Which of the following is NOT true of how the atmosphere is primarily affected by conduction?
a)
Most energy transfer by conduction occurs right at Earth’s surface
b)
At night, the ground cools, conducting heat away from the adjacent air
c)
During the day, solar radiation heats the ground, heating the air next to it
d)
Molecules in the atmosphere are heated, causing the atmosphere to vibrate
29.
Over the next century, the temperature in the Great Basin Desert is expected to increase anywhere from 2 to 5 degrees Celsius due to global climate change. Which statement best explains how the movement of heat will likely be affected in the Great Basin Desert due to global climate change?
a)
Radiation will transfer more heat from the desert’s floor to Earth’s atmosphere and conduction will move more heat out of Earth’s atmosphere into space
b)
Conduction will move more heat from Earth’s surface to the atmosphere and radiation will move more heat around in the atmosphere
c)
Radiation will transfer the same amount of heat from the sun to Earth’s surface and more heat will be moved around in the atmosphere via convection
d)
Conduction will transfer the same amount of heat from the sun to Earth’s surface and more heat will move through the desert’s floor via radiation
30.
The ability of a surface or substance to reflect solar radiation is its...
a)
albedo
b)
refractive index
c)
luster
d)
solar constant
31.
What will happen as the Sun’s energy decreases in the evening?
a)
The land will heat up faster than the water
b)
The land will cool down faster than the water
c)
The water will have the same temperature as the land
d)
The water and land temperatures will stay the same
32.
Earth’s surface temperatures are most directly affect by the energy received from
a)
insolation from the Sun
b)
fusion in Earth’s core
c)
friction in Earth’s crust
d)
radioactivity within Earth’s crust
33.
Earth’s tropical regions receive more of the Sun’s energy than polar regions because they...
a)
contain a greater percentage of dry land
b)
have more vegetation to absorb the Sun’s energy
c)
have a thinner atmosphere than the polar regions
d)
receive greater concentration (or intensity) of the Sun’s rays
34.
Which of the following is NOT a contributing factor to the uneven warming of Earth’s surface? a. Different surfaces warm at different rates...
a)
Different surfaces warm at different rates
b)
Different surfaces retain energy differently
c)
The Sun is farther from Earth during the winter
d)
The Sun’s rays hit the surface at varied angles
35.
What would happen to the solar energy that reaches Earth’s atmosphere if the ground was covered with snow?
a)
More solar radiation would be absorbed at the surface
b)
More solar radiation would be reflected and scattered
c)
More solar radiation would be absorbed by clouds
d)
More solar radiation would reach Earth’s atmosphere
36.
City A is located near Las Vegas Nevada. City B is located near the Pacific Ocean. Which of the following is NOT a common factor to these different average monthly temperatures?
a)
Different surfaces warm at different rates
b)
Different surfaces retain energy differently
c)
The Sun is farther away during the winter
d)
The Sun’s rays strike the surface at different angles depending on the latitude
37.
In a refracting telescope, light is…
a)
Reflected by mirrors
b)
Bent by lenses
c)
Absorbed by glass
d)
Magnified by electronic equipment
38.
Which invention revolutionized our scientific understanding by providing evidence that the Earth is not the center of the universe?
a)
Telescopes
b)
Compasses
c)
Astrolabes
d)
Rockets
39.
Which of the following wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation are absorbed in the Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Microwaves
c)
X-Rays
d)
All the waves listed are absorbed by the atmosphere
40.
Why are some telescopes placed in space above Earth’s atmosphere?
a)
Having the telescope above the atmosphere puts it closer to the object for better magnification
b)
Some types of electromagnetic radiation from stars are absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere
c)
Having the telescope above the atmosphere puts it closer to the object for better sound detection
d)
Some of the light being sent out from telescopes can be blocked by Earth’s atmosphere.
41.
Which of the following is the most likely reason why there are no space based radio telescopes?
a)
There is very little atmospheric interference for radio waves, so land-based radio telescopes work well
b)
The radio telescope would be far too large to put into orbit around the Earth
c)
Radio telescopes are not helpful for studying the universe
d)
None of the above, there are space based radio telescopes currently in use
42.
Which of the following would be BEST to investigate a star forming nebula?
a)
An Earth-based infrared telescope
b)
A manned Space Shuttle mission
c)
An unmanned spacecraft sent to the nebula
d)
A space-based infrared telescope
43.
Which of the following lists the stages of a medium-mass star in correct order?
a)
Nebula, main sequence, red giant, planetary nebula, white dwarf
b)
Nebula, red giant, main sequence, planetary nebula, black hole
c)
Nebula, main sequence, supergiant, supernova, neutron star
d)
Main sequence, red giant, nebula, white dwarf
44.
Which of the following stars is most likely to supernova at the end of its life?
a)
Red Dwarf
b)
Yellow Main Sequence Star
c)
Blue Giant
d)
White Dwarf
45.
When fusion stops completely in our sun’s core, the sun will…
a)
become a nebula
b)
explode as a supernova
c)
collapse into a white dwarf
d)
contract into a black hole
46.
In a main sequence star, equilibrium is reached when matter pulled inward by the gravitational force is pushed outward by
a)
Pressure created by nuclear fusion
b)
Convection of stellar material from the core
c)
Coronal mass ejections originating from the core
d)
Luminosity from the center of the star
47.
If fusion in a star were to suddenly stop, what would be the most likely consequence?
a)
The gravitational force would cause the star to expand
b)
The gravitational force would cause the star to contract
c)
The star would begin the process of nuclear fission
d)
The star would remain the same size, but stop producing light
48.
Which of the following best describes the nuclear fusion in a red giant star?
a)
Hydrogen atoms fuse to create Helium
b)
Helium atoms fuse to create Carbon
c)
Helium atoms fuse to create Hydrogen
d)
Uranium atoms separate to release energy
49.
What happens to cause a star to leave the main sequence? The gravitational pull inward becomes...
a)
greater than the outward pressure, so the core of the star shrinks while the outer layers expand, creating a red giant
b)
greater than the outward pressure, so the core and the outer layers of the star both shrink, creating a black hole
c)
less than the outward pressure, so the core and the outer layers of the star both expand, creating a red giant
d)
less than the outward pressure, so the core and the outer layers of the star both expand, creating a black hole
50.
Which of the following lists the stages of life of a massive star in correct order?
a)
Red giant, white dwarf, black hole, main sequence
b)
Red giant, main sequence, planetary nebula, neutron star
c)
Main sequence, black hole, supernova, planetary nebula
d)
Main sequence, red giant, supernova, neutron star
51.
The red and yellow line (see labels) on the diagram shows how a single star is changing with time using an H-R Diagram. Note that the star is about the same mass as our sun, Which of the following statements is most correct? The red and yellow line shows...
a)
the star after it has fused all of its hydrogen and is expanding into a red giant
b)
the protostar stage before sustained nuclear fusion has begun in the star’s core
c)
when the star becomes a white dwarf stellar remnant, near the end of its life
d)
how the star moves through space after it has formed from a cloud a gas
52.
As a star leaves its main sequence stage, it gets...
a)
cooler, larger, redder, and brighter
b)
cooler, smaller, bluer, and dimmer
c)
hotter, smaller, bluer, and dimmer
d)
hotter, larger, redder, and brighter
53.
If a star moves up and to the right on an HR Diagram, how has its temperature and luminosity changed?
a)
Temperature Increased, Luminosity Increased
b)
Temperature Increased, Luminosity Decreased
c)
Temperature Decreased, Luminosity Decreased
d)
Temperature Decreased, Luminosity Increased
54.
For a main sequence star, how does luminosity relate to temperature?
a)
The higher the temperature, the lower the luminosity
b)
The higher the temperature, the higher the luminosity
c)
The lower the temperature, the higher the luminosity
d)
None of the above
55.
Which of the following stars would be the best replacement for the sun in order for life to continue existing on Earth?
a)
A red giant
b)
A yellow star in its main sequence
c)
A white dwarf
d)
A blue star in its main sequence
56.
Use the figure. If a red star’s temperature were to decrease, what type of light would the star most likely emit?
a)
Orange Light
b)
Yellow Light
c)
Infrared Light
d)
Ultraviolet Light
57.
Star “A” is 5 times the mass of the Sun, Star “B” is 1/5th the mass of the Sun. Which of the following is a true statement?
a)
Star “A” will live longer than Star “B”
b)
Star “B” will be brighter than Star “A”
c)
Star “B” will live longer than Star “A”
d)
Both A and B
58.
Graph shows what relationships between star mass, lifetime, and luminosity? I. The greater the mass of a star, the shorter the lifetime. II. The greater the mass of a star, the brighter the star. III. The greater the mass of star, the dimmer the star. IV. The greater the mass of a star, the longer the lifetime.
a)
I only
b)
I and II
c)
III only
d)
II and IV
59.
Which of the following has the stars in order from HOTTEST to COLDEST by temperature?
a)
Red, Blue, Yellow
b)
Yellow, Blue, Red
c)
Blue, Yellow, Red
d)
Red, Yellow, Blue
60.
Which stars are ranked in accurate order from brightest to dimmest?
a)
Bernard’s Star>Sun>Polaris>Rigel
b)
Betelgeuse>Alpha Centauri>Rigel>Sirius
c)
Betelgeuse>Polaris>Alpha Centauri>Procyon B
d)
Sirius>Aldebaran>Rigel>Betelgeuse
61.
Based on its location on the HR Diagram, what type of star is Procyon B?
a)
Blue Giant
b)
Red Giant
c)
Main Sequence
d)
White Dwarf
62.
What is the approximate temperature of Rigel?
a)
6,000 °C
b)
8,000 °C
c)
10,000 °C
d)
12,000 °C
63.
What is the primary source of energy for the water cycle on Earth?
a)
The atmosphere
b)
The sun
c)
The earth’s core
d)
Nuclear Fission
64.
What is the most accurate reason that we do not have nuclear fusion power plants?
a)
We do not have the technology to produce fusion on Earth.
b)
We cannot create high enough temperatures on Earth for fusion to occur.
c)
A fusion power plant would create a star on Earth which would inevitably burn up the whole world.
d)
It takes more energy to cause nuclear fusion than is released in the process.
65.
What is the relationship between the amount of hydrogen, amount of helium, and energy as a star ages?
a)
Hydrogen increases, helium decreases, and energy is absorbed.
b)
Hydrogen increases, helium decreases, and energy is released.
c)
Hydrogen decreases, helium decreases, and energy is absorbed.
d)
Hydrogen decreases, helium increases, and energy is released.
66.
Which of the following is NOT a reason stars are important for life on Earth?
a)
The sun, which is a star, produces heat that makes life on Earth possible.
b)
Through nuclear fusion and supernova explosions, stars produced all matter heavier than helium.
c)
Light from the sun provides the energy for our food through the process of photosynthesis.
d)
The energy from the sun is the primary source of energy used for powering electricity in cities.
67.
The sun produces energy by converting…
a)
oxygen nuclei to carbon dioxide
b)
oxygen nuclei to helium nuclei
c)
helium nuclei to hydrogen nuclei
d)
hydrogen nuclei to helium nuclei
68.
What is a star?
a)
A ball of gas that reflects light from another energy source that is nearby.
b)
A hot ball of gas that produces energy by breaking apart atoms.
c)
A hot ball of gas that produces energy by combining atoms into heavier atoms.
d)
A hot ball of gas that produces energy by burning and mixing different gases.
69.
Elements from helium through iron are created
a)
by nuclear reactions in stars, while elements heavier than iron are made through chemical reactions.
b)
by chemical reactions in stars, while elements heavier than iron are made through nuclear reactions.
c)
in supernova shockwaves, while elements heavier than iron are created through nuclear fusion in stars.
d)
through nuclear fusion in stars, while elements heavier than iron are made in supernova shockwaves.
70.
Which of the following statements best describes how the planets of the solar system formed?
a)
The Sun captured them from smaller, older nearby stars.
b)
They formed from a nebular cloud of dust and gas.
c)
They are the remains of an exploded star once paired with the Sun.
d)
They are condensed rings of matter thrown off by the young Sun.
71.
How does the Sun produce the energy that heats our planet?
a)
Atoms are combined into heavier atoms, giving off energy.
b)
Atoms are broken apart into lighter atoms, giving off energy.
c)
The gases inside the Sun are burning and producing energy.
d)
The core of the Sun has radioactive atoms that give off energy as they decay.
72.
Which of the following discoveries is associated with Edwin Hubble?
a)
The universe is expanding at a constant rate.
b)
Cosmic Microwave Background Radiation is leftover heat from the Big Bang.
c)
Hydrogen and Helium are the most common elements in the universe.
d)
All stars begin their life cycle as a nebula.
73.
How do scientists observe Red-Shift?
a)
They look through telescopes at distant stars and the stars appear red.
b)
They travel to distant galaxies and observe that the stars are red.
c)
They analyze spectral lines of distant stars and the lines are shifted towards red.
d)
Red-Shift is an unobservable phenomenon.
74.
A train is driving past and honks the horn. What will happen to the frequency and wavelength of the sound as the train is moving away from the observer?
a)
Frequency will increase, Wavelength will increase
b)
Frequency will decrease, Wavelength will increase
c)
Frequency will increase, Wavelength will decrease
d)
Frequency will decrease, Wavelength will decrease
75.
If a car with its lights on were driving towards you at an extremely high speed, the light would appear…
a)
Redder
b)
Bluer
c)
Dimmer
d)
Higher Pitched
76.
The Doppler Effect is produced when…
a)
The source is in motion.
b)
The observer is in motion.
c)
Either the source or the observer is in motion
d)
None of the above
77.
What sort of waves can exhibit the Doppler Effect?
a)
Water Waves
b)
Light waves
c)
Sound Waves
d)
All of the above
78.
Which of the four objects, 1-4, is furthest away from the Earth?
a)
Object 1
b)
Object 2
c)
Object 3
d)
Object 4
79.
Which of the four objects, 1-4, is moving with the fastest speed?
a)
Object 1
b)
Object 2
c)
Object 3
d)
Object 4
80.
How do stellar spectra provide evidence that stars are actually moving?
a)
dark line spectra reveal a star’s composition.
b)
long exposure photos show curved trails.
c)
doppler shifts occur in the star’s spectrum.
d)
light separates into different wavelengths.
81.
Based on the red shifts of distant galaxies, astronomers conclude that
a)
Earth is the center of the universe.
b)
the universe is contracting.
c)
the universe is expanding.
d)
new galaxies are continually being added to the universe.
82.
If the future of the universe follows the Big Freeze theory, we can expect…
a)
The Earth to freeze due to reversed global warming.
b)
The universe to continue expanding forever.
c)
Space to expand for a long time and then begin contracting inwards.
d)
Space to expand, then contract, then expand, and so on.
83.
Choose the correct statement about the Big Bang Theory.
a)
Space did not exist before the big bang.
b)
Occurred as a massive explosion at a point near the center of the universe.
c)
Current data on the expansion of the universe contradicts the big bang theory.
d)
Space has always been three-dimensional.
84.
Select the correct order for the progression of the universe.
a)
Creation of space, time, and matter → particles → atoms → stars → Earth
b)
Creation of space, time, and matter → particles → stars → atoms → galaxies → Earth
c)
Creation of space, time, and matter → Earth → galaxies → stars
d)
Creation of space, time, and matter → galaxies → stars → particles → atoms
85.
Which of the following best describes the movement of galaxies since the Big Bang?
a)
Space is constant and galaxies are moving away from each other.
b)
Galaxies are growing, which pushes them apart.
c)
Galaxies are moving away from the Milky Way through constant space.
d)
The space between galaxies is expanding causing the distances between galaxies to increase.
86.
Within the first minute of the Big Bang, what was created?
a)
All of space was being hurled into pre-existing space so nothing was “created”
b)
small particles like protons and neutrons
c)
Entire galaxies
d)
The universe as we know it today
87.
What is CMBR?
a)
One of the stars created that supports the progression of the universe.
b)
The moment where all time, space, and matter was created.
c)
Microwaves spread throughout the universe that are observed today as leftover heat from the Big Bang
d)
The light seen from other stars and galaxies that are shifting towards the red and therefore moving farther away.
88.
Which of the following is the best description of the Big Bang Theory?
a)
The Big Bang Theory is just one of the ideas about the universe’s origin, many of which are equally respected by the scientific community.
b)
The Big Bang Theory states that pre-existing matter suddenly exploded into infinite, empty space.
c)
The Big Bang Theory is the prevailing model about the universe’s origin and is supported by observations of cosmic microwave background radiation and red-shift.
d)
The Big Bang Theory is the scientific explanation of how the Sun, Earth, and the rest of the Solar System were formed at the beginning of time.
89.
. Which of the following is not strong evidence supporting the Big Bang Theory?
a)
The frequency of the light from distant galaxies is shifted slightly towards the red.
b)
The estimated age of the Earth matches the estimated age of the universe.
c)
Presence of cosmic microwave background radiation.
d)
Abundance of Hydrogen and Helium in the universe.
90.
As part of the modern theory of the origins of the elements, it is hypothesized that before the formation of the stars, most of the matter in the universe consisted of what atoms?
a)
uranium and radium
b)
hydrogen and helium
c)
silicon and lithium
d)
nitrogen and carbon
91.
On the timeline of the Big Bang image, the formation of the Earth would be most accurately included in which group?
a)
First Galaxies
b)
Dark Ages
c)
Normal Galaxies
d)
Big Bang
92.
The atom represents which element?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Lithium
c)
Helium
d)
Oxygen
93.
An atom that is negatively charged has…
a)
Less protons than neutrons
b)
Less protons than electrons
c)
More protons than electrons.
d)
More protons than neutrons.
94.
Which sub-atomic particle(s) is found in the nucleus of the atom?
I. Proton
II. Neutron
III. Electrons
I. Proton
II. Neutron
III. Electrons
a)
I only
b)
I and II
c)
I and III
d)
I,II, and III
95.
A neutral and stable atom loses an electron, the atom will now…
a)
Have a charge of +1
b)
Have a charge of -1.
c)
Be unstable.
d)
The element will change.
96.
What is an isotope?
a)
An element on the periodic table.
b)
An atom that has a charge.
c)
An atom with the same number of neutrons protons and electrons
d)
An element that is stable with different numbers of neutrons.
97.
What is an ion?
a)
An element on the periodic table.
b)
An atom that has a charge.
c)
An atom with the same number of neutrons, protons, and electrons.
d)
An element that is stable with different numbers of neutrons.
98.
An atom has 6 protons, 7 electrons, and 3 neutrons would be classified as which element?
a)
Lithium
b)
Carbon
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Oxygen
99.
How many protons does a Manganese (Mn) atom have?
a)
12
b)
25
c)
54
d)
55
100.
The atomic number of an element represents the number of...
a)
protons
b)
nulceons
c)
neutrons
d)
valence electrons
101.
Which type of plate boundary exists between the South American and Nazca Plate?
a)
Convergent
b)
Divergent
c)
Transform
d)
None of the above
Reset
