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chemistry midterm review

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The creation Mandate is given in the book of_______.
a)
Luke
b)
Revelation
c)
Psalms
d)
Genesis
2.
Scientific models may be expressed as 
a)
physical representations 
b)
mathematical formulas 
c)
pictures
d)
all of these
3.
all scientists approach their work with a certain_____, which is the perspective from which they see and interpret all of life.
a)
reasoning 
b)
worldview
c)
hypothesis 
d)
model
4.
An idea assumed to be sure without proof is 
a)
a worldview 
b)
a theory 
c)
a presupposition
d)
faith
5.
Early pharmacists prepared and sold a wide variety of chemicals and herbs. What were the pharmacists who sold these goods called?
a)
herbalists 
b)
alchemists 
c)
metallurgies
d)
apothecaries
6.
Who were the first people to introduce a reasoned approach to chemistry?
a)
Phoenicians 
b)
Greeks 
c)
Sumerians 
d)
Egyptians 
7.
When a scientist explores nature simply to learn more about the world in which we live, he or she is performing_____ science. 
a)
observational 
b)
experiential 
c)
pure
d)
applied 
8.
Which of the following is a type of qualitative data? 
a)
mass
b)
length 
c)
temperature 
d)
color 
9.
In the year 2000, there were an estimated 18 million chemical compounds with another estimated 1 million being added each year; there fore, in the year 2020, there will be 38 million chemical compounds. This is an example of 
a)
deductive reasoning 
b)
inductive reasoning 
c)
neither form of reasoning 
d)
faulty reasoning 
10.
The mass of a crystal as measured on a balance would be an example of _____ data 
a)
qualitative 
b)
quantitative 
c)
subjective 
d)
deductive 
11.
what is the name given to an inductive process scientists use to form and test hypotheses by collecting data to arrive at a conclusion? 
a)
experimentation 
b)
hypothesis 
c)
scientific method 
d)
laws 
12.
What is the main reason chemistry developed over time? 
a)
to create art 
b)
to meet people's needs 
c)
to satisfy people's curiosity 
d)
to explore the nature of the atom 
13.
what is a scientific hypothesis? 
a)
a scientific law 
b)
a previously established fact 
c)
a general, inductive approach to discovering truth
d)
a suggested explanation for an observation to test
14.
who were the first people to propose that matter was made of atoms?
a)
Europeans 
b)
Greeks 
c)
Sumerians 
d)
Egyptians 
15.
Which of these is a physical property? 
a)
a metal being hammered into a sheet 
b)
a chemical reacting violently with water 
c)
a compound exploding 
d)
a metal corroding in the presence of an acid 
16.
The amount of matter packed into a given volume determines its _______
a)
ductility 
b)
mass 
c)
density 
d)
color 
17.
Which term describes the ability of a material to be drawn into wires? 
a)
ductility 
b)
malleability 
c)
conductivity 
d)
wirability 
18.
The gold that covers the 7000 square foot dome of the colorado state capitol building could be crumpled into a ball less than 7 centimeters in diameter. What property of matter does this illustrate? 
a)
conductivity 
b)
malleability 
c)
density 
d)
ductility 
19.
a log burns, which creates heat that evaporates water in a kettle. This is an example of 
a)
a chemical change 
b)
a physical change 
c)
both a physical change and a chemical change 
d)
neither a physical change nor a chemical change 
20.
all of matter can be divided in to two categories, pure substances and_____.
a)
impure substances 
b)
mixtures 
c)
compounds 
d)
suspensions 
21.
A suspensions is a type of _____ mixture.
a)
heterogeneous 
b)
homogeneous 
c)
pure 
d)
chemical 
22.
Atom is to element as _____ is to compound. 
a)
formula 
b)
mixture 
c)
molecule 
d)
ion 
23.
Iron (Fe) is a 
a)
compound 
b)
monatomic element 
c)
heterogeneous mixture 
d)
polyatomic element 
24.
Oxygen ( O2 ) is a 
a)
diatomic element 
b)
heterogeneous mixture 
c)
monatomic element 
d)
polyatomic element 
25.
Hydrogen peroxide ( H2O2 ) is a 
a)
diatomic element 
b)
compound 
c)
homogeneous mixture 
d)
polyatomic element 
26.
a charged atom is called a(n)______.
a)
element 
b)
compound 
c)
ion
d)
mixture 
27.
pure water is a 
a)
compound 
b)
diatomic element 
c)
polyatomic element 
d)
homogeneous mixture 
28.
how many hydrogen atoms are in the chemical formula 2H2O?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
29.
How many atoms of sulfur are present in 2Al2( SO4) 3? 
a)
1
b)
3
c)
6
d)
12
30.
Which of the following is not one of the six common forms of energy? 
a)
mechanical 
b)
dynamic 
c)
nuclear 
d)
chemical 
31.
What unit is used to measure both energy and work? 
a)
joule 
b)
BTU 
c)
degree 
d)
horsepower 
32.
The purpose of a toaster is to concert ______ energy to _______ energy 
a)
thermal / electromagnetic 
b)
chemical / mechanical 
c)
acoustic / chemical 
d)
electromagnetic / thermal 
33.
The amount of heat transfer required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius is defined as a_______.
a)
kilocalorie 
b)
Calorie 
c)
BTU
d)
calorie 
34.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of solids? 
a)
fixed volume 
b)
particles rigidly held in a fixed volume 
c)
ease of compressibility 
d)
relatively little kinetic energy
35.
Which of these states of matter displays the greatest amount of kinetic energy? 
a)
solid 
b)
liquid 
c)
gas 
d)
plasma 
36.
The state of matter that can exist at temperatures very near absolute zero is called 
a)
Kelvin plasma 
b)
Bose Einstein condensate 
c)
quark- gluon plasma 
d)
endothermic solid 
37.
Which state of matter exists in a lit neon sign? 
a)
liquid 
b)
gas 
c)
plasma 
d)
quark- gluon plasma 
38.
The disappearance of dry ice left out in a dish is an example of______
a)
evaporation 
b)
sublimation 
c)
condensation 
d)
melting 
39.
When water vapor forms dew on the grass, ______ has occurred 
a)
condensation 
b)
vaporization 
c)
evaporation 
d)
sublimation 
40.
A(n) ______ system is any system of measurement based on a decimal scale. 
a)
metric 
b)
accurate 
c)
digital 
d)
basic 
41.
The scale of a measuring instrument is _______, or accurately subdivided into measurement units.
a)
standardized 
b)
unitized 
c)
graduated 
d)
enmerated 
42.
what is the only SI base unit that is still defined by a man-made object?
a)
meter 
b)
kilogram 
c)
kelvin 
d)
mole 
43.
Units of measurement that come from basic SI units are called ______ units.
a)
integrated 
b)
graduated 
c)
scalar 
d)
derived 
44.
What prefix means "billionth" ?
a)
peta-
b)
micro-
c)
milli-
d)
nano-
45.
25,500 grams equal ________ kilograms. 
a)
2550
b)
255
c)
25.5
d)
2.55
46.
To calculate the percent error, you must take the absolute value of the______ value minus the _______ value, divide by the _______ value, and multiply by 100%.
a)
accepted / observed / accepted 
b)
observed / accepted / observed 
c)
accepted / observed / observed 
d)
observed / accepted / accepted 
47.
An instrument that is used to compare an object directly to scale or that displays the reading using a pointer is called a(n) ________ instrument. 
a)
analog 
b)
nonmetric 
c)
conventional 
d)
digital 
48.
When using an analog metric instrument, you should estimate the measurement to the nearest ________ of the smallest decimal subdivision on the instrument's scale. 
a)
whole unit 
b)
half 
c)
tenth 
d)
hundredth 
49.
Significant digits apply only to ______ data.
a)
pure 
b)
counted 
c)
measured 
d)
defined 
50.
All ______ digits are considered significant in a measurement. 
a)
nonzero 
b)
positive 
c)
negative 
d)
estimated 
51.
The measurement 0.005006 10m has how many significant digits? 
a)
3
b)
5
c)
6
d)
8
52.
How many significant digits are in 4800cm?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
53.
How many significant digits are in 0.017000g?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
2
d)
5
54.
Find the volume in milliliters occupied by 454 g of copper, which has density of 8.92 g/mL.
a)
4050mL
b)
0.020mL
c)
50.9mL
d)
50.89mL
55.
Which was the first model to include the different masses of different elements ? 
a)
Hund's model 
b)
Bohr's model 
c)
Rutherford's model 
d)
Dalton's model 
56.
Thomson's cathode rays were______
a)
protons 
b)
electrons 
c)
neutrons 
d)
x-rays 
57.
Which of the following subatomic particles has the least mass? 
a)
electron 
b)
proton 
c)
neutron 
d)
nucleon 
58.
Who is credited with the discovery of the neutron? 
a)
Niels Bohr 
b)
James Chadwick 
c)
Ernest Rutherford 
d)
Hans Geiger 
59.
Who first identified and named the proton? 
a)
Niels Bohr 
b)
James Chadwick 
c)
Ernest Rutherford 
d)
J. J. Thomson 
60.
Whose work helped to explain line spectra? 
a)
Niels Bohr 
b)
Hans Geiger 
c)
Ernest Rutherford 
d)
Werner Heisenberg 
61.
The abbreviation Z represents the number of _______ in an atom.
a)
neutrons 
b)
protons 
c)
electrons 
d)
neutrons and protons 
62.
Who proposed the "planetary" model of the atom?
a)
Niels Bohr 
b)
John Dalton 
c)
Albert Einstein 
d)
Ernest Rutherford 
63.
Niels Bohr proposed the concept of principal energy levels that he envisioned as a set of circular tracks on which _______ orbited.
a)
sublevels 
b)
isotopes 
c)
electrons 
d)
protons 
64.
The ______ states that it is impossible to know both the energy and the exact position of an electron at the same time. 
a)
Aunabu principle 
b)
Heisenberg uncertainty principle 
c)
Pauli exclusion principle 
d)
law of definite composition 
65.
Louis de Broglie proposed the _______ nature of electrons. 
a)
wave 
b)
particle 
c)
orbital 
d)
spectrum 
66.
The s, p , d, and f sub levels are identified by _______ quantum numbers. 
a)
principal (n)
b)
azimuthal (I)
c)
electron spin (ms)
d)
magnetic (m)
67.
The _______ states that no two electrons in atom can have the same set of four quantum numbers. 
a)
Pauli exclusion principle 
b)
Aufbau principle 
c)
Heisenberg uncertainty principle 
d)
law of definite composition 
68.
The type of sublevel found in all principal energy levels is the ________ sublevel. 
a)
s
b)
f
c)
d)
d
69.
what is the maximum number of electrons in a 3 p orbital? 
a)
2
b)
6
c)
8
d)
10
70.
What is the maximum number of electrons in a 4 d sub level? 
a)
2
b)
6
c)
10
d)
8
71.
What is the electron configuration for bromine (atomic number=35)
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p5
d)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 4p6
72.
What is the election configuration of phosphorus( atomic number=15)
a)
(Ne) 3s2 3p1
b)
(Ne) 3s2 3p2 
c)
(Ne) 3s2 3p3
d)
(Ne) 3s2 3p4
73.
Raymond Ramadan is a Christian scientist whose work led to the development of 
a)
x-ray imaging 
b)
CAT scans 
c)
magnetic resonance imaging 
d)
ultrasound imaging 
74.
Two different isotopes of a single element would have the same number of _______ but a different number of _______.
a)
protons / neutrons 
b)
neutrons / protons 
c)
electrons / protons 
d)
protons / ions 
75.
Tritium is an isotope of hydrogen that has a mass number of 3. What is its isotopic notation? 
a)
1
H
1
b)
3
H
1
c)
1
H
3
d)
1
H
2
76.
What is the isotopic notation for an atom that has 33 protons, 42 neutrons, and 33 electrons? 
a)
33
X
42
b)
42
X
33
c)
75
X
33
d)
75
X
42
77.
What is the electron- dot notation for sulfur? 
a)
.
: S.
.
b)
.
.S:
c)
.
.S.
.
d)
..
.S:
.
78.
If an atom loses an election, the atom will have a ________ charge. 
a)
positive 
b)
negative 
c)
neutral 
d)
periodic 
79.
-2
SO4        is an 
a)
atom 
b)
element 
c)
ion 
d)
isotope 
80.
Who arranged a number of the elements in triads on the basis of similar properties? 
a)
Johann Dobereiner 
b)
Linus Pauling 
c)
Dimitri Mendeleev
d)
John Newlands 
81.
What chemist arranged the elements according to increasing atomic masses and thereby discovered the relationship he called the law of octaves?
a)
Henry Cavendish 
b)
John Newlands 
c)
Henry Moseley 
d)
Linus Pauling 
82.
Elements with atomic numbers greater than that of uranium are called _____ elements. 
a)
suburanium 
b)
hyperuranium 
c)
transuranium 
d)
posturanium 
83.
Which of these is not typically found in a cell on the periodic table? 
a)
atomic number 
b)
electron structure 
c)
electronegativity 
d)
atomic mass 
84.
These elements are good conductors of heat and electricity and are usually hard, lustrous, malleable, and ductile. 
a)
metals 
b)
metalloids 
c)
halogens 
d)
noble gases 
85.
Why do elements in the same family have similar physical and chemical properties?
a)
similar surface area 
b)
similar electrical charge 
c)
similar nuclear construction 
d)
similar electron configuration 
86.
What is the only metal that is a liquid at room temperature? 
a)
lithium 
b)
mercury 
c)
magnesium 
d)
barium 
87.
What name is given to groups 3-12 (B-group) elements? 
a)
alkali metals 
b)
transition metals 
c)
metalloids 
d)
halogenes 
88.
In general, where are the nonmetals located on the periodic table?
a)
the far left side 
b)
the far right side 
c)
the center 
d)
the bottom 
89.
The elements immediately adjacent to the stair-step line are the______.
a)
metals 
b)
metalloids 
c)
nonmetals 
d)
artificial elements 
90.
Beryllium is Group 2 (2A) and Period 2 of the periodic table, and radium is in Group 2 (2A) and Period 2. Which has the smaller ionization energy? 
a)
beryllium 
b)
radium 
91.
Lithium is in Group 1 (1A) of the periodic table, and fluorine is in Group 17 (7A). Which has the greater electronegativity? 
a)
lithium 
b)
fluorine 
92.
It is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe, is extremely flammable in air, and is used in the industrial production of ammonia. 
a)
hydrogen 
b)
sulfur 
c)
silicon 
d)
helium 
93.
A sample of an unidentified element has a bright lister, conducts electricity well, and is highly reactive. It is most likely one of the 
a)
alkali metals 
b)
transition metals 
c)
boron family elements 
d)
metalloids 
94.
Copper, nickel, zinc, platinum, mercury, calcium and potassium are all examples of__________
a)
metals 
b)
nonmetals 
c)
metalloids 
d)
halogens 
95.
Boron, silicon, arsenic, germanium, antimony, tellurium and astatine are all examples of ___________
a)
metals 
b)
nonmetals 
c)
metalloids 
d)
noble gases 
96.
All the metals in the p block of the periodic table are called______
a)
alkli metals 
b)
post- transition metals 
c)
transuranium elements 
d)
transition metals 
97.
Oxygen, nitrogen, carbon, and sulfur are all _______.
a)
metals 
b)
nonmetals 
c)
halogens 
d)
noble gases
98.
In general, which group of elements tends to have the strongest electron affinity? 
a)
halogens 
b)
alkaline earth metals 
c)
nitrogen family 
d)
transition metals 
99.
which of the following elements is the most reactive as well as the most electronegative? 
a)
chlorine 
b)
copper 
c)
francium 
d)
fluorine 
100.
When atoms bond, they gain_______.
a)
stability
b)
mass 
c)
energy 
d)
electrons 
101.
Chemical bonds between atoms involve the rearrangement of _________ to maximize stability. 
a)
protons 
b)
neutrons 
c)
electrons 
d)
neutrinos 
102.
What type of bond would expect in a compound of oxygen and sodium?
a)
ionic bond 
b)
metallic bond 
c)
covalent bond 
d)
polar covalent bond 
103.
A bond that forms between two or more atoms that have high electron affinities is most likely a(n) ________ bond. 
a)
covalent 
b)
ionic 
c)
metallic 
d)
delocalized 
104.
Which of the following is a non polar covalent compound? 
a)
NaCl
b)
Br2
c)
HCN
d)
Au
105.
What type of bond would you expect to form between nitrogen and potassium? 
a)
ionic 
b)
covalent 
c)
polar covalent 
d)
metallic 
106.
Which of the following does not exist as a diatomic molecule? 
a)
argon 
b)
hydrogen 
c)
chlorine 
d)
oxygen 
107.
What do we call the attraction between opposite electrical charges? 
a)
electric force 
b)
electron sharing 
c)
electrostatic force 
d)
electrical affinity 
108.
a dash in a Lewis structure represents ______ electron(s)
a)
one
b)
two
c)
four
d)
unpaired
109.
The central atom in a Lewis structure is usually the atom
a)
that is a metal
b)
with the most electrons
c)
with the greatest electronegativity
d)
with the most unpaired electrons 
110.
if the atoms below formed a covalent compound, which is most likely to be the central atom? 
a)
hydrogen
b)
carbon
c)
oxygen
d)
nitrogen
111.
What is the Lewis structure for HCN?
a)
C-H---N:
b)
H-C---N:
c)
H--C--N:
d)
H---C-N:
112.
What is the Lewis structure for H2S?
a)
H-S
      l
      H
b)
     . .
H-S
      |
      H
c)
      . .
 H-S:
        |
         H
d)
:H-S-H:
113.
How many double double bonds are found in the molecule AsCl3?
a)
0
b)
1
c)
3
d)
4
114.
Which of the following molecules contains one or more double covalent bonds?
a)
N2
b)
HCN
c)
CO2
d)
IBr
115.
Which of the following molecules contains only single covalent bonds?
a)
SO2
b)
CICN
c)
CI2O
d)
F2CO
116.
In order to achieve an octet when combining with potassium, an atom of a Group 16(6A) element would be expected to _______ electrons. 
a)
lose 
b)
gain 
c)
share 
d)
This cannot be determined from the given information 
117.
The ratio of cations to anions in an ionic compound is expressed in a chemical formula known as a(n) ________ unit 
a)
molecular 
b)
formula 
c)
atomic 
d)
proportional 
118.
An orderly arrangement of ions in a three- dimensional pattern within a compound is called a(n) 
a)
formula unit 
b)
ion array 
c)
crystal lattice 
d)
ionic network 
119.
The electron sea theory accounts for all of the following characteristics of metals except________
a)
luster 
b)
conductivity 
c)
brittleness 
d)
ductility 
120.
Because most metals have _________, they are most likely to freely share electrons when bonding with each other. 
a)
high electronegativities 
b)
large atomic radii
c)
the ability to conduct electricity 
d)
low electron affinities 
121.
The mobile valence electrons in a metallic bond are said to be ______
a)
delocalized 
b)
externalized 
c)
integrated 
d)
hominid 
122.
A mixture of atoms from multiple metals which has metallic properties is called a(n) _________
a)
metalloid 
b)
network 
c)
alloy 
d)
electron sea 
123.
What type of bond forms as a result of orbitals overlapping  end to end? 
a)
pi
b)
sigma
c)
gamma 
d)
delta 
124.
If an atom has a full s and a full p sub level in its first energy level, how many electrons does it have? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
8
d)
10
125.
Which of these is the strongest?
a)
single bond 
b)
double bond 
c)
triple bond 
d)
impossible to tell from this information 
126.
How many sigma and pi bonds are there in a molecule N2?
a)
1s and 2p
b)
2s and 1p
c)
1s and 1p
d)
1s and 0p
127.
For some molecules, no single Lewis structure can completely describe the distribution of electrons. the display of an intermediate character within the bonds of such molecules is called________.
a)
anti bonding 
b)
resonance 
c)
polarity 
d)
hybridization 
128.
The assumption that molecular shapes are largely determined by the repulsion of regions of electron concentration is known as the _____________ theory .
a)
valence bond 
b)
VSEPR
c)
MO
d)
electron sea 
129.
Predict the shape of the molecule HCN
a)
linear 
b)
bent 
c)
pyramidal 
d)
tetrahedral 
130.
Predict the shape of the molecule H2CO
a)
bent 
b)
pyramidal 
c)
tetrahedral 
d)
trigonal planar 
131.
According to the VSEPR theory, two atom molecules are ______ linear 
a)
always 
b)
usually
c)
 sometime
d)
never 
132.
The process by which new kinds of orbitals of equal energy are formed from a combination of orbitals of different energies is known as_______
a)
paramagnetism
b)
 hybridization 
c)
resonance 
d)
energization 
133.
Predict the shape of the molecule PH3
a)
linear 
b)
pyramidal 
c)
tetrahedral 
d)
Trigonal planar 
134.
According to the VSEPR theory, three atom molecules are _____ linear
a)
never 
b)
sometimes 
c)
always 
d)
it is impossible to know from this information 
135.
Which of the following molecules has a bent shape? 
a)
NH3
b)
OF2
c)
CO2
d)
CI2CO
136.
Which of the following molecules has a trigonal planar shape?
a)
NH3
b)
H2CO
c)
H2O
d)
PCI3
137.
Which of the following compounds is polar?
a)
NH3
b)
Br2
c)
CH4
d)
CO2
138.
Given the Lewis structure for HCN, what is the direction of the dipole moment?
a)
H:C::N:    arrow up
b)
H:C::N: arrow down 
c)
H:C::N: arrow left 
d)
H:C::N: arrow right 
139.
All of the following molecules are non polar except 
a)
F2
b)
CO2
c)
CH3CI
d)
BF3