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Unit 1 and 2 Summary Quiz

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 2hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How many significant figures: 216 m
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
0
2.
How many significant figures: 153.0 mL
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
3.
How many significant figures: 0.012 km
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
4.

Carbon has how many protons?

a)

12

b)

6

c)

7

d)

4

5.

Argon has how many Valence Electrons?

a)

18

b)

40

c)

8

d)

3

6.

Potassium has how many energy levels?

a)

4

b)

19

c)

39

d)

1

7.

Bromine has how many Neutrons?

a)

35

b)

80

c)

45

d)

8

8.

Elements in the same group all have the same number of...

a)

Electrons

b)

Protons

c)

Valence Electrons

d)

Energy Levels

9.
What do these isotopes of carbon all have in common?
a)
neutrons & mass number
b)
atomic number and neutrons
c)
atomic number and electrons
d)
protons, atomic number, and mass number
10.
Isotopes are atoms of the same element with different #’s of __________ & therefore different __________.
a)
n0 ;  atomic #’s
b)
p+ ; atomic #’s
c)
e- ; atomic masses
d)
n0 ; atomic masses
11.
How many neutrons does the isotope below have?     89 36Kr
a)
53
b)
36
c)
89
d)
125
12.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
13.

Element X has 2 isotopes. X-125 and X-126. For every 100 atoms of X, 30 of them have a mass of 125.0 amu and 70 have a mass of 126.0 amu. What is the average atomic mass of X?

a)

125.3 amu

b)

125.7 amu

c)

126.3 amu

d)

126.7 amu

14.

How many isotopes are shown in this mass spec?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

6

d)

7

15.

Which of the following is NOT a step in the operation of a mass spectrometer?

a)

Accelerate,

b)

Deflect

c)

Radiate

d)

Ionize

16.
What are the steps of operation in the mass spectrometer?
a)
Accelerate, Deflect,Ionize, Detect
b)
Deflect,Ionize, Accelerate, Detect
c)
Ionize, Accelerate, Deflect, Detect
d)
Detect, Accelerate, Deflect, Ionize
17.
Which species would get deflected by the greatest degree in the mass spectrometer?
a)
12C+
b)
13C+
c)
13C2+
d)
14C+
18.

What element has the following mass spec data?

a)

Sulfur

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Oxygen

d)

Carbon

19.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
20.
What do the heights of the peaks represent in the mass spectrum?
a)
number of isotopes
b)
relative abundance of each isotope
c)
average atomic mass
d)
charge:mass ratio
21.

The color of emitted light with the LONGEST wavelength is

a)

violet

b)

green

c)

red

d)

indigo

22.

The color of emitted light with the SHORTEST wavelength is

a)

violet

b)

green

c)

red

d)

indigo

23.
 A wave has frequency of 50 Hz and a wavelength of 10 m. What is the speed of the wave?
a)
500 m/s
b)
50 m/s
c)
5 m/s
d)
0.5 m/s
24.
A wave has wavelength of 10 m and a speed of 340 m/s. What is the frequency of the wave?
a)
34 m/s
b)
3400 Hz
c)
3400 m/s
d)
34 Hz
25.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
26.
 A wave has frequency of 5 Hz and a speed of 25 m/s. What is the wavelength of the wave?
a)
25 m
b)
125 m
c)
5 m
d)
25 m/s
27.

What is the speed of light in a vacuum?

a)

3×1083\times10^8 m/s

b)

3×10−83\times10^{-8} m/s

c)

6.63×10346.63\times10^{34} J s

d)

6.63×10−346.63\times10^{-34} J s

28.

What is the value of Planck's constant?

a)

3×1083\times10^8 m/s

b)

3×10−83\times10^{-8} m/s

c)

6.63×10346.63\times10^{34} J s

d)

6.63×10−346.63\times10^{-34} J s

29.

Which of the following is TRUE about the frequency and energy in electromagnetic waves?

a)

As the frequency of an EM wave increases, the energy also increases.

b)

As the frequency of an EM wave increases, the energy decreases.

c)

The Planck's constant increases when the frequency and energy of an EM wave increase.

d)

There is no relation between the energy and the frequency of an EM wave.

30.

What is the frequency of green light that has a wavelength of 500 nm?

a)

 6×10−36\times10^{-3}  Hz

b)

 6×1056\times10^5  Hz

c)

 6×10146\times10^{14}  Hz

d)

 6×10−166\times10^{-16}  HZ

31.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
32.
Which is the electron configuration for an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s23p64s2
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p6
33.
Which element is pictured?
a)
neon
b)
fluorine
c)
magnesium
d)
argon
34.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
35.

Which atom has the largest atomic radius?

a)

potassium

b)

rubidium

c)

francium

d)

cesium

36.
As you move down the periodic table atoms get bigger.  This is because ____________.
a)
The atoms have more mass.
b)
The atoms have more protons.
c)
The atoms have more energy levels
d)
The atoms have more nuetrons
37.
As you move across the periodic table atoms tend to get smaller because, ______________.
a)
the atoms have more mass.
b)
the atoms have less mass
c)
the atoms have more protons.
d)
the atoms have less electrons.
38.
The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 18 is - 
a)
Ar
b)
He
c)
Kr
d)
Rn
39.
Order the following in increasing atomic radii: 
Ra, Be, Ca, Rb, H
a)
Ra, Be, Rb, H, Ca
b)
Rb, H, Ca, Be, Ra
c)
Ra, Rb, Ca, Be, H
d)
H, Be, Ca, Rb, Ra
40.

What is meant by isolectronic?

a)

Group of atoms or ions that have the same electronic configuration

b)

Group of atoms or ions that have the same protonic configuration

c)

Group of atoms or ions that have the same charges

d)

Group of atoms or ions that have different electronic configuration

41.

Going down the group, the atomic radius of elements increases. Why is that so?

a)

the number of shell (n) increases

b)

Shielding effect increases

c)

Nucleus attraction towards valence electrons weaker

d)

All of the above

42.

Which species has the larger radius?

a)

Cl

b)

Cl-

43.

Which species has the larger radius?

a)

Na

b)

Na+

44.

Which is larger... P or P3- ? … and why?

a)

P3- because it gains an energy level

b)

P3- due to extra electron repulsion

c)

P because it loses an energy level

d)

P because of extra electron repulsion

45.

Na+ (Zeff=+9) and Al3+(Zeff=+11) are isoelectronic species (1s2 2s2 2p6). Which of these ion is smaller?

a)

Na+

b)

Al3+

c)

They have the same size

46.
Coulombic Attraction is the attraction between __________ charged particles.
a)
same 
b)
oppositely
c)
two positively
d)
two negatively
47.
An example of Coulombic Attraction in an atom is between
a)
protons and neutrons
b)
neutrons and electrons
c)
protons and electrons
d)
protons and protons
48.
As the distance between protons and electrons increases, the force of attraction
a)
remains the same
b)
increases
c)
decreases
d)
is not affected
49.
If distance remains the same, as the number of protons increases, the force of attraction
a)
remains the same
b)
increases
c)
decreases
d)
is divided by 1/2
50.
What are the two variables that affect Coulombic Attraction?
a)
Distance  and number of protons
b)
Number of neutrons and number of protons
c)
Number of neutrons and number of electrons
d)
solids or liquids
51.

If the number of energy level rings remains the same, as the number of protons increases, the force of attraction

a)

remains the same

b)

increases

c)

decreases

d)

is divided by 1/2

52.

What is the trend in Coulombic attraction moving from left to right across a period?

a)

Coulombic attraction increases moving from left to right across a period.

b)

Coulombic attraction decreases moving from left to right across a period.

c)

No trend can be observed.

d)

The trend depends upon which period is being observed.

53.

Select the element that has the strongest Coulombic attraction.

a)

O

b)

S

c)

Se

d)

Te

54.

Which of the following is the correct ranking of elements from weakest to strongest Coulombic attractive force?

a)

F, O, Ag, W, Rf, Fr

b)

O, F, Ag, W, Fr, Rf

c)

Rf, Fr, W, Ag, F, O

d)

Fr, Rf, W, Ag, O, F

55.

Electronegativity trends are the same as:

a)

Atomic radius trends

b)

Ionization energy trends

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

56.

What does electronegativity do as you go across a period?

a)

decrease

b)

no pattern

c)

stay the same

d)

increase

57.

As you move across a period, the outer electrons are ________ to the nucleus, so the nucleus of the atom is ________ to attract electrons in a bond.

a)

closer, more able

b)

closer, less able

c)

further, less able

d)

further, more able

58.

Electronegativity is the ability of an atom to attract electrons in a physical bond.

a)

false

b)

true

59.

Based on the data in the table above, which of the following correctly predicts the relative electronegativity of the elements X, Y, and Z, and provides the correct reason?

a)

X > Y > Z because smaller elements have a stronger coulombic attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons

b)

X > Y > Z because smaller elements have a weaker coulombic attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons

c)

Z > Y > Z because larger elements have a stronger coulombic attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons

d)

Z > Y > Z because larger elements have a stronger coulombic attraction between the nucleus and valence electrons

60.

The electrons in a POLAR covalent bond are shared...

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Electrons are not shared

d)

None of the Above

61.

The electrons in a NONPOLAR covalent bond are shared...

a)

Evenly

b)

Unevenly

c)

Electrons are not shared

d)

None of the Above

62.

What type of bond is depicted in the image?

a)

Nonpolar Covalent

b)

Polar Covalent

c)

Ionic

63.

Electronegativity is...

a)

The ability for an atom to ATTRACT electrons

b)

the ability of an atom to LOSE electrons

c)

the energy required to remove an electron from an atom

d)

how easy it is to make friends.

64.

HBr has a difference in electronegativity of 0.7. Based on the table, what kind of bond is HF?

a)

Nonpolar covalent

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Ionic

65.

How many peaks would be expected for a PES spectum for Calcium?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

66.

Which of these elements would have the same number of PES peaks as Fluorine?

a)

Neon

b)

Beryllium

c)

Sodium

d)

Chlorine

67.

The PES spectrum below is for the element _______________.

a)

O

b)

Ne

c)

N

d)

F

68.

Examine the spectrum below. Where would you expect the 2p peak for F be if it were on the same spectrum?

a)

To the left of the peak at 3.04

b)

To the right of the peak at 3.04

c)

To the left of the peak at 1.31

d)

To the right of the peak at 1.31

69.

What does the 4th peak from the left represent?

a)

The 2s electrons

b)

The 3d electrons

c)

The 2p electrons

d)

The 3s electrons

70.

How many valence electrons does the element pictured in the PES spectrum below have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

71.

Where would you expect the 2s peak for Sodium to fall relative to the presented spectrum of a different element below?

a)

Just to the left of the peak at 126

b)

Just to the right of the peak at 126

c)

Just to the left of the peak at 9.07

d)

Just to the right of the peak at 9.07

72.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
73.
Electronegativity is...
a)
how good an atom is at attracting electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
74.

Particle Z will experience the most attractive force when touching which particle? Think about Coulomb's Law and the fact that it depends on charge and distance

a)

Particle A

b)

Particle B

c)

Particle C

d)

Particle D

75.

What is incorrect about this orbital diagram?

a)

Both arrows in the filled 2p box should be pointing the same direction

b)

There is nothing incorrect with this diagram

c)

In the there should only be 1 arrow in the first 2p box and one in the 2nd 2p box

d)

All the arrows should be pointing the same direction.

76.

Ionisation energy is ___________.

a)

maximum energy required to remove 1 electron from 1 mol of gaseous atom

b)

minimum energy required to remove 1 electron from 1 mol of gaseous atom

c)

first ionisation energy

d)

second ionisation energy

77.

When across a period, the atomic size decreases so the first IE ___________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

constant

d)

i am not sure

78.

When going down a group, the atomic size increases so the first IE __________.

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

constant

d)

I am not sure

79.
Put the following in order of increasing ionization energy:Neon, Lithium, Carbon
a)
Lithium, Carbon, Neon
b)
Carbon, Lithium, Neon
c)
Neon, Carbon, Lithium
d)
Lithium, Neon, Carbon
80.

The equation for the first ionisation energy of a sodium atom is:

a)

Na (g) -> Na+ (g) + e-

b)

Na+ (g) -> Na2+ (g) + e-

c)

Na (s) -> Na+ (g) + e-

d)

Na+ (g) + e- -> Na (g)

81.
How many electrons should Oxygen have around its Lewis dot model?
a)
5
b)
6
c)
7
d)
8
82.
What is the correct formula for this molecule?
a)
NH
b)
N3H
c)
NH3
d)
NH4
83.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis structure for the compound PBr3?
a)
structure A
b)
structure B
c)
structure C
d)
structure D
84.
According to the octet rule most elements need _______ valence electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
6
d)
18
85.
In the correct Lewis structure for CH4, how many unshared electron pairs surround the carbon?
a)
2
b)
8
c)
0
d)
4
86.
In CO2, how many UNSHARED pairs of electrons does each oxygen have?
a)
2
b)
1
c)
4
d)
6
87.
This is the correct dot diagram for sodium (Na)
a)
true
b)
false
88.
This is a correct dot diagram for oxygen (O)
a)
true
b)
false
89.
Which of the following is the correct Lewis dot structure for the molecule fluorine (F2)?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
90.
How many electrons can be used in the Lewis Structure for : NO3 -
a)
23
b)
20
c)
18
d)
24
91.

Factors affecting the value of lattice energy

a)

the size of the ions only

b)

the charges of the ions only

c)

BOTH the size of the ions AND the charges of the ions

92.

When comparing different ionic compounds, the one with the greater charges will have a _______ magnitude of lattice energy.

a)

greater

b)

less

c)

same

93.

When comparing different ionic compounds, the one with the ions of greater size or radius will have a _______ magnitude of lattice energy.

a)

greater

b)

smaller

c)

same

94.

Choose the ionic compound with the greater magnitude of lattice energy.

a)

NaCl

b)

KCl

95.

Choose the ionic compound with the greater magnitude of lattice energy.

a)

CaCl2

b)

KCl

96.

What is Lattice Energy?

a)

one mole of an ionic compound is formed from its gaseous ions under standard conditions

b)

one mole of electrons is added to one mole of gaseous atoms to form one mole of gaseous 1- ions under standard conditions

c)

one mole of an ionic compound is formed from its atoms under standard conditions

d)

one mole of gaseous atoms is formed from its element under standard conditions

97.

Which are the particles in an ionic lattice?

a)

cations and delocalised electrons

b)

cations and delocalised anions

c)

cations and anions

d)

anions and delocalised electrons

98.

What is the first electron affinity?

a)

one mole of electrons is added to one mole of gaseous 1- ions to form one mole of gaseous 2- ions under standard conditions

b)

one mole of gaseous atoms is formed from its element under standard conditions

c)

one mole of electrons is added to one mole of gaseous atoms to form one mole of gaseous 1- ions under standard conditions

99.
What is the basis of a metallic bond?
a)
the attraction of neutral metal atoms.
b)
the attraction between protons and neutrons.
c)
the attraction between positive metal ions and interlocking electrons.
d)
the attraction between positive metal ions and free floating electrons.
100.
At room temperature, most metals are
a)
liquid
b)
solid
c)
gas
d)
an alloy
101.
What does malleable mean?
a)
able to be shaped
b)
will break easily
c)
can be used for wire
d)
is shiny
102.
Which of these is NOT an alloy?
a)
bronze
b)
copper
c)
brass
d)
stainless steel
103.
Why do metals have high melting points?
a)
They don't
b)
The negatively charged electrons act as a glue to hold the positively charged ions together.
c)
All the electrons become delocalised
104.
Why do metals conduct
a)
They are shiny
b)
The electrons are held tightly within the lattice
c)
The electrons are delocalised and able to move
d)
The electrons are shared between two metal ions
105.
I can hit a metal with a hammer without the metal shattering because of its __________.
a)
Ductility
b)
Malleability
c)
Conductivity
d)
Lustrousness
106.
Why are alloys generally used to make everyday objects?
a)
Alloys are often stronger and less active than pure metals.
b)
Alloys have higher melting point than pure metals.
c)
Alloys are less expensive to produce than pure metals.
d)
Alloys have ionic bonds instead of metallic bonds.
107.

The diagram shows metallic bonding.


Which labels are correct?

a)

X: atomic nucleus

Y: outer electron

b)

X: metal atom

Y: mobile electron

c)

X: metal cation

Y: mobile electron

d)

X: positive ion

Y: negative ion

108.

X is a solid at room temperature.

X has a high melting point.

Solid X conducts electricity.


Which diagram shows how the particles are arranged in solid X?

a)
b)
c)
d)
109.

A sample of a hard, solid binary compound at room temperature did not conduct electricity as a pure solid but became highly conductive when dissolved in water. Which of the following types of interactions is most likely found between the particles in the substance?

a)

Ionic bonds

b)

Metallic bonds

c)

Covalent bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

110.

This type of solid forms a regular repeating

three-dimensional structure called a crystal lattice. What type of solid is this?

a)

amorphous

b)

crystalline

c)

glass

d)

diamond

111.

An alloy is harder than its pure metal because the foreign atoms in the alloy

a)

increase the bond strength between the atoms.

b)

increase the empty spaces between the atoms.

c)

react with the pure metal atoms to form a compound.

d)

reduce the ability of the atoms to slide across each other.

112.

what are the 2 types of alloys

a)

substitutional

b)

additional

c)

interstitial

d)

intracellular

113.

if boron 84pm and carbon 69pm are combined what type of alloy is created

a)

multicellular

b)

substitutional

c)

partial

d)

interstitial

114.

if flourine 64 pm and lithium 121pm combine what type of combination will occur

a)

additional

b)

substitutional

c)

inerstitial

d)

non-corrosive

115.

What would happen to an ionic crystal when a force is applied to it.

a)

It breaks

b)

It bends

c)

It bounces

116.

_____________ alloys have smaller atoms that fit into the spaces between larger atoms

a)

Interstitial

b)

substitional

c)

institutional

d)

international

117.

All alloys are mixtures.

a)

True

b)

False

118.
 A lone pair is defined as
a)
A pair of bonding electrons
b)
One non-bonding electron
c)
A pair of non-bonding electrons
d)
A pair of electrons on the central atom
119.
What is the VSEPR theory used to predict?
a)
Bond Strength
b)
Polarity
c)
Molecular Shape
d)
Electronegativity
120.
Which of the following shapes has an unshared pairs of electrons on the central atom? 
a)
Bipyramidal
b)
Bent
c)
Trigonal Planar
d)
Tetrahedral
121.
Which molecule would have this molecular geometry?
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
PCl5
d)
CO2
122.
What molecule could this be? 
a)
BF3
b)
CH4
c)
H2O
d)
CO2
123.
What molecule could this be? 
a)
H2O
b)
CCl4
c)
PCl5
d)
NaCl
124.
Who could this be? 
a)
CO2
b)
NH3
c)
H2S
d)
CH4
125.

Molecule CO2

a)

undergoes sp2 hybridisation

b)

has 2 σ bond and 2 π bond

c)

undergoes sp3d hybridisation

d)

is trigonal planar molecule

126.

What is the hybridization of a linear molecule?

a)

sp

b)

sp2

c)

sp3

d)

sp3d

127.

What is the hybridization of this molecule shown.

a)

sp

b)

sp2

c)

sp3

d)

sp4

128.

What is the hybridization of the Carbon atom indicated by the arrow?

a)

sp hybridization

b)

sp2 hybridization

c)

sp3 hybridization

d)

dsp3 hybridization

129.

What is the bond angle for the CH4 molecule?

a)

120°

b)

107°

c)

109.5°

d)

90°

130.
How many resonance structures for NO3- ion?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
131.
How many resonance structure for SO2 ?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
132.

What is the formal charge on the oxygen atom at the top of this Lewis dot structure?

a)

0

b)

+1

c)

-1

d)

-2

133.

What is the picture showing?

a)

All of the resonance structures for carbonate.

b)

The formal charge on each atom in carbonate.

c)

The electronegativity for carbonate.

d)

The ionization energy for carbonate.

134.
How many sigma bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
135.
How many pi bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
136.
How many sigma bonds does this have? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
137.

How many sigma bonds are in the following molecule?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

5

e)

6

138.
Calculate the Formal Charge for the Nitrogen
a)
-1
b)
+1
c)
0
d)
-2
139.
What is the formal charge for each of the Fluorine atoms
a)
-1
b)
+1
c)
0
d)
+2
140.

Which element should be used as the central atom of a Lewis structure?

a)

The least electronegative element will be the central atom.

b)

The most electronegative will be the central atom.

c)

The largest atomic radius will be the central atom.

d)

The smallest atomic radius will be the central atom.

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