WorksheetsGenetics Unit VHHS
Total questions: 75
Worksheet time: 39mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is a genetic trait?
a)
Any inherited characteristic of an organism that can be detected.
b)
Tool used to detect characteristics offspring.
c)
Study of the passing of traits.
d)
Fixing genes via engineering .
2.
Invariant traits are ________.
a)
Traits that differ among individuals of the same species.
b)
Traits that are the same in all individuals of a species.
c)
Mutations that lead to diversity.
d)
Enzymes that separate DNA.
3.
Variant traits are ___________.
a)
Traits that are the same in all individuals.
b)
Traits that can lead to mutations.
c)
Traits that differ among individuals of the same species.
d)
Traits that dominate other traits.
4.
Which of these is NOT one of the three types of genetic traits?
a)
Physical
b)
Behavioral
c)
Cognitive
d)
Biochemical
5.
Define the basic unit of information that affects a genetic trait. It is a stretch of DNA that codes for one protein.
a)
Allele
b)
Gene
c)
Mutation
d)
Phenotype
6.
Hair color has two outcomes: B for brown hair or b for blonde hair. What do the letters B and b represent?
a)
Mutations
b)
Enzymes
c)
Carriers
d)
Alleles
7.
With 46 chromosomes in a human diploid cell, how many chromosomes are from the person’s mother and how many are from the father
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
18
8.
Physical expressions of the genetic makeup are known as what?
a)
Genotypes
b)
Phenotypes
c)
Alleles
d)
Mutations
9.
BB, Bb, or bb are known as the genetic makeups of organisms or simply _______.
a)
Phenotypes
b)
Allele
c)
Enzymes
d)
Genotypes
10.
When an allele is expressed whether there is one or two copies of it, generally represented with a capital letter, it is referred to as _____.
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
c)
Incomplete dominance
d)
Codominant
11.
When an allele is covered up or is only expressed when two identical copies are in the genotype it is referred to as ______.
a)
Dominant
b)
Codominant
c)
Recessive
d)
Incomplete dominance
12.
When the genotype is BB it is referred to as __________.
a)
Homozygous recessive
b)
Heterozygous
c)
Homozygous dominant
d)
Incomplete dominance
13.
When the genotype is bb, the organism is referred to as _______.
a)
Homozygous recessive
b)
Homozygous dominant
c)
Heterozygous
d)
Codominant
14.
When the genotype is Bb, an organism is said to be _______.
a)
Codominant
b)
Homozygous dominant
c)
Homozygous recessive
d)
Heterozygous
15.
Which can you observe directly: the genotype or the phenotype?
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
16.
Who is the Father of Modern Genetics?
a)
Francis Crick
b)
James Watson
c)
Gregor Mendel
d)
Meischer
17.
What plant did Mendel study and why did he study it?
a)
Pea plants, they are able to reproduce quicker.
b)
Pea plants, it was the only plant he had at the time
c)
Corn, they are able to control much more traits.
d)
Corn, they reproduce slowly.
18.
What are the three generations of crosses that Mendel conducted?
a)
P generation
b)
F1 generation
c)
F2 generation
d)
All of these are generations that Mendel conducted.
19.
Which generation did Mendel control the cross?
a)
F1
b)
P
c)
F2
20.
Why was it important that Mendel begin with pea plants that he knew bred true for flower color? Why couldn’t he simply cross a purple-flowered plant and a white-flowered plant?
a)
The purple-flowered plant might be heterozygous OR homozygous.
b)
Bred true plants are able to carry multiple alleles for study.
c)
Plants that are bred true are able to be reproduced much quicker than hybrid plants.
d)
Hybrid plants are sterile and are unable to reproduce.
21.
What is a tool used to predict the genotype and phenotype of the offspring through the use of probability?
a)
Karyotype
b)
Gene therapy
c)
Punnett Squares
d)
Transcription and Translation
22.
Draw a Punnett square for a genetic cross of two heterozygous, black-coated dogs. What is the phenotype ratio of their offspring? What is the offspring genotype ratio?
a)
4:0
b)
1:3
c)
1
1:1:1:1
1:1:1:1
d)
1:2:1
23.
Which of the following did Mendel NOT propose following is pea plant study?
a)
Law of segregation
b)
Law of thermodynamics
c)
Law of independent assortment
24.
What is the term used for a genetic cross of one trait?
a)
Dihybrid
b)
Monohybrid
c)
Trihybrid
25.
According to the chromosome theory at what point are chromosomes exchanged?
a)
Meiosis
b)
Fertilization
c)
Crossing over
d)
All of the choices exchange chromosomes
26.
What is the chance that an event will occur such as in Punnett Squares?
a)
Probability
b)
Crossing over
c)
Rare
d)
Scarce
27.
If you were crossing a purple plant and a pink plant and the Pp offspring produced a pink color, what situation most likely occurred?
a)
Codominance
b)
Epistasis
c)
Incomplete dominance
d)
Pleiotropy
28.
If an offspring shows the traits from both alleles equally such as Roan horses or the gums of dogs, what is most likely to have occurred?
a)
Pleiotropy
b)
Codominance
c)
Incomplete dominance
d)
Epistasis
29.
What is the difference between pleiotropy and polygenic traits?
a)
Polygenic traits are controlled by one gene, while pleiotropy traits are contolled by many genes.
b)
Pleiotropy traits are contolled by a single gene, while polygenic traits are controlled by many genes.
c)
There is no difference and they can be used interchangeably.
d)
Both traits are controlled by temperature in order to be expressed.
30.
In Labrador coat color dogs can show black, brown, or yellow coat colors. Yellow coat color is a result of coat color being suppressed by a separate gene. What is this scenario called?
a)
Codominance
b)
Epistasis
c)
Pleiotropy
d)
Incomplete dominance
31.
Complex traits include which of the following?
a)
Hair color
b)
Weight
c)
Intelligence
d)
All of these are complex traits
32.
Which of the following factors can impact the phenotype of an organism?
a)
Ambient or body temperature
b)
CO2 levels
c)
Sunlight
d)
All of these can alter phenotypes
33.
Cystic fibrosis, cancers, and hemophilia are diseases caused by an inherited mutation in genes passed to offspring. What is the general term used for these?
a)
Pedigrees
b)
Genetic disorders
c)
Chromosomal abnormality
d)
Dominance
34.
What is the chart similar to family trees that shows genetic relationships among family members?
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Karotype
c)
Pedigree
d)
Gene therapy
35.
Squares in a pedigree indicate _____ while circles indicate _____.
a)
Males, females
b)
Females, males
36.
Symbols in a pedigree that are filled in, indicate what?
a)
Unaffected individual
b)
Affected individual
37.
Which of the following is NOT a type of chromosome mutation?
a)
Deletion and Inversion
b)
Translocation
c)
Duplication
d)
Point
38.
Down syndrome is a result of _______.
a)
A lack of chromosomes on the 21st spot.
b)
An extra chromosome at the 21st spot giving the person three instead of two.
c)
The chromosome at 21 is broken/shortened.
d)
The chromosome at 21 is elongated and duplicated.
39.
What tool is a picture of a cell's chromosomes during meiosis that have been matched into 23 pairs?
a)
Punnett Squares
b)
Pedigree
c)
Gene therapy
d)
Karotype
40.
How many pairs of autosomes, which are pairs of homologous chromosomes for traits, do humans have?
a)
22
b)
23
c)
46
d)
12
41.
How many pairs of sex chromosomes do humans have?
a)
22
b)
23
c)
46
d)
1
42.
What gender is represented as XX?
a)
Male
b)
Female
43.
Which is determined by XY?
a)
Male
b)
Female
44.
Which sex determines the gender of the offspring?
a)
Males, because they give an X or a Y.
b)
Females, because they can only give an X
45.
Which sex chromosome leads to greater mutations when damaged and why?
a)
X because it is much larger carrying 1,180 gene loci.
b)
Y because it is smaller only carrying 60 gene loci.
46.
Where are genes located on a chromosome?
a)
Locus
b)
Chromosome head
c)
Homologous pairs
d)
DNA
47.
What is the function of the SRY gene?
a)
It serves as the master sex switch determining if male or female characteristics will be produced.
b)
Determines if an X or Y chromosome will be given.
c)
Determines if the heart will function properly or not.
d)
Determines if the offspring will be fertile or sterile.
48.
When an individual has one copy of a recessive allele, it is said to be a _______.
a)
Homozygous dominant
b)
Genetic carrier
c)
Genetically recessive
49.
Which gender is most likely to get an X-linked recessive disorder?
a)
Male
b)
Female
50.
What recessive autosomal disease causes the body to produce a thick, sticky mucus that clogs airways and leads to lung infections?
a)
Hemophilia
b)
Cancer
c)
Cystic Fibrosis
d)
Muscular Dystrophy
51.
Which disorder is an example of a dominant genetic disorder?
a)
Hemophilia
b)
Dwarfism
c)
Cystic fibrosis
d)
Cancer
52.
Gene engineering is defined as ______.
a)
Using viruses to inject healthy material into cells.
b)
Permanent introduction of one or more genes into a cell tissue or organ.
c)
Purposely altering genes in a negative way.
d)
Crossing opposite sexes for genetic crosses.
53.
These steps outline what process:
1. Cells are removed from the patient.
2. A virus is altered so it doesn't cause disease.
3. A healthy copy of the patient's missing/damaged gene is inserted into the virus.
4. The virus is mixed with the patient cells.
5. The cells integrate the new gene into their genomes.
6. The genetically altered cells are injected back into the patient.
6. Damaged cells now begin to produce desired proteins.
1. Cells are removed from the patient.
2. A virus is altered so it doesn't cause disease.
3. A healthy copy of the patient's missing/damaged gene is inserted into the virus.
4. The virus is mixed with the patient cells.
5. The cells integrate the new gene into their genomes.
6. The genetically altered cells are injected back into the patient.
6. Damaged cells now begin to produce desired proteins.
a)
Karyotypes
b)
Gene therapy
c)
Genetic engineering
d)
Translocation
54.
Is it true that the phenoytpic expression of some genes can skip a generation?
a)
Yes
b)
No
55.
What structure is made up of a deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and is double helix in shape?
a)
RNA
b)
DNA
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
Helicase
56.
What scientist discovered DNA?
a)
Crick
b)
Watson
c)
Meischer
d)
Franklin
57.
What scientists was NOT involved in the discovery of DNA's shape?
a)
Crick
b)
Watson
c)
Meischer
d)
Franklin
58.
What is the proper base pairing in DNA?
a)
Adenine-Thymine and Cytosine-Guanine
b)
Adenine-cytosine and guanine-thymine
c)
Thymine-cytosine and Guanine-Adenine
59.
What do the steps below describe?
1.DNA molecule unwinds and the bonds that connect two DNA strands are broken via the enzyme Helicase.
2.Each strand is used as a template for the new strand being built by the enzyme DNA polymerase. 3.Two identical copies of the original DNA molecule are made with one strand being the template and the other being a newly made strand.
1.DNA molecule unwinds and the bonds that connect two DNA strands are broken via the enzyme Helicase.
2.Each strand is used as a template for the new strand being built by the enzyme DNA polymerase. 3.Two identical copies of the original DNA molecule are made with one strand being the template and the other being a newly made strand.
a)
DNA replication
b)
Translation
c)
Gene splicing
d)
Genetic engineering
60.
What is human controlled DNA replication?
a)
PCR
b)
ATP
c)
DNA
d)
RNA
61.
What can lead to errors in DNA replication?
a)
DNA enzymes insert incorrect bases.
b)
Chemical and physical agents cause damage.
c)
Biological agents cause damage.
d)
All of these can cause errors.
62.
What enzyme acts as a proofreader, fixing errors in DNA replication?
a)
Helicase
b)
ATPase
c)
DNA polymerase
d)
It isn't an enzyme, it is a protein.
63.
What is the difference between point and silent mutations?
a)
Point mutations can lead to a visible/detectable change, while silent mutations have no effect.
b)
Point mutations have no effect, while silent mutations have a major impact.
c)
Point mutations change one base, while silent mutations change an entire strand.
64.
Which of the following is NOT a DNA replication error?
a)
Deletion
b)
Insertion
c)
Substitution
d)
Translocation
65.
What process uses genes to make RNA and then proteins that influence the structure and function of an organism?
a)
Transcription
b)
Gene expression
c)
Gene therapy
d)
Epistasis
66.
What process is outlined by the three steps below?
1.The enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a segment of DNA called a promoter, which is a specific sequence of bases in the DNA. 2.RNA polymerase unzips the DNA double helix at the promoter and creates a template strand where an mRNA molecule can be created. Base pairs must match. Example: Adenine in DNA would pair with Uracil in mRNA. 3.Transcription stops when RNA polymerase reaches a sequence called a terminator. mRNA is processed by removing introns and keeping exons. mRNA is sent out through nuclear pores.
1.The enzyme RNA polymerase binds to a segment of DNA called a promoter, which is a specific sequence of bases in the DNA. 2.RNA polymerase unzips the DNA double helix at the promoter and creates a template strand where an mRNA molecule can be created. Base pairs must match. Example: Adenine in DNA would pair with Uracil in mRNA. 3.Transcription stops when RNA polymerase reaches a sequence called a terminator. mRNA is processed by removing introns and keeping exons. mRNA is sent out through nuclear pores.
a)
Transcription
b)
DNA replication
c)
Translation
d)
Gene expression
67.
Which of the following is a difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA has a ribose sugar, DNA has a deoxyribose sugar.
b)
RNA is single stranded instead of double stranded.
c)
RNA's base pairs are Adenine and Uracil instead of Adenine and Thymine
d)
All of these are differences.
68.
Which type of RNA specifies the order of amino acids in a protein by using a set of 3 bases?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
69.
Which type of RNA assists in the bonding of amino acids together to make proteins?
a)
mRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
tRNA
70.
Which type of RNA transports the correct amino acids to the ribosome?
a)
mRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
tRNA
71.
What is a specific sequence of mRNA bases such as CAU, GAU, or AAU?
a)
Codon
b)
Anticodon
c)
Intron
d)
Exon
72.
What process is described by the three steps below?
1. mRNA binds to ribosomes by looking for a start codon. (AUG) 2. As the ribosome moves one codon at a time, tRNA molecules bind to mRNA and allow the ribosome to link amino acids in the correct order. 3. Ribosome reaches a stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) on the mRNA and the completed amino acid chain separates from the ribosomes and folds into its 3D shape to make a protein.
1. mRNA binds to ribosomes by looking for a start codon. (AUG) 2. As the ribosome moves one codon at a time, tRNA molecules bind to mRNA and allow the ribosome to link amino acids in the correct order. 3. Ribosome reaches a stop codon (UAA, UAG, UGA) on the mRNA and the completed amino acid chain separates from the ribosomes and folds into its 3D shape to make a protein.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Gene expression
d)
DNA duplication
73.
What type of mutation via one base can impact every amino acid downstream?
a)
Lethal
b)
Frame-shift
c)
Dominant
d)
Recessive
74.
What process enables organisms to change what genes are expressed in response to internal and external stimuli?
a)
Gene expression
b)
Gene regulation
c)
Gene therapy
d)
Genetic engineering
75.
Convert the following DNA strand into its correct mRNA strand: TACTGATCGACCCCCAGAATGAAAATC
a)
AUGACUACGUGGGGGUAUUACUUUUAG
b)
UACUGAUCGACCCCCAUAAUGAAAAUC
c)
TTTCCCCAAAAGGGGUUUUGGGUUGG
d)
AUGACUACGUCCCGGUAUUACUUUUAG
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