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Anatomy Midterm

Total questions: 138

Worksheet time: 1hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the most basic building block of the human organism?

a)

water

b)

protein

c)

cell

d)

atom

2.

Which structure does not belong with the other three?

a)

mouth

b)

liver

c)

heart

d)

stomach

3.

Which of the following is the most complex?

a)

kidney

b)

nerve cell

c)

muscle tissue

d)

nucleus

4.

What type of tissue is blood classified as?

a)

muscle

b)

nerve

c)

connective

d)

epithelial

5.

What is the primary function of muscle tissue?

a)

to produce body secretions

b)

transportation

c)

to control and coordinate body activities

d)

to produce movement

6.

What type of tissue is classified as either hard or soft?

a)

epithelial

b)

muscle

c)

nervous

d)

connective

7.

What type of tissue transmits messages from the head to the toes?

a)

muscle

b)

nerve

c)

epithelial

d)

connective

8.

Where would you find epithelial tissue?

a)

in the walls of the intestine

b)

lining the inside of the nose

c)

inside of the brain

d)

inside of the long bones

9.

Excessive fluid results in edema. What does inadequate fluid in the tissues result in?

a)

fibrillation

b)

dehydration

c)

irritability

d)

swelling

10.

Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue?

a)

carotid

b)

osseous

c)

squamous

d)

smooth

11.

What does the abbreviation RLQ represent?

a)

right lumbar quadrant

b)

right lower quadrant

c)

radial lateral quadrant

d)

radial lumbar quadrant

12.

In order to see both eyes, you would need to be looking at the

a)

inferior side of the medial plane

b)

inferior side of the transverse plane

c)

anterior side of the frontal plane

d)

caudal side of the frontal plane

13.

An x-ray is labelled as a ventral view of the chest. This means that the x-ray was taken from the

a)

right side of the patient

b)

left side of the patient

c)

back of the patient

d)

front of the patient

14.

If a physician performs a pelvic exam, what organs can be evaluated?

a)

liver and gall bladder

b)

esophagus and stomach

c)

reproductive

d)

respiratory

15.

If you are standing straight with your hands at your sides, where are your arms located in relation to your body?

a)

ventral

b)

lateral

c)

caudal

d)

superior

16.

Jeb has a cramp in the posterior part of his leg. Where is the cramp?

a)

ankle

b)

knee

c)

shin

d)

calf

17.

What cavity would a surgeon enter to repair a mitral valve defect?

a)

dorsal

b)

thoracic

c)

abdominal

d)

pelvic

18.

What structure is proximal to the thigh?

a)

foot

b)

knee

c)

calf

d)

ankle

19.

If a physician writes that his patient has RUQ pain, what might be causing it?

a)

dislocated shoulder

b)

cracked ribs

c)

arthritis in the hip

d)

a head injury

20.

What body parts are distal to the hand?

a)

lungs

b)

ribs

c)

eyes

d)

fingers

21.

Which of the following structures is most medial?

a)

lips

b)

eyes

c)

hips

d)

ears

22.

What body cavity contains the brain and the spinal cord?

a)

ventral

b)

dorsal

c)

spinal

d)

cranial

23.

An autopsy shows the dorsal side of the victim. What could you see in the photograph?

a)

front of the abdomen

b)

knees

c)

kidneys

d)

back of the head

24.

What structures are located anterior to the cranial cavity?

a)

neck muscles

b)

lungs

c)

ears

d)

eyes

25.

If you divided the body with a midsagittal plane and added up the number of eyes, arms, and toes on one side, how many would you have?

a)

5

b)

7

c)

9

d)

12

26.

In veterinary medicine, what structure would be found in the caudal region of a dog?

a)

paws

b)

mouth

c)

tail

d)

head

27.

What body part is inferior to the chest?

a)

hips

b)

heart

c)

neck

d)

head

28.

If the body were cut in a transverse plane, what organ would not be in the same half as the other three?

a)

heart

b)

lungs

c)

bladder

d)

brain

29.

Basal cell and squamous cell are types of

a)

nodules

b)

skin cancer

c)

allergic skin disorders

d)

pustules

30.

Conner has a crust on his knee. What did Conner do two days ago?

a)

was hit in the knee by a baseball bat

b)

fell and skinned his knee

c)

stayed out in the sun too long

d)

wore a friend's gym shorts

31.

Which of the following skin diseases is contagious?

a)

psoriasis

b)

eczema

c)

alopecia

d)

tinea pedis

32.

Your classmate has a patch of red skin that is covered by silvery scales. What is it?

a)

psoriasis

b)

urticaria

c)

alopecia

d)

dermatitis

33.

What skin disorder is most often life threatening?

a)

athlete's foot

b)

eczema

c)

verrucae

d)

melanoma

34.

What skin disorder can be treated with antibiotics?

a)

acne vulgaris

b)

athlete's foot

c)

basal cell carcinoma

d)

scabies

35.

Maddie has macules on her face. The more common term would be

a)

chicken pox

b)

scabs

c)

hives

d)

freckles

36.

What causes the pinkish tint in an albino's skin?

a)

jaundice

b)

blood vessels

c)

carotene

d)

melanin

37.

What layer of the skin contains blood vessels, nerves, and hair follicles?

a)

subcutaneous

b)

hypodermis

c)

epidermis

d)

dermis

38.

You might expect a person's skin to be jaundiced if she has

a)

scabies

b)

ringworm

c)

hepatitis

d)

melanoma

39.

A father describes his newborn as looking like a pumpkin. His baby most likely is

a)

an albino

b)

flushed

c)

jaundiced

d)

cyanotic

40.

When you look at the skin, what layer can you see?

a)

subcutaneous tissue

b)

corium

c)

dermis

d)

epidermis

41.

Which of the following is a permanent disorder of the integumentary system?

a)

athlete's foot

b)

vesicle

c)

alopecia

d)

urticaria

42.

Tarea has always had white spots on her arm. They are most likely caused by

a)

albino disorder

b)

hives

c)

lack of melanin

d)

calcium deficiency

43.

When compared to someone with very light skin, a person with dark skin has more

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Melanocytes

d)

Melanin

44.

Cellulite can be attributed to what layer of the skin?

a)

epidermis

b)

corium

c)

dermis

d)

subcutaneous

45.

How can spending short periods of time in the sun be beneficial?

a)

Toughens the skin to improve its protective function

b)

Improves the circulation to the skin

c)

Improves the skin's elasticity, preventing wrinkles

d)

Helps in the production of Vitamin D

46.

The excretory function of the skin allows the body to eliminate excess

a)

minerals

b)

Vitamin C

c)

water and heat

d)

fat and sugar

47.

Which of the following treatments is effective because of the absorption function of the skin?

a)

heating pad

b)

massage

c)

nicotine patch

d)

defibrillation

48.

A lack of oxygen supply to the skin can cause the skin to become

a)

red

b)

white

c)

cyanotic

d)

jaundiced

49.

Approximately 75% of the time, a first gout attack will affect the

a)

neck

b)

big toe

c)

long bones

d)

wrist

50.

Evan has a greenstick fracture. What can you assume about Evan?

a)

He has an increased chance of infection

b)

He is a child

c)

He was hit in the head

d)

He twisted his leg while sailing

51.

What bone disorder resulting from a loss of calcium and phosphorus is common among the elderly population?

a)

scoliosis

b)

sprain

c)

gout

d)

osteoporosis

52.

Melissa has kyphosis. What part of her vertebral column is out of normal alignment?

a)

cervical

b)

thoracic

c)

lumbar

d)

coccygeal

53.

What disorder is usually treated with physical therapy, traction, and/or surgery?

a)

arthritis

b)

dislocation

c)

herniated disk

d)

osteoporosis

54.

Bursitis usually affects the

a)

feet

b)

joints

c)

neck

d)

long bones

55.

A woman who is 50 years old has started to have mild symptoms of arthritis in her hips. How would her condition be treated?

a)

arthroplasty

b)

aspirin and exercise

c)

bedrest and steroids

d)

immobilization with a splint

56.

Where would you find the metatarsals?

a)

in the elbow

b)

above the knee

c)

in the instep of the foot

d)

at the bottom of the spinal column

57.

What is the function of an osteoblast?

a)

protection

b)

to fight infection

c)

to form new bone tissue

d)

to produce erythrocytes and leukocytes

58.

What skeletal structure is located in the skull?

a)

carpals

b)

diaphysis

c)

epiphysis

d)

sinus

59.

What bone do you have the greatest number of in your body?

a)

cranial

b)

femurs

c)

phalanges

d)

scapulas

60.

What type of joint connects the parietal bones to the temporal bone?

a)

diarthrosis

b)

fontanel

c)

synovial

d)

suture

61.

What two bones articulate with each other?

a)

carpals and humerus

b)

metacarpals and phalanges

c)

patella and ulna

d)

vertebrae and sternum

62.

Where would you find the periosteum?

a)

inside the epiphyses

b)

inside the medullary cavity

c)

outside the bone

d)

outside a fontanel

63.

What does a newborn have that you do not?

a)

foramina

b)

fontanels

c)

sinuses

d)

sutures

64.

The vertebrae are part of the

a)

axial skeleton

b)

appendicular skeleton

c)

pelvic girdle

d)

shoulder girdle

65.

Which of the following bones would most likely contain red marrow?

a)

fibula

b)

metacarpals

c)

patella

d)

sternum

66.

The tibia is an example of a/an

a)

axial bone

b)

flat bone

c)

long bone

d)

short bone

67.

The skeletal system is responsible for the production of

a)

adrenalin

b)

calcium

c)

erythrocytes

d)

Vitamins A and D

68.

The bones function as levers in coordination with what other body system?

a)

circulatory

b)

digestive

c)

integumentary

d)

muscular

69.

What muscle injury is often caused by overstretching a muscle?

a)

atrophy

b)

dislocation

c)

myopathy

d)

strain

70.

What would cause a muscle contraction?

a)

twisting

b)

overuse

c)

pulling

d)

lack of use

71.

What is the correct spelling for the muscles located between the ribs?

a)

intercostals

b)

intercoastals

c)

intracostals

d)

intracoastals

72.

Where is the latissimus dorsi located?

a)

back

b)

leg

c)

neck

d)

shoulder

73.

What disabling muscle disorder usually affects children?

a)

fibromyalgia

b)

strain

c)

muscular dystrophy

d)

myasthenia gravis

74.

What is the recommended treatment for a muscle spasm in the calf?

a)

alternating hot and cold applications

b)

pain medication

c)

physical therapy

d)

stretch the muscle

75.

What muscle is located in the calf?

a)

gastrocnemius

b)

triceps

c)

trapezius

d)

gluteus maximus

76.

Tetanus is caused by

a)

a bacteria

b)

a missing gene

c)

a muscle strain

d)

an autoimmune response

77.

The tough, sheetlike membrane that covers and protects muscle is

a)

a ligament

b)

a tendon

c)

fascia

d)

periosteum

78.

What muscle movement occurs when you move your hand from an open palm to a fist?

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

extension

d)

flexion

79.

When a muscle attaches to a bone, the end that does not move is the

a)

origin

b)

root

c)

tendon

d)

insertion

80.

Of the following, what muscle is superior to the other three?

a)

gastrocnemius

b)

intercostals

c)

sternocleidomastoid

d)

trapezius

81.

Which of the following muscles would do the most work if you ran five miles?

a)

biceps

b)

pectoralis major

c)

quadriceps femoris

d)

sternocleidomastoid

82.

What muscle is located above the waist?

a)

deltoid

b)

gastrocnemius

c)

gluteus maximus

d)

tibialis anterior

83.

Reagan's leg was in a cast for ten weeks. You would expect her leg muscles to experience some degree of

a)

atrophy

b)

circumduction

c)

hypertrophy

d)

rotation

84.

After you swallow food, what kind of muscle moves the food toward your stomach?

a)

cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

skeletal

d)

voluntary

85.

Where would you find a voluntary muscle?

a)

attached to the femur

b)

inside the heart

c)

in the blood vessels

d)

lining the stomach

86.

The walls of the heart are made of

a)

cardiac muscle

b)

coronary muscle

c)

striated muscle

d)

voluntary muscle

87.

Which of the following is one of the properties of muscles?

a)

excitability

b)

feasibility

c)

portability

d)

stability

88.

One of the characteristics of muscles is extensibility. This allows muscles to

a)

contract

b)

consume oxygen

c)

react to an impulse

d)

stretch

89.

What is the usual treatment for occasional bouts of tonsillitis?

a)

tonsillectomy

b)

splenectomy

c)

antibiotics and warm throat irrigations

d)

narcotic pain medication and steroids

90.

Holly is a firefighter who is diagnosed with splenomegaly. Why would her doctor tell Holly she cannot go to work for a month?

a)

She is most likely contagious

b)

Her throat could swell shut and block her airway

c)

If she is bumped in the abdomen, her spleen could rupture

d)

She cannot be exposed to others because she cannot fight infections

91.

What disorder of the lymph system is classified as a malignancy?

a)

adenitis

b)

tonsillitis

c)

splenomegaly

d)

Hodgkin's disease

92.

If Emma does not have a functioning thymus, she might have difficulty

a)

breathing

b)

swallowing

c)

fighting infection

d)

removing wastes from the body

93.

What organ recycles red blood cells?

a)

lingual tonsil

b)

lymph node

c)

spleen

d)

thymus

94.

A lymph node has two important functions. What are they?

a)

lymphocyte production and lymph filtration

b)

lymphocyte production and pumping lymph fluid

c)

pumping lymph fluid and transporting fats

d)

transportation of fats and lymph fluid

95.

Where are the lingual tonsils located?

a)

lips

b)

nose

c)

tongue

d)

voice box

96.

What causes lymph to flow through the lymph vessels?

a)

the heart

b)

peristalsis

c)

contractions of skeletal muscles

d)

wavelike contractions of the muscular lining of the lymph vessels

97.

Where would you find lymph vessels?

a)

throughout the body

b)

in the heart chambers

c)

in tissues that do not have blood vessels

d)

only in organs of the digestive system

98.

What cells are a normal component of both lymph and blood?

a)

erythrocytes

b)

lymphocytes

c)

platelets

d)

thrombocytes

99.

What diagnostic test provides physicians with a direct look at the lining of the respiratory tract?

a)

CPAP

b)

Chest X-ray

c)

Bronchoscopy

d)

Pulmonary Function Tests

100.

What statement is true about lung cancer?

a)

The prognosis is good

b)

It is the leading cause of cancer death in men and women

c)

Treatment includes hormone therapy and blood transfusions

d)

Second hand smoke rarely contributes to the development of lung cancer.

101.

Alex has a chest x_ray that shows she has tubercles in her lungs. What does that mean?

a)

She had tuberculosis in the past but has recovered

b)

She has an active case of tuberculosis and is being treated with antibiotics

c)

She has a history of an infection that is similar to tuberculosis and therefore is immune to TB

d)

She has a dormant form of tuberculosis that could become active if her resistance is lowered

102.

Mrs. Rishel is a heavy smoker with a chronic cough, bluish skin, and a barrel chest. She most likely suffers from

a)

epistaxis

b)

emphysema

c)

pleurisy

d)

tuberculosis

103.

What respiratory disorders are highly contagious?

a)

laryngitis and pleurisy

b)

influenza and URI

c)

sinusitis and epistaxis

d)

emphysema and asthma

104.

What is the best treatment for mild epistaxis caused by a bump on the nose?

a)

cauterize the bleeder

b)

pack the nose with gauze

c)

lay flat on the back, head back, and pack the nose with tissue

d)

compress the nostrils, elevate and tilt the head slightly forward

105.

Most respiratory disorders are caused by

a)

infection

b)

heredity

c)

lack of exercise

d)

poor circulation

106.

Nicole has asthma and uses an inhaler when she starts to wheeze. The purpose of the device is to

a)

dissolve mucus

b)

contract blood vessels

c)

enlarge the bronchioles

d)

liquefy secretions in the lungs

107.

If a person could not produce surfactant, his/her

a)

alveoli would collapse

b)

epiglottis would close

c)

bronchi would collapse

d)

vocal cords would not vibrate

108.

During cellular respiration, what happens to the carbon dioxide?

a)

It leaves the cells and enters the bloodstream

b)

It leaves the bloodstream and enters the alveoli

c)

It leaves the alveoli and enters the bloodstream

d)

It leaves the alveoli and is exhaled from the lungs

109.

In the process of breathing, during what stage does the movement of the diaphragm enlarge the thoracic cavity?

a)

expiration

b)

inspiration

c)

internal respiration

d)

external respiration

110.

What does the pleura allow the lungs to do?

a)

cough

b)

expand during breathing

c)

keep the alveoli distended

d)

trap dust and other particles

111.

Your lungs are divided into lobes. How many lobes do you have?

a)

two

b)

three

c)

four

d)

five

112.

Where in the respiratory tract does the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide take place?

a)

alveoli

b)

bronchi

c)

larynx

d)

trachea

113.

What structure connects the larynx to the bronchi?

a)

pleura

b)

trachea

c)

bronchioles

d)

oropharynx

114.

The nostrils, larynx, and trachea are all made primarily of

a)

bone

b)

muscle

c)

tendons

d)

cartilage

115.

If your epiglottis were to suddenly stop working, what activity could be life threatening?

a)

eating

b)

walking

c)

coughing

d)

breathing

116.

What structure is a passageway for both food and air?

a)

pharynx

b)

larynx

c)

trachea

d)

bronchus

117.

Where are the sinuses located?

a)

inside the nares

b)

in the front lobe of the brain

c)

in the skull surrounding the nasal cavity

d)

under the cheek bones in the subcutaneous tissue

118.

What is the primary function of mucus and cilia in the nostrils?

a)

filtration

b)

respiration

c)

sound production

d)

temperature control

119.

The heart is best described as a

a)

filtration unit

b)

message center

c)

muscular pump

d)

storage chamber

120.

The heart is about the size of a/an

a)

egg

b)

apple

c)

peanut

d)

pumpkin

121.

What would happen if a small hole developed in the septum?

a)

The heart would stop pumping

b)

Blood would not flow into the coronary arteries

c)

The blood from the pulmonary artery would enter the aorta

d)

Blood would move between the right and left sides of the heart.

122.

When blood leaves the left atrium, where does it go next?

a)

aorta

b)

right atrium

c)

left ventricle

d)

pulmonary artery

123.

After blood leaves the right atrium, what valve prevents back flow?

a)

Aortic

b)

Mitral

c)

Tricuspid

d)

Pulmonary

124.

What follows diastole?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

fibrillation

c)

hyperbole

d)

systole

125.

Where does an electrical impulse go after it leaves the Bundle of His?

a)

aorta

b)

AV node

c)

SA node

d)

Purkinje fibers

126.

What type of blood vessel is the MOST muscular and elastic?

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

venule

d)

capillary

127.

In what type of blood vessel does oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange take place?

a)

vein

b)

artery

c)

arteriole

d)

capillary

128.

If a person becomes dehydrated, what would there be less of in the blood?

a)

plasma

b)

platelets

c)

leukocytes

d)

erythrocytes

129.

If a person does not have enough erythrocytes, he/she would have difficulty

a)

carrying oxygen

b)

clotting the blood

c)

fighting infection

d)

transporting antibodies

130.

Neutrophils and lymphocytes are examples of

a)

platelets

b)

leukocytes

c)

erythrocytes

d)

thrombocytes

131.

Anemia could be caused by a lack of

a)

plasma

b)

monocytes

c)

hemoglobin

d)

thrombocytes

132.

A hematologist would most likely treat someone with

a)

hemophilia

b)

an arrythmia

c)

varicose veins

d)

myocardial infarction

133.

Miyouri is diagnosed with an aneurysm. What is wrong with one of her arteries?

a)

it is twisted

b)

it is missing

c)

there is a clot that is stuck

d)

there is a weakness in the wall

134.

Which of the following "cause and effect" statements is true?

a)

Leukemia causes phlebitis

b)

Varicose veins cause an aneurysm

c)

An arrhythmia causes an aneurysm

d)

Arteriosclerosis causes hypertension

135.

Your friend has pain, edema, and redness in the lower leg. What would cause these symptoms?

a)

phlebitis

b)

leukemia

c)

myocardial infarction

d)

congestive heart failure

136.

What circulatory disorder could be diagnosed with an electrocardiogram?

a)

anemia

b)

embolism

c)

fibrillation

d)

hypertension

137.

Which of the following disorders could be treated with chemotherapy, radiation, and/or a bone marrow transplant?

a)

leukemia

b)

hypertension

c)

atherosclerosis

d)

myocardial infarction

138.

Why is a myocardial infarction life threatening?

a)

Because a minor bump or fall could lead to internal bleeding

b)

Because a damaged heart muscle cannot pump blood effectively

c)

Because it inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in body cells

d)

Because swollen veins lose elasticity which decreases blood flow to vital organs.