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Anatomy Final Exam Review

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The study of the function of the body and body parts.

a)

Physiology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Ecology

2.

The study of the structure and the shape of the body.

a)

Physiology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Biology

d)

Homeostasis

3.

The largest organ of the body that produces Vitamin D, cushions deeper tissues, and helps regulate body temperature.

a)

Muscular system

b)

Skeletal system

c)

Integumentary system

d)

Nervous System

4.

Which of the following is the correct sequence, going from simplest to most complex, in the levels of structural organization of the human body?

a)

Organisms, organ system, tissue, organ, chemical, cellular level

b)

Cellular, chemical, organ, tissue, organ system, organism level

c)

Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism level

d)

Chemical, tissue, cellular, organ system, organ, organism level

5.

Hematopoiesis is a function of the:

a)

Muscular system

b)

Integumentary system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Skeletal System

6.

What is the main function of the respiratory system?

a)

Transport oxygen, nutrients, and waste to and from body cells

b)

Supply the body with oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

c)

Hematopoiesis

d)

Break down food and deliver the products to the blood for dispersal

7.

The system that controls and coordinates the body through hormones.

a)

Nervous system

b)

Endocrine system

c)

Respiratory system

d)

Circulatory system

8.

The muscular system includes:

a)

Cardiac, smooth, skeletal muscle

b)

Cardiac and skeletal only

c)

Skeletal muscle only

d)

Smooth and cardiac only

9.

The pancreas is part of which two organ systems?

a)

Digestive and urinary

b)

Reproductive and endocrine

c)

Endocrine and Respiratory

d)

Digestive and endocrine

10.

The elbow is _____to the wrist.

a)

Distal

b)

Proximal

c)

Lateral

d)

Inferior

11.

The sternum is _____ to the heart.

a)

Deep

b)

Medial

c)

Posterior

d)

Anterior

12.

The anterior surface of the elbow.

a)

popliteal

b)

antebrachial

c)

Antecubital

d)

femoral

13.

Which of the following best describes the lower back region?

a)

anterior; thoracic cavity

b)

anterior;sternum

c)

posterior; lumbar region

d)

anterior; lumbar region

14.

If someone injures ACL. What region of the body did the injury occur?

a)

Patellar

b)

Popliteal

c)

Carpal

d)

Gluteal

15.

Which of these regions are associated with the parts of the arm?

a)

Femoral, popliteal, patellar

b)

acromial, sacral, gluteal

c)

nasal, oral, occipital

d)

brachial, antecubital, carpal

16.

Specialized membrane junctions that allow nutrients, ions, electrical impulses to travel from cell to cell.

a)

Desmosomes

b)

inclusions

c)

gap junctions

d)

microvilli

17.

Tissue that covers and lines the body that functions in excretion, absorption, protection, and filtration.

a)

Nervous tissue

b)

Connective tissue

c)

Epithelial tissue

d)

adipose tissue

18.

The epithelial tissue found in areas subject to considerable friction and abuse such as the esophagus is

a)

pseudo-stratified columnar epithelium

b)

Simple squamous epithelium

c)

Stratified squamous epithelium

d)

Simple columnar

19.

This type of epithelial tissue contains goblet cells that secrete mucous which line digestive tract and the nasal cavity.

a)

Simple cuboidal

b)

Stratified Squamous ET

c)

Simple columnar epithelial tissue

d)

Simple squamous

20.

Which description best describes cardiac muscle tissue?

a)

Movement is involuntary and cells possess striations

b)

Single nucleus and spindled shape

c)

Multinucleated and long cylindrical shape

d)

movement is voluntary and cell possess striations

21.

Muscle that lines walls of hollow organs and blood vessels.

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

Smooth muscle

c)

skeletal muscle

d)

epithelial tissue

22.

Tissue that is usually well vascularized , has an extensive extracellular matrix; Function as protection, support, binding tissues together is called

a)

epithelial

b)

connective tissue

c)

muscle tissue

d)

nervous tissue

23.

What are intercalated disc and what type of tissue are they found in?

a)

Desmosomes; smooth muscle

b)

Gap junctions; skeletal muscle

c)

Gap junctions; cardiac muscle

d)

tight junctions; epithelial tissue

24.

A single layer of flattened cells.

a)

Simple squamous

b)

Stratified squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

Stratified squamous

25.

Synovial membranes are found in the :

a)

covering of the heart

b)

joint cavities

c)

lining of the stomach cavitiy

d)

covering of the brain

26.

Skin, hair, nails, sebaceous glands all are a part of the

a)

skeletal system

b)

immune system

c)

Endocrine

d)

Integumentary system

27.

The most abundant type of cartilage in the body.

a)

Fibrocartilage

b)

Hyaline cartilage

c)

Elastic cartilage

d)

Dense fibrous tissue

28.

Which of the following is a vital function of skin?

a)

it aids in desiccation

b)

the cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy

c)

it aids in the transport of materials throughout the body

d)

it converts modified epidermal cholesterol to vitamin d

29.

Although you get wet while swimming, a tough proteins within the skin prevents it from soaking up moisture like a sponge. This substance is

a)

serous fluid

b)

melanin

c)

keratin

d)

carotene

30.

The pigment that is produced in the stratum basal that gives skin and hair color.

a)

serous fluid

b)

mucus

c)

Keratin

d)

Melanin

31.

The epidermis is composed of:

a)

Stratified squamous epithelium

b)

simple columnar epithelium

c)

adipose tissue

d)

Dense fibrous connective tissue

32.

Melanocytes are found in the

a)

Stratum spinosum

b)

stratum lucidium

c)

stratum basale

d)

stratum granulosum

33.

Finger-like projections of the dermis into the epidermis are called

a)

Meissner's corpuscles

b)

Pacinian corpuscles

c)

hair bulbs

d)

Dermal papillae

34.

Oil glands that are found all over the skin except on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

a)

Sebaceous glands

b)

sudoriferous glands

c)

eccrine glands

d)

apocrine glands

35.

Sweat glands that are found only in the axillary regions and gential areas and are not activated until puberty.

a)

sebaceous glands

b)

sudoriferous glands

c)

Apocrine glands

d)

Endocrine glands

36.

Glands that release secretions through ducts.

a)

Endocrine

b)

Exocrine

37.

Touch receptors located at the surface of the skin.

a)

Meissner's corpuscles

b)

Pacinian corpuscles

c)

dermal papillae

d)

hair bulbs

38.

Which of the following is an indication of melanoma?

a)

a pigmented spot with smooth borders

b)

a symmetrical mole

c)

a pigmented spot contains areas of different colors

d)

A spot smaller than a pencil eraser

39.

The most important minerals stored in bones.

a)

Calcium and phosphorus

b)

Calcium and iron

c)

sodium and potassium

d)

calcium and potassium

40.

What type of tissue covers the epiphysis of bones and reduces the friction in joints?

a)

yellow marrow

b)

Articular (hyaline) cartilage

c)

red marrow

d)

Periosteum

41.

The function of yellow marrow in adults .

a)

form blood cells

b)

store calcium salts

c)

store adipose tissue

d)

Cause length wise growth in bones

42.

The presence of an epiphyseal plate indicates that;

a)

A bone is dead

b)

the bone length is no longer increasing

c)

the bone diameter is increasing

d)

the bone length is increasing

43.

Bone cells that respond to parathyroid hormone to destroy bone martix and release calcium into the blood:

a)

Osteoclast

b)

osteoblast

c)

osteocyte

d)

erythrocytes

44.

The axial skeleton includes:

a)

Bones of the limb

b)

Scapula, clavicle, ribs

c)

skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs, coxal bones

d)

skull, vertebral column, sternum, ribs

45.

Which of the following bones is NOT considered part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

Femur

b)

Radius

c)

Metatarsals

d)

Sternum

46.

The small cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called:

a)

lacunae

b)

Volkman's canals

c)

Haversian canal

d)

Trabeculae

47.

Which of the following are the stages of healing of a bone fracture in order?

a)

Hematoma formation, bony callus formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, bone remodeling

b)

Hematoma formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, bony callus formation, bone remodeling.

c)

Bone remodeling, bony callus formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, hematoma formation

d)

none of the above

48.

Compound fracture is best described as:

a)

Bone is broken into many fragments

b)

broken bones are forced into each other

c)

bone is crushed

d)

Broken bone is exposed to the outside

49.

Which two bones constitute the forearm?

a)

radius and humerus

b)

fibula and tibia

c)

radius and ulna

d)

humerus and scapula

50.

Which of the following is correct of the female pelvis when comparing it with the male pelvis?

a)

The pelvic girdle in females is wider and more rounded.

b)

The pelvic girdle in females is more narrow and heavier

c)

There are no differences between a male and female pelvis

d)

The female iliac bones are less flared

51.

Which of these bones is NOT a long bone found in the leg?

a)

femur

b)

fibula

c)

metatarsals

d)

patella

52.

Identify

a)

Epithelial cell

b)

Neuron

c)

Muscle fiber

d)

Osteocyte

53.

Identify

a)

Cardiac muscle

b)

skeletal muscle

c)

Smooth muscle

d)

densce connective tissue

54.

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle is called

a)

sarcolemma

b)

sarcomere

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

myofilament

55.

Which type of muscle tissue responds to the fastest stimulations to contract

a)

cardiac

b)

skeletal

c)

smooth

d)

tendons

56.

Acetylcholine is

a)

a source of energy for a muscle fiber

b)

a neurotransmitter that stimulates other nerves

c)

a neurotransmitter that stimulates skeletal muscle

d)

oxygen binding protein

57.

Neurotransmitters are released upon stimulation from a nerve impulse by the:

a)

myofibrils

b)

motor unit

c)

thick filaments

d)

axons terminals of the motor neuron

58.

An elaborate and specialized network of membranes in skeletal muscle cells that function in calcium storage:

a)

mitochondria

b)

sarcolemma

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

myofibril

59.

Which of these pathways is the fastest way to regenerate atp during muscle activity?

a)

anaerobic glycolysis

b)

Direct phosphorylation of ADP by creatine phosphate

c)

aerobic respiration

d)

oxidative phosphorylation

60.

Which of the following muscle closes the jaw:

a)

zygomaticus

b)

frontalis

c)

buccinator

d)

masseter and temporalis

61.

Which of the muscles is NOT located in the head?

a)

Frontalis

b)

orbicularis oris

c)

sartorious

d)

buccinator

62.

Which of the following is NOT a function of muscular system?

a)

Generate heat

b)

Sense the internal environment

c)

Stabilize joints

d)

Produce movement

63.

The muscle that allows you to wink.

a)

zygomaticus

b)

Orbicularis oris

c)

Orbicularis Oculi

d)

Buccinator

64.

Muscles that form the round part of your shoulder.

a)

Deltoid

b)

Trapezius

c)

Pectoralis major

d)

Rectus abdominous

65.

Superficial muscle of the posterior neck and upper trunk.

a)

Latissimus Dorsi

b)

Plasytma

c)

Trapezius

d)

Erector spinae

66.

Whistling, blowing, and sucking is using which muscle?

a)

zygomaticus

b)

platysma

c)

masseter

d)

buccinator

67.

A muscle that is located on the anterior side of the body.

a)

Transverse abdominus

b)

occipitalis

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

gluteus medius

68.

The muscle that closes, purses and protrudes the lips.

a)

Orbicularis oris

b)

Orbicularis oculi

c)

buccinator

d)

zygomaticus

69.

The term central nervous system refers to the :

a)

Spinal cord and nerves

b)

Brain and spinal cord

c)

Brain, spinal cord, and cranial nerves

d)

Autonomic and peripheral nervous system

70.

Fibers that carry information from the skin, joints, and skeletal muscles to the central nervous system.

a)

motor

b)

visceral sensory

c)

Somatic sensory

d)

parasympathetic

71.

Which of the following is the function of the nervous system?

a)

Monitor the environment

b)

Protect organs

c)

Interpret sensory input

d)

Response to the environment

e)

movement and maintain posture

72.

Neuron processes that normally receive incoming stimuli are called:

a)

axons

b)

dendrites

c)

neurolemmas

d)

schwann cells

73.

Impulse conduction is fastest in neurons that are:

a)

cerebral

b)

unmyelinated

c)

Myelinated

d)

Sensory

74.

The Peripheral Nervous system includes

a)

Brain, spinal cord, cranial nerves

b)

The brain and spinal nerves.

c)

cranial and spinal nerves

d)

Cranial nerves only

75.

An action potential is caused by an influx of these ions into the cell.

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

potassium

d)

magnesium

76.

The gap between two communicating neurons.

a)

Synaptic cleft

b)

cell body

c)

effector

d)

node of Ranvier

77.

The elevated ridges of tissue on the cerebral hemispheres.

a)

tracts

b)

ganglia

c)

sulci

d)

gyri

78.

Shallow grooves of the cerebral hemispheres.

a)

ganglion

b)

gyri

c)

sulci

d)

fissures

79.

Primary motor function is controlled by what part of the brain?

a)

Occipital lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

parietal lobe

d)

Brain stem

80.

If the broca's area of the frontal lope is injured what would the symptoms be?

a)

The inability to vocalize what you want to say.

b)

Loss of balance

c)

Loss of motor control

d)

Nothing would happen

81.

The midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata are housed in the:

a)

diencephalon

b)

hypothalamus

c)

brain stem

d)

Pineal gland

82.

Which lobe contains the primary motor area and enables voluntary control of the skeletal muscle.

a)

temporal lobe

b)

occipital lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Frontal lobe

83.

The pituitary gland is most closely associated with the:

a)

hypothalamus

b)

thalamus

c)

midbrain

d)

medulla oblongata

84.

Control of temperature, endocrine activity, metabolism, and thirst functions associated with the:

a)

medulla oblongata

b)

cerebellum

c)

hypothalamus

d)

thalamus

85.

The vital centers for the control of visceral activities such as heart rate, breathing, blood pressure, swallowing, and vomiting are located in the :

a)

pons

b)

midbrain

c)

Medulla oblongata

d)

cerebrum

86.

Loss of muscle coordination results from damage to the:

a)

cerebellum

b)

hypothalamus

c)

thalamus

d)

midbrain

87.

Most hormones are :

a)

regulated by positive feedback mechanisms

b)

Released upon stimulation by other hormones

c)

controlled by blood levels of ions or nutrients

d)

classified as steroids

88.

An enlargement of the thyroid gland resulting from a deficiency of dietary iodine is called:

a)

cretinism

b)

acromegaly

c)

goiter

d)

exophthalmos

89.

The body's major metabolic hormone is called:

a)

Growth hormone

b)

adrenaline

c)

Thyroid hormone

d)

calcitonin

90.

Which of these hormones regulate calcium levels in the body:

a)

T3 and T4

b)

calcitonin and parathyroid hormone

c)

oxytocin and prolactin

d)

insulin and glucagon

91.

The fight or flight response triggers the release of:

a)

ADH

b)

prolactin

c)

melatonin

d)

epinephrine

92.

Which of the following hormones decreases blood glucose levels:

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Glucagon

c)

Insulin

d)

growth hormone

93.

The hormone that increases blood glucose levels:

a)

epinephrine

b)

glucagon

c)

insulin

d)

growth hormone

94.

When the ventricles contract, the bicupsid valve prevents blood from flowing from the :

a)

left ventricle and pulmonary artery

b)

right atrium and right ventricle

c)

left ventricle to the left atrium

d)

right ventricle and pulmonary trunk

95.

Deoxygenated blood is returned to the right side of the heart by the:

a)

pulmonary veins

b)

aorta

c)

pulmonary trunk

d)

superior and inferior vena cavae

96.

Which of the following blood vessels carries oxygenated blood:

a)

Pulmonary vein

b)

pulmonary artery

c)

inferior vena cava

d)

Superior vena cava

97.

The path of blood flow within the systemic vascular system is:

a)

arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, venules, vein

b)

arterioles, arteries, capillary beds, veins, venules

c)

arteriers, arterioles, capillary beds, vein, venules

d)

arteries, arterioles, capillary beds, veins, venules

98.

Gas exchange occurs in the :

a)

trachea

b)

pharynx

c)

alveoli

d)

nose

99.

Veins:

a)

operate under high pressure

b)

transport oxygen rich blood

c)

Contain valves to prevent back flow of blood

d)

branch into smaller vessels called arterioles

100.

What is the role of mucus in the nasal cavity;

a)

Trap incoming bacteria and foreign debris

b)

act as a resonance chamber for speech

c)

increase air turbulence in the nasal cavity

d)

lighten the skull

101.

The opening between the vocal cords.

a)

thyroid cartilage

b)

trachea

c)

Epiglottis

d)

glottis

102.

The flap of elastic cartilage that protects food from entering the larynx when swallowing is the :

a)

adam's apple

b)

glottis

c)

epiglottis

d)

thyroid cartilage

103.

Protein digestion begins in the

a)

esophagus

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

mouth

104.

Which one of the following is NOT true of the lungs:

a)

the bases of the lungs sit on the diaphragm

b)

Both lungs have two lobes

c)

the left lung has two lobes

d)

the narrower portion of the lungs is called the apex

105.

When oxygen enters the respiratory system, what is the next structure to which it travels immediately upon leaving the trachea:

a)

bronchioles

b)

alveoli

c)

main (primary) bronchi

d)

pleura

106.

Which one of the following represents the correct order through which food passes in alimentary canal:

a)

Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestin

b)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, small intestine, stomach, large intestine

c)

pharynx, mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

d)

mouth, pharynx, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

107.

Which of the following modifications increases surface area in small intestine with finger-like extensions of the mucosa:

a)

circular folds

b)

cilia

c)

vili

d)

sphincters

108.

Which two organs release secretions into the duodenum of the small intestine:

a)

Liver and gallbladder

b)

Liver and pancreas

c)

cecum and appendix

d)

spleen and liver

109.

The primary function of the small intestine is:

a)

vitamin conversion

b)

waste secretion

c)

absorption of water

d)

Absorption of nutrients

110.

The organ responsible for drying out indigestible food residue through water absorption and the elimination of feces is the:

a)

Pancreas

b)

stomach

c)

small intestine

d)

Large intestines

111.

Bile is produced by the

a)

gallbladder

b)

liver

c)

pancreas

d)

small intestine

112.

Bile is stored in the:

a)

spleen

b)

liver

c)

gallbladder

d)

pancreas

113.

Digestion is primarily controlled by the :

a)

somatic nervous system

b)

medulla oblongata

c)

sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

d)

Parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system

114.

Pepsin is necessary for the stomach to break down:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Nucleic acid

c)

Proteins

d)

Starch

115.

Which one of the following is NOT a main role of the liver:

a)

to make cholesterol

b)

to process nutrients during digestion

c)

to add ammonia to the blood

d)

to detoxify drugs and alcohol

116.

Which one of the following is NOT one of the functions of the kidneys:

a)

regulate blood volume

b)

Produce hormones that assist in digestion

c)

convert vitamin D from its inactive to its active form

d)

dispose of metabolic waste products

117.

The kidneys are aided in the excretion of fluids by the :

a)

lungs

b)

skin and hair

c)

lungs and skin

d)

skin

118.

Uric acid, nitrogenous waste product, results from the metabolism of:

a)

creatinine

b)

nucleic acids

c)

proteins

d)

amino acids

119.

The tube connecting the renal hilum of the kidney to the bladder is the:

a)

distal convoluted tubule

b)

collecting duct

c)

ureter

d)

uretha

120.

The bladder is able to expand as urine accumulates within it due to the presence of:

a)

Simple squamous ET

b)

Spincters

c)

Transitional epithelium

d)

pseudostratified epithelium

121.

Urine is transported from the bladder to the outside of the body by the:

a)

Urethra

b)

Ureter

c)

Collecting duct

d)

Trigone

122.

Antidiuretic hormone prevents excessive water loss by promoting water reabsorption in the:

a)

bladder

b)

Collecting duct

c)

glomerulus

d)

Proximal convoluted tubule

123.

Fats and nucleic acids are mostly broken down in the:

a)

stomach

b)

Mouth

c)

Small intestine

d)

Large intestine

124.

Enzymes used by the small intestine are secreted by what organ?

a)

Liver

b)

Pancreas

c)

Gallbladder

d)

Stomach

125.

When food is rushed through the large intestine would result in:

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Constipation

c)

Diverticulitis

d)

blood stool

126.

Which one of the following substances is normally found in urine:

a)

creatinine

b)

hemoglobin

c)

red blood cells

d)

white blood cells

127.

The average adult bladder is moderately full with _____ of urine within it.

a)

1000mL

b)

100mL

c)

1 liter

d)

500mL

128.

A blood pH of 7.4 is considered:

a)

acidic

b)

Normal

c)

basic

d)

acidosis

129.

When carbon dioxide enters the blood from tissue cells, it is converted to _____ for transport within blood plasma.

a)

Ammonia

b)

sodium hydroxide

c)

Bicarbonate ion

d)

urea