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A&P Semester 2 Exam Review

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Where does fertilization normally take place?

a)

cervix

b)

vagina

c)

fallopian tube

d)

ovary

2.

Which of the following is a major role of the placenta?

a)

rebuilds the uterine lining after birth

b)

to protect the fetus from injury

c)

to help facilitate birth

d)

to nourish the developing fetus and allow the fetus to undergo gas exchange

3.

When a woman reaches menopause, which of the following will occur?

a)

ovulation continues and menses cease

b)

ovulation and menses cease entirely

c)

ovulation and menstruation continue

d)

ovulation ceases and menstruation continues

4.

An enlarged prostate would interfere with which of the following functions?

a)

urination

b)

peristalsis

c)

filtration

d)

reabsorption

5.

What is the function of the fallopian tube?

a)

estrogen production

b)

fetal development and nourishment

c)

receive sperm

d)

fertilization site

6.

What is the function of the uterus?

a)

receive sperm

b)

fertilization site

c)

estrogen production

d)

fetal development and nourishment

7.

Which of the following factors can influence prenatal development?

a)

age of the mother

b)

the mother getting a viral STD

c)

the mother doing drugs during pregnancy (including alcohol and tobacco)

d)

all of these

8.

Where are sperm produced in the male??

a)

vas deferens

b)

prostate

c)

testes

d)

urethra

9.

What is the function of the vas deferens?

a)

to make sperm

b)

to move sperm from the epididymis of the testicle to the urethra/penis

c)

to produce seminal fluid that nourishes sperm

d)

to act as a exit point for sperm

10.

What is the function of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?

a)

control the osmotic balance of fluid within the blood

b)

prevent the excretion of glucose

c)

prevent the loss of proteins in the urine

d)

control the production of glucose

11.

Which structure stores urine?

a)

ureter

b)

kidney

c)

urethra

d)

bladder

12.

Which structure filters the blood of wastes?

a)

bladder

b)

ureter

c)

kidney

d)

urethra

13.

What is the function of the renal artery and renal vein in the kidney?

a)

transports urine to the urinary bladder

b)

supplies oxygenated blood to the nephrons of the kidney

c)

removes filtered blood from the kidney

d)

two of these are true

14.

What does letter H indicate?

a)

renal capsule

b)

renal medulla

c)

renal cortex

d)

ureter

15.

If your larynx was removed, what would you not be able to

a)

cough

b)

swallow

c)

speak

d)

respiratory arrest

16.

Which of the following disorders is primarily a result of smoking?

a)

COPD

b)

asthma

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

tuberculosis

17.

As a result of the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contracting, the pressure in the lungs decreases. This results in ___________________.

a)

an increase in residual air

b)

inspiration

c)

expiration

d)

cyanosis

18.

Which numbered structure represents the trachea?

a)

9

b)

8

c)

7

d)

3

19.

Which numbered structure represents the external nares?

a)

7

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

20.

Which numbered structure represents the alveoli which is where gas exchange occurs in the lung?

a)

11

b)

10

c)

5

d)

4

21.

What type of organic compound is digested by the enzyme lipase?

a)

DNA

b)

protein

c)

lipid

d)

polysaccharide

22.

Most chemical digestion is completed by this organ where digested foods are absorbed through its membranes.

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

liver

d)

stomach

23.

Which is a function of the gall bladder?

a)

produces bile

b)

stores and concentrates bile

c)

produces secretin

d)

produces bile

24.

Which of the following is responsible for the emulsification of fats?

a)

bile

b)

bicarbonate

c)

intestinal juice

d)

pancreatic enzymes

25.

Saliva initiates digestion of ______________.

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

vitamins

d)

starches

26.

Which organ is composed of the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

liver

27.

Which organ is responsible for glycogenesis (storing of glucose into glycogen) and glyconeolysis (breakdown of glycogen into glucose) when a person’s blood sugar is low?

a)

liver

b)

pancreas

c)

gall bladder

d)

spleen

28.

Which numbered organ indicates the liver?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

7

29.

Which numbered organ indicates the rectum?

a)

9

b)

10

c)

11

d)

12

30.

Which blood vessel is represented by 1?

a)

superior vena cava

b)

inferior vena cava

c)

pulmonary trunk (arteries)

d)

pulmonary vein

31.

Which number represents the chamber that supplies the systemic (body) circulation with oxygenated blood?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

10

d)

12

32.

Structure 9 represents the ____________________.

a)

coronary artery

b)

pulmonary trunk (arteries)

c)

pulmonary veins

d)

renal vein

33.

Which blood component causes agglutination (clotting) of type A blood when determining a person’s blood type?

a)

anti-A

b)

anti-B

c)

anti-D

d)

anti-O

34.

Which of the following is NOT a major function of the cardiovascular system?

a)

transport of respiratory gases, nutrients, and hormones

b)

regulation of body temperature

c)

disease control

d)

blood cell production

35.

Which of the following lowers blood pressure?

a)

nicotine

b)

adrenaline

c)

caffeine

d)

regular aerobic exercise

36.

Which valve controls the one-way flow of blood between the right atrium and right ventricle?

a)

bicuspid valve

b)

aortic valve

c)

tricuspid valve

d)

pulmonary valve

37.

This is organ is the site of white blood cell production which is important in the immune response and also the site of the destruction of old or damaged red blood cells.

a)

heart

b)

kidney

c)

pancreas

d)

spleen

38.

What is the nonliving, liquid portion of blood called?

a)

lymph

b)

plasma

c)

urine

d)

water

39.

How does the oxygen concentration in the pulmonary artery compare to that in the pulmonary vein?

a)

slightly higher in the pulmonary artery

b)

exactly the same in both vessels

c)

significantly lower in the pulmonary artery

d)

significantly higher in the pulmonary artery

40.

Which protective sac encloses the heart in the thoracic cavity?

a)

endocardium

b)

epicardium

c)

myocardium

d)

pericardium

41.

Which blood type is considered to be the universal donor because they can give their blood to any other blood type because they lack A and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

42.

What major arteries carry blood to the brain?

a)

coronary

b)

carotid

c)

jugular

d)

renal

43.

Which blood cell type is directly involved with the blood clotting process?

a)

plasma

b)

platelets

c)

RBCs

d)

WBCs

44.

What major vessel contains oxygenated blood to the lower portion of the body?

a)

carotid artery

b)

descending aorta

c)

jugular vein

d)

renal vein

45.

Which condition of the circulatory system may weaken the blood vessels and lead to stroke and/or heart disease?

a)

anemia

b)

goiter

c)

hypertension (HBP)

d)

leukemia

46.

What is the period of active contraction of the ventricles called?

a)

diastole

b)

latent

c)

refractory

d)

systole

47.

What muscle makes up the calf?

a)

hamstring

b)

rectus femoris

c)

gastrocnemius

d)

tibialis anterior

48.

What is the primary function of skeletal muscle?

a)

ensuring the operation of the heart

b)

movement of contents through the viscera

c)

production of heat

d)

movement of body extremities and locomotion

49.

Which of the following is the immediate source of energy for muscle contraction?

a)

ADP

b)

ATP

c)

lactic acid

d)

pyruvic acid

50.

Which muscles make up the major muscle mass of the anterior chest?

a)

pectoralis major

b)

trapezius

c)

deltoids

d)

latissimus dorsi

51.

The accumulation of what chemical causes muscle fatigue and muscle soreness?

a)

acetylcholine

b)

ATP

c)

glucose

d)

lactic acid

52.

Which of the following is a congenital muscle destroying disease that affects specific muscle groups?

a)

sprain

b)

spasm

c)

myasthenia gravis

d)

muscular dystrophy

53.

2. During mild exercise, what process provides the richest supply of ATP for muscle contraction?

a)

aerobic respiration

b)

the use of ATP storage in the muscle

c)

anaerobic glycolysis

d)

the use of creatine phosphate

54.

Which muscles are found on the anterior thigh?

a)

biceps brachii

b)

hamstrings

c)

quadriceps group

d)

rectus abdominis

55.

What is the smallest contractile unit in a muscle cell?

a)

belly

b)

myofibril

c)

sarcolemma

d)

sarcomere

56.

What structure connects muscles to bones?

a)

adipose

b)

ligament

c)

perimysium

d)

tendon

57.

Contraction or shortening of a muscle cell comes about because of the interaction between which of the following?

a)

actin and myosin

b)

creatine and troponin

c)

hemoglobin and myosin

d)

myoglobin and ATP

58.

Which of the following terms applies to the muscles that move the bone and provide locomotion?

a)

cardiac

b)

skeletal

c)

smooth

d)

visceral

59.

Which large triangular muscles make up the superior portion of the back and pull the shoulder blades toward the backbone?

a)

external obliques

b)

rectus abdominis

c)

serratus anterior

d)

trapezius

60.

What is acetylcholine?

a)

a component of thick myofilaments

b)

a neurotransmitter

c)

a source of energy for muscle contraction

d)

an ion pump

61.

Where in the brain are balance, equilibrium, posture, and coordination controlled?

a)

cerebellum

b)

cerebrum

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

pons

62.

Which of the following is a function of the spinal cord?

a)

to initiate the impulses for all voluntary muscle action

b)

to act as a reflex center and relay center to and from the brain

c)

to respond to stimuli received from the neck and head area

d)

to respond to sudden emotional or mental input

63.

The midbrain, medulla oblongata, and pons collectively make up which of the following?

a)

brain stem

b)

cerebellum

c)

cerebrum

d)

interbrain

64.

Which of the following is a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

epidural medication

b)

hematopoiesis

c)

shock absorption

d)

transmits impulses

65.

Sodium and potassium ions are necessary for which physiological response to properly occur?

a)

absorption

b)

filtration

c)

a nerve impulse

d)

passive transport

66.

Which of the following is a direct function of the nervous system?

a)

elimination of wastes

b)

to allow the body to respond to specific stimuli

c)

to activate DNA for the production of specific hormones or enzymes

d)

storage of minerals

67.

Which condition develops as a result of too much cerebrospinal fluid being produced or inadequate reabsorption of it? It is also known as “water on the brain”.

a)

Alzheimer’s disease

b)

epilepsy

c)

hydrocephalus

d)

polio

68.

Which portion of the neuron receives stimulation from the environment or another neuron?

a)

axon

b)

dendrite

c)

myelin sheath

d)

cell body

69.

Which of the following structures increases the speed of impulse transmission along an axon?

a)

dura mater

b)

epineurium

c)

myelin sheath

d)

neurilimma

70.

Which of the following make up the central nervous system?

a)

brain and spinal cord

b)

nerves and ganglia

c)

peripheral nerves

d)

tracts and nerves

71.

Which number represents the cerebrum?

a)

1

b)

5

c)

7

d)

9

72.

Which number represents the cerebellum?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

7

d)

9

73.

Which is the collective name for the three protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord?

a)

arachnoid membranes

b)

dura maters

c)

meninges

d)

parietal membranes

74.

The nerve cells and nerve processes responsible for vision are found within which structure?

a)

cornea

b)

lens

c)

pupil

d)

retina

75.

Which of the following are important for color vision under normal light intensity?

a)

cones

b)

ions

c)

retina

d)

rods

76.

Which muscular structure controls the amount of light entering the eye?

a)

iris

b)

oblique muscle

c)

sclera

d)

suspensory muscle

77.

Reflex centers for breathing, heart rate, blood pressure, vomiting, and sneezing are located in which part of the brain?

a)

cerebellum

b)

limbic center

c)

medulla oblongata

d)

occipital

78.

Which number represents the retina?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

9

d)

11

79.

Which number represents the cornea?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

9

d)

11

80.

What gland is responsible for the production of insulin and glucagon?

a)

pancreas

b)

parathyroid

c)

pineal

d)

pituitary

81.

Which hormone is responsible for growth in long bones?

a)

adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

b)

anitdiuretic hormone (ADH)

c)

growth hormone (GH)

d)

leutinizing hormone (LH)

82.

Which of the following is true about endocrine glands?

a)

1.Secretions leave the glands through a duct.

b)

2.They secrete hormones.

c)

3.Their secretions will end up in the blood and can affect many organs.

d)

Both 2. and 3. are correct.

83.

Which hormone is responsible for most of the body’s metabolic activity?

a)

cortisone

b)

iodine

c)

oxytocin

d)

thyroid hormone

84.

What hormone is secreted by the ovaries and is responsible for female secondary sex characteristics?

a)

estrogen

b)

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

c)

follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

d)

progesterone

85.

What endocrine gland functions in immunity is large in infants and children and decreases in size throughout adulthood?

a)

hypothalamus

b)

pineal

c)

pituitary

d)

thymus

86.

Elevated blood glucose levels stimulate release of which hormone?

a)

glucagon

b)

insulin

c)

melatonin

d)

parathyroid hormone (PTH

87.

Which of the following hormones is responsible fro the “fight or flight” response?

a)

androgens

b)

epinephrine

c)

growth hormone (GH)

d)

insulin

88.

Most of the regulatory hormones are secreted by the following gland located in the brain?

a)

adrenal cortex

b)

pancreas

c)

pituitary

d)

thymus

89.

Which gland produces a hormone that causes osteoclasts to break down bone matrix and release calcium ions into the blood?

a)

adrenal

b)

parathyroid

c)

thymus

d)

thyroid

90.

What is the structure identified by #7 and regulates blood sugar?

a)

adrenal gland

b)

pancreas

c)

thymus

d)

thyroid

91.

The thyroid gland is indicated by number ______.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

8

92.

Which type of blood cell is responsible for oxygen transport?

a)

erythrocyte (RBC)

b)

leukocyte (WBC)

c)

plasma

d)

thrombocyte (platelet)

93.

Identify the correct pathway of blood flow through the heart from the time it leaves the vena cava until it is pumped out to all areas of the body.

a)

right atrium, right ventricle, pulmonary artery, lung, pulmonary vein, left atrium, left ventricle, aorta

b)

right ventricle, right atrium, pulmonary artery, lung, pulmonary vein, left ventricle, left atrium, aorta

c)

left ventricle, left atrium, aorta, pulmonary artery, right ventricle, right atrium

d)

left atrium, aorta, left ventricle, pulmonary artery, right atrium, right ventricle

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