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Environmental Science Final Exam Review

Total questions: 99

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are considered part of the environment?

a)

forests

b)

people

c)

buildings

d)

all of these

2.

A person holding a sign during a protest against cutting down trees in a forest would be considered a(n)

a)

enviromentalist

b)

peer reviewer

c)

ecological footprint

d)

environmental scientist

3.

A natural resource that is naturally formed much more slowly than we use it is called

a)

renewable

b)

nonrenewable

c)

sustainable

d)

ecological

4.

Which of the following is an example of a renewable natural resource?

a)

crude oil

b)

coal

c)

wave energy

d)

copper

5.

Which of the following is an example of a nonrenewable natural resource?

a)

wind energy

b)

natural gas

c)

geothermal energy

d)

sunlight

6.

Which of the following is an example of quantitative data?

a)

There are 3 tulips.

b)

The tulips are red.

c)

Tulips are prettier than roses.

d)

Tulips smell nice.

7.

A human-centered view of our relationship with the environment is known as

a)

biocentrism

b)

anthropocentrism

c)

ecocentrism

d)

environmentalism

8.

What term describes a social movement dedicated to protecting the natural world from undesirable changes brought about by human actions?

a)

the environment

b)

environmentalism

c)

ecological footprint

d)

environmental science

9.

Which steps are usually near the beginning of a scientific investigation?

a)

hypothesizing and theorizing

b)

observing and questioning

c)

predicting and modeling

d)

gathering and interpreting data

10.

A set of moral principles or values held by a person or a society is called

a)

ethics

b)

justice

c)

biocentrism

d)

culture

11.

Which of the following gives value to all living things, both human and nonhuman?

a)

biocentrism

b)

ecocentrism

c)

anthropocentrism

d)

environmental justice

12.

Tigers living in warm climates have thinner coats of fur than tigers living in cool climates. This is a result of

a)

genetic diversity

b)

species diversity

c)

ecosystem diversity

d)

general divesity

13.

The easiest component of biodiversity to measure is

a)

ecosystem diversity

b)

species diversity

c)

genetic diversity

d)

ecosystem health

14.

The Sikhote-Alin Mountains, and the Siberian tigers living on them, are separated from other mountain regions in which the tigers could live. The mountains are an example of a(n)

a)

mass extirpation

b)

invasive species

c)

mass extinction

d)

habitat fragment

15.

To manage, protect, and reintroduce threatened and endangered species are the goals of

a)

wildlife corridors

b)

conservation concessions

c)

species survival plan

d)

biodiversity hot spot

16.

A region that includes tigers, eagles, lizards, fish, rabbits, and many other types of organisms would be described as having a high level of

a)

taxonomic diversity

b)

gentic diversity

c)

ecosystem diversity

d)

species diversity

17.

Which is the highest level of biodiversity?

a)

general biodiversity

b)

ecosystem diversity

c)

species diversity

d)

genetic diversity

18.

Which type of organism dwarfs all others in terms of species diversity?

a)

plants

b)

mammals

c)

insects

d)

protists

19.

High levels of biodiversity tend to

a)

have little or no effect on ecosystems

b)

decrease an ecosystem's resistance

c)

make an ecosystem less resilient

d)

increase the stability of an ecosystem

20.

The disappearance of a particular population from a given area, but not of the entire species globally, is called

a)

extirpation

b)

extiction

c)

poaching

d)

fragmentation

21.

A species that is at serious risk of extinction is called

a)

threatened

b)

invasive

c)

endangered

d)

extirpated

22.

By far, the biggest cause of biodiversity loss today is

a)

climate change

b)

over harvesting

c)

habitat change and fragmentation

d)

pollution

23.

There is a plan to establish an 8000-kilometer-long strip of land across eight southeast Asian countries to rejoin fragments of tiger habitat. This is an example of a

a)

wildlife corridor

b)

worldwide biodiversity treaty

c)

conservation concession

d)

captive breeding program

24.

Predator prey relationships are an example of a

a)

system with no feedback

b)

positive feedback loop

c)

negative feedback loop

d)

destabilizing system

25.

Which sphere of Earth is made of all the rock above and below Earth's surface?

a)

lithosphere

b)

geosphere

c)

hydroshere

d)

atomosphere

26.

The lithosphere is carried on a softer, but still firm, layer of rock called the

a)

geosphere

b)

core

c)

crust

d)

asthenosphere

27.

Which sphere are humans a part of?

a)

geosphere

b)

biosphere

c)

hydrosphere

d)

atmosphere

28.

A change in state in which water returns to Earth's surface and changes from a vapor to a liquid is called

a)

condensation

b)

evaporation

c)

transpiration

d)

recharge

29.

Matter that organisms require for their life processes are called

a)

legumes

b)

decomposers

c)

fertilizers

d)

nutrients

30.

What products are created by the process of photosynthesis?

a)

sun's light and energy

b)

oxygen and carbohydrates

c)

phosphorus and nitrogen

d)

carbon dioxide and water

31.

Water molecules are composed of

a)

two oxygen and two hydrogen atoms

b)

one oxygen and two hydrogen atoms

c)

two oxygen and one hydrogen atom

d)

one oxygen and one hydgrogen atom

32.

The thin layer of rock that forms Earth’s outer skin both on dry land and in the ocean is called Earth’s

a)

core

b)

crust

c)

mantle

d)

asthenosphere

33.

Which of Earth’s spheres consists of the layers of gases surrounding our planet?

a)

geosphere

b)

biosphere

c)

atmosphere

d)

hydrosphere

34.

Water which returns from the atmosphere to Earth’s surface as rain or snow is called

a)

evaporation

b)

transpiration

c)

condensation

d)

precipitation

35.

Nutrients circulate endlessly throughout the environment in complex cycles called

a)

eutrophication cycles

b)

respiration cycles

c)

photosynthesis cycles

d)

biogeochemical cycles

36.

What is the term for organisms, including plants and algae, that create their own food?

a)

consumers

b)

producers

c)

legumes

d)

decomposers

37.

In extreme cases, eutrophication can lead to extremely low levels of oxygen in a body of water as decomposers break down all the dead producers, a condition called

a)

hypoxia

b)

nitrogen fixation

c)

respiration

d)

photosynthesis

38.

Renewable resources include soil, fresh water, wild animals, and

a)

minerals

b)

coal

c)

timber

d)

petroleum

39.

Which of the following is an economic value of forests?

a)

provide wood

b)

prevent soil erosion

c)

regulate water cycle

d)

decrease flooding

40.

The clearing of a forest and its replacement by another land use is called

a)

forestry

b)

clear-cutting

c)

timber-harvestin

d)

deforestation

41.

Some tree plantations resemble a natural forest that

a)

has been adaptively managed

b)

contains uneven-aged stands

c)

has never been harvested

d)

has been clear-cut

42.

The removal of snags following a fire is called

a)

monoculture

b)

prescribed burn

c)

sustainable forestry

d)

salvage logging

43.

A renewable resource is harvested sustainably if

a)

the amount of replacement is less than the amount harvested

b)

the amount of replacement is equal to the amount harvested

c)

soil erosion is prevented

d)

replacing trees costs less than harvesting trees

44.

Most of Earth’s fresh water is used for

a)

watering crops

b)

drinking

c)

washing clothes and dishes

d)

recreational purposes such as swimming

45.

One disadvantage of the selection system of timber harvesting is that it

a)

produces even-aged stands

b)

produces a monoculture

c)

causes soil erosion

d)

is more dangerous for loggers

46.

Deforestation is particularly harmful in arid regions because it can lead to

a)

desertification

b)

massive loss of biodiversity

c)

loss of jobs

d)

decrease in greenhouse gases

47.

Which type of forest most likely contains the greatest variety of habitats?

a)

old growth

b)

even-aged stands

c)

plantation

d)

monoculture

48.

If a wood product is certified by the Forest Stewardship Council, it was produced

a)

using sustainable methods

b)

from trees grown on a plantation

c)

from recycled material

d)

because consumers demanded it

49.

What event in the mid-1700s significantly changed human population growth?

a)

industrial revolution

b)

development of agriculture

c)

bubonic plague

d)

human settlement began

50.

Which combination of factors will produce the highest rate of population growth?

a)

high life expectancy and high infant mortality

b)

low life expectancy and low infant mortality

c)

low life expectancy and high infant mortality

d)

high life expectancy and low infant mortality

51.

What happens during the transitional stage of the demographic transition?

a)

birthrates fall

b)

death rates fall

c)

birth rates increase

d)

death rates increase

52.

In which of the following countries would individuals have the largest ecological footprints?

a)

India

b)

China

c)

Canada

d)

Thailand

53.

In recent years, the human population has

a)

increased exponentially

b)

decreased exponentially

c)

decreased slowly

d)

increased slowly

54.

The average number of years an individual is predicted to live is called

a)

carrying capacity

b)

life expectancey

c)

growth rate

d)

demography

55.

The number of organisms that an environment can support is called the

a)

life expectancy

b)

demography

c)

carrying capacity

d)

growth rate

56.

Which area would have the lowest population density?

a)

seacoast in Europe

b)

river in China

c)

tundra in Russia

d)

suburb in the US

57.

The amount of people living in a given area is described as population

a)

morality

b)

expectancy

c)

rate

d)

density

58.

What can be inferred about an area that has an age structure diagram with a pyramid shape?

a)

The population is likely to decrease in the future.

b)

There is a high proportion of older people to younger people.

c)

There is a high population growth rate.

d)

There is a low population growth rate.

59.

The number of males compared to females in a population is the

a)

age structure

b)

sex ratio

c)

total fertility rate

d)

demography

60.

The model used to explain the reason that some industrialized nations have experienced a large change in birthrates and death rates is called the

a)

demographic transition model.

b)

replacement fertility model

c)

Industrial Revolution model

d)

life expectancy model

61.

After a catastrophe, soil formation is the first step in

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

c)

climax community

62.

A rock containing iron turns red as its surface is exposed to air and water over time. This is an example of

a)

physical weathering

b)

chemical weathering

c)

erosion

d)

decomposition

63.

Most of the nutrients in soil come from

a)

chemical weathering

b)

mechanical weathering

c)

erosion

d)

decomposition

64.

A farmer interested in raising healthy crops should look for a

a)

heavy clay soil with a high pH and a dark color.

b)

loamy soil with a low pH and a light color.

c)

loamy, clumpy soil with a neutral pH and a dark color.

d)

sandy soil with a high pH, no clumps, and a light color.

65.

Deterioration of the soil’s fertility and ability to provide ecosystem services is called

a)

erosion

b)

soil degradation

c)

soil pollution

d)

succession

66.

Watering crops by way of human-constructed structures is known as

a)

precipitation

b)

irrigation

c)

salinization

d)

fertilization

67.

As a farmer, you would be most concerned with the quality of the soil in the

a)

O horizon.

b)

A horizon.

c)

E horizon.

d)

R horizon.

68.

A rancher interested in the quality of the soil in her pasture might use which aspect of soil as a quick indicator of the pasture’s overall fertility?

a)

color

b)

texture

c)

pH

d)

structure

69.

In a region with strong winds, flat land, and little natural forest cover, what would you recommend in order to reduce erosion?

a)

terracing

b)

contour farming

c)

crop rotation

d)

shelterbelts

70.

The porous qualities of soil mean that which of the following can filter through the ground and pollute groundwater?

a)

minerals

b)

pesticides

c)

microorganisms

d)

nutrients

71.

A large area of cropland seeded with one crop is a(n)

a)

monoculture

b)

polyculture

c)

organic practice

d)

traditional farming technique

72.

What percentage of the atmosphere is composed of oxygen?

a)

12%

b)

21%

c)

58%

d)

78%

73.

A ratio that compares the amount of water vapor the air contains to the maximum amount that the air could hold at that temperature is

a)

temperature inversion

b)

radiation

c)

relative humidity

d)

convection

74.

Carbon-containing fuels, or fossil fuels, formed millions of years ago from the remains of

a)

gases in the atmosphere

b)

chlorofluorocarbons

c)

living organisms

d)

volcanic eruptions

75.

How does carbon monoxide affect human health?

a)

It interferes with the body’s ability to deliver oxygen to cells.

b)

It irritates the throat and air passages.

c)

It helps the respiratory system function more efficiently.

d)

It depletes ozone, causing greater exposure to the sun’s rays.

76.

A(n) _____ can trap smog close to the surface. It happens when a layer of cool, dense air stays near the ground and under a layer of warm air.

a)

temperature inversion

b)

acid depositin

c)

air mass

d)

convection current

77.

Normal precipitation has a pH of about 5.6. What pH might acid precipitation have?

a)

4.6

b)

7

c)

9.6

d)

12.6

78.

Pollutants are removed or changed chemically before they leave factory smokestacks by a(n)

a)

chlorofluorocarbon

b)

scrubber

c)

inversion

d)

catalytic converter

79.

In which main layer of Earth’s atmosphere does most weather occur?

a)

thermosphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

troposphere

d)

stratosphere

80.

Radiation, conduction, and convection are the three main methods of

a)

calculating relative humidity

b)

modeling climate

c)

measuring air pressure

d)

transferring heat

81.

How does carbon monoxide interfere with your body’s ability to deliver oxygen to cells?

a)

It binds to oxygen and removes it from the respiratory system.

b)

It binds to hemoglobin, thus depriving cells of oxygen.

c)

It causes oxygen to break down in the atmosphere.

d)

It enters cells and forms a barrier to oxygen.

82.

The pH scale is used to measure

a)

amount of smog in a particular region

b)

whether solutions are acidic or alkaline

c)

wind speed

d)

air pressure

83.

A device in a motor vehicle that reduces the amount of air pollutants in emissions is a(n)

a)

catalytic converter

b)

scrubber

c)

shlorofluorocarbon

d)

inversion

84.

What are the two primary methods of waste recovery?

a)

surface impoundment and deep-well infection

b)

incinerating and open-air burning

c)

recycling and composting

d)

sanitary landfills and open dumps

85.

Discarded electronic devices are considered hazardous waste because they

a)

can leach heavy metals

b)

are highly reacitve

c)

are ignitable

d)

cannot be recycled

86.

Which of the following is a source of high-level radioactive waste?

a)

hospitals

b)

nuclear power plants

c)

laboratories

d)

uranium mines

87.

In what category of waste do paint, household cleaners, medical waste, and solvents belong?

a)

hazardous

b)

compost

c)

municipal solid

d)

industrial

88.

Today, waste is buried in the ground or piled up in large, carefully engineered mounds called

a)

incinerators.

b)

material recovery facilities.

c)

sanitary landfills.

d)

surface impoundments.

89.

Items that are biodegradable will

a)

decompose or break down naturally.

b)

not be allowed into an incinerator.

c)

eventually become radioactive waste.

d)

take up more space in a landfill.

90.

The collection of materials that can be broken down and reprocessed to make new items is

a)

composting

b)

incinerating

c)

e-waste

d)

recycling

91.

Only a very small portion of Earth’s water is both liquid and

a)

fresh

b)

salty

c)

frozen

d)

underground

92.

A hole dug into an aquifer to reach groundwater is called a

a)

watershed

b)

well

c)

drainage basin

d)

spring

93.

From greatest to least, rank the primary uses of fresh water around the world.

a)

personal, industry, agriculture

b)

industry, agriculture, personal

c)

agriculture, industry, personal

d)

industry, personal, agriculture

94.

The best way to reduce groundwater pollution is to

a)

increase the use of groundwater mining.

b)

prevent it from happening.

c)

build more desalination plants.

d)

speed up the eutrophication process.

95.

All of the land area that supplies water to a particular river system is included in a(n)

a)

aquifer

b)

water table

c)

watershed

d)

recharge zone

96.

Which major category of water use would include watering grain to feed to livestock?

a)

personal

b)

agricultural

c)

industrial

d)

electrical

97.

Overirrigation can result in

a)

salinization

b)

water diversion

c)

recharge

d)

sediment capture

98.

Which of the following is an example of nonpoint-source pollution?

a)

boat leaking motor oil

b)

pipe releasing hot water

c)

rain washing salt off the road

d)

container leaking chemicals

99.

Leaky underground storage tanks are a major source of what type of pollution?

a)

groundwater

b)

nonpoint-source

c)

biological

d)

sediment