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WorksheetsBiology Final Review (Part 2)
Total questions: 140
Worksheet time: 2hrs 37mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The longest phase of the cell cycle
a)
prophase
b)
interphase
c)
metaphase
d)
mitosis
2.
Identify the phase of mitosis
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
3.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
4.
the phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate (pull apart) from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
5.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
6.
The point on the chromosome where the two chromatids are held together is the
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
7.
The structure of coiled DNA and proteins that forms in the cells nucleus prior to mitosis is
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
8.
Put the stages of mitosis in the correct order.
a)
prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
b)
metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
c)
anaphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase
d)
telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase
9.
Chromosomes are made up of two identical sister _____________.
a)
chloroplasts
b)
nuclei
c)
chromatids
d)
gens
10.
How does cytokinesis differ in plant and animal cells?
a)
Cytokinesis only takes place in animal cells.
b)
Cytokinesis only takes place in plant cells.
c)
Plant cells form a cell plate, animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
d)
Animal cells form a cell plate, plant cells form a cleavage furrow.
11.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
1 cell
b)
2 genetically identical cells
c)
2 genetically different cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
12.
What is the name of the structure labeled X?
a)
Centriole
b)
Centrosome
c)
Chromatid
d)
Chromosome
13.
The cell membrane pinches in, dividing the cytoplasm into 2 cells
a)
Metaphase
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telephase
d)
Cytokinesis
14.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
sex cells
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
15.
A human usually has xx amount of chromosomes.
a)
6
b)
22
c)
4
d)
46
16.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
17.
What phase is shown in the picture?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
anaphase 2
c)
metaphase 1
d)
telophase 1
18.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
19.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
20.
Unlike mitosis, meiosis in male mammals results in the formation of
a)
one haploid gamete
b)
three diploid gametes
c)
four diploid gametes
d)
four haploid gametes
21.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
22.
Diploid Cells are represented by
a)
2n
b)
n
c)
4n
d)
1/2 n
23.
If the Diploid number of Carrots is 18, the haploid number is
a)
18
b)
9
c)
27
d)
36
24.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
25.
If a somatic cell in a butterfly contains 24 chromosomes, a butterfly egg would contain
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
26.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
27.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
28.
Crossing over helps promote
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
29.
What is another reason we need meiosis?
a)
So the offspring has genes from both parents
b)
So the offspring has genes from one parent
c)
So the offspring has genes from neither parents
d)
So the offspring makes its own genes
30.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
31.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
32.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
33.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
34.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
35.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
36.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
37.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
38.
Replicate the following strand of DNA:
AATCATGGA
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
39.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
40.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
41.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
42.
In what phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication take place?
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
M
43.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
44.
What are the four nitrogen bases?
a)
adenine, thymine, guanine, cytosine
b)
adenine, lysine, prolene, guanine
c)
arganine, cytosine, lysine, purine
d)
lysine, cytosine, lucine, guanine
45.
Restriction enzymes are used to ___ DNA.
a)
glue together
b)
cut
c)
reconnect
d)
exchange
46.
mRNA is important, because it __________.
a)
Carries info from genes to ribosomes
b)
Carries amino acids to ribosomes
c)
Helps with RNA splicing
d)
Makes up ribosomes
47.
What is the term for a three nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid? For example: AUG
a)
Nitrogen base
b)
Codon
c)
Amine
d)
Phosphate group
48.
Which process is used to make mRNA from the DNA in the nucleus?
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
replication
49.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription?
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
50.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
51.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
52.
True or false: RNA is double-stranded.
a)
true
b)
false
c)
it depends on the type
53.
A triplet of mRNA is called a
a)
codon
b)
anticodon
c)
amino acid
d)
peptide bond
54.
DNA codes for...
a)
cholesterol
b)
proteins
c)
fatty acids
d)
a sandwich
55.
The codon is located on the
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
56.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
57.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
58.
Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides that transport amino acids to the ribosomes.
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
59.
Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation?
a)
A copy of chromosomal DNA is created
b)
Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein
c)
A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
d)
Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm
60.
The five carbon sugar found in RNA
a)
Ribose
b)
Deoxyribose
c)
Glucose
61.
Use the information provided in the chart below and your knowledge of biology to answer questions which follow. The diagram represents molecular structures involved in protein synthesis.
Molecule 3 is known as ______?
Molecule 3 is known as ______?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
a polypeptide/protein
d)
a fatty acid
62.
Translation is performed by:
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
63.
A mutation which causes a stop codon before the polypeptide is completed
a)
Nonsense
b)
Missense
c)
Silent
64.
A mutation which causes the wrong amino acid to be placed into a polypeptide
a)
Nonsense
b)
Missense
c)
Silent
65.
A mutation which does not cause a change in the amino acid sequence of a polypeptide
a)
Nonsense
b)
Missense
c)
Silent
66.
A mutation which occurs from the addition of a base pair in the DNA sequence
a)
Insertion
b)
Deletion
c)
Substitution
67.
A mutation which occurs from the removal of a base pair in the DNA sequence
a)
Insertion
b)
Deletion
c)
Substitution
68.
Frameshift mutations are caused by:
a)
Insertions & Deletions
b)
Substitutions
69.
A properly folded polypeptide
a)
Polyorigam
b)
Protein
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Polyprotide
70.
The man who studied genetics and came up with genetics is
a)
Watson
b)
Crick
c)
Mendel
d)
Darwin
71.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
72.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
73.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
74.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
75.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
BB
b)
Bb
c)
bb
d)
Blue eyes
76.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
77.
the passing of genetic traits from parent to offspring.
a)
heredity
b)
trait
c)
gene
d)
allele
78.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
79.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
80.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
81.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
82.
Which answer best describes codominant alleles?
a)
Both are equally dominant
b)
Both are equally recessive
c)
Neither are dominant or recessive
83.
This is an example of what?
a)
Complete dominance
b)
Incomplete dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
None of the above
84.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white. What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
85.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
86.
Term for homozygous organisms that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
87.
What is a phenotype?
a)
The expression of a trait; what you see.
b)
refers to the genetic makeup of an individual
c)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (ex. TT or tt)
d)
the passing of traits from parent to offspring
88.
In the following, what % are heterozygous?
a)
25%
b)
100%
c)
0%
d)
50%
89.
If a DNA strand is TAC AGC GAC ACT, what is the PROTEIN?
a)
MET-SER-GLY-TRP
b)
ARG-SER-LEU-STOP
c)
MET-SER-LEU-STOP
d)
IIE-SER-PHE-CYS
90.
If a DNA strand is TAC AGC GAC ACT, what is the mRNA strand?
a)
ATG TCC CTG TGA
b)
UTG TCG GTG UGA
c)
AUG UCG CUG UGA
d)
AUG TCG CTG UGA
91.
The most common mutation is called?
a)
point mutation
b)
insertion
c)
inversion
d)
deletion
92.
The variations we see in living things (organisms) is caused by?
a)
asexual reproduction
b)
our changing environment
c)
sexual reproduction
d)
none of the above
93.
Who is the father of evolution?
a)
Darwin
b)
Mendel
c)
Newton
d)
Einstein
94.
What is another name for natural selection?
a)
survival of the smartest
b)
survival of the fastest
c)
survival of the biggest
d)
survival of the fittest
95.
What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?
a)
homologous
b)
vestigial
c)
variation
d)
adaptation
96.
When all of the organisms of a species have died it is called
a)
evolution
b)
extinction
c)
adaptation
d)
natural selection
97.
What is the study of organisms at the early stages of development?
a)
DNA studies
b)
embryology
c)
extinction
d)
fossil record
98.
What is an organism that has similar characteristics and can reproduce?
a)
species
b)
organism
c)
embryology
d)
vestigial
99.
What is this an example of?
a)
diversity of species
b)
variation
c)
vestigial structures
d)
DNA studies
100.
What is this an example of?
a)
vestigial structures
b)
embryology
c)
homologous structures
d)
fossil record
101.
Which layer is the oldest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
102.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light
b)
dark
103.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
104.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection?
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
105.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
106.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
107.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
108.
The ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment
a)
diversity.
b)
evolution
c)
adaptation
d)
fitness
109.
All rabbits living in a particular area would be an example of a(n)
a)
population
b)
species
c)
fossil
d)
individual organism
110.
a measure of how commonly a particular allele occurs in a population is known as the
a)
gene pool
b)
allele frequency
c)
mutation rate
d)
phenotype
111.
What is speciation?
a)
combining of tow species to form one with different traits
b)
isolation that affects mating behaviors
c)
timing of mating that prevents normal sexual selection
d)
divergence of two or more species from an existing one
112.
An earthquake causes an ocean channel top open and separate an island into two. the species on each section are now in
a)
geographic isoliation
b)
behavioral isolation
c)
disruptive selection
d)
temporal isolation
113.
What kid of isolation occurs when two populations of birds have different courtship dances?
a)
geographic
b)
sexual
c)
temporal
d)
behavioral
114.
two species are in different environments and look very similar. However, that are not closely related (analogous). Their resemblance is most likely an example of.
a)
sexual selection
b)
temporal isolation
c)
convergent evolution
d)
divergent evolution
115.
Other insects cannot, but, a bumble bee has just enough weight to open up the snapdragon flower and pollinate. This adaption is ....
a)
convergent evolution
b)
co-evolution
c)
divergent evolution
d)
speciation
116.
The study of the early stages of development that is one evidence of evolution is:
a)
Homologous Structures
b)
Embryology
c)
Vestigial Organs
117.
Evolutionary Similarities that can be seen in organisms by comparing their DNA is called-
a)
Biochemical Similarities
b)
Embryology
c)
Vestigial Structures
d)
Homologous Structures
118.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to:
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
119.
A well-tested concept that explains a wide range of observations is called a(an):
a)
hypothesis
b)
experiment
c)
cause and effect
d)
scientific theory
120.
Which domain is capable of living in extreme environments like hot springs, geysers, or very salty waters?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Archaea
c)
Eukarya
121.
Which domain includes all animals and plants?
a)
Archaea
b)
Eukarya
c)
Bacteria
122.
Almost all bacteria are...
a)
Unicellular
b)
Multicellular
123.
Which two kingdoms are entirely multicellular?
a)
Animalia and Plantae
b)
Animalia and Protista
c)
Protista and Plantae
124.
Organisms whose cells have NO nucleus are classified as...
a)
Eukaryotic
b)
Prokaryotic
c)
Dead
125.
Algae and Kelp belong to the Kingdom...
a)
Plantae
b)
Protista
c)
Fungi
d)
Eubacteria
126.
Fungi are a type of...
a)
decomposer
b)
producer
127.
What is the genus name here:
Canis lupus
Canis lupus
a)
Canis
b)
lupus
128.
Choose the correct way to write the scientific name for humans:
a)
homo sapiens
b)
Homosapiens
c)
Homo sapiens
d)
Homo Sapiens
129.
All of the following have a nucleus except...
a)
Bacteria
b)
Animalia
c)
Plantae
d)
Protista
130.
What kingdom would this organism be classified as? (Click text to reveal picture)
a)
Protista
b)
Eubacteria
c)
Archaebacteria
d)
Fungi
131.
Who organized living things by creating binomial nomenclature?
a)
Carolus Linnaeus
b)
Robert Hooke
c)
Anton van Leeuwenhoek
d)
James Watson
132.
What are the 8 levels of classification of living things from most general to most specific?
a)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
b)
domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genius, species
c)
domain, kingdom, phamily, class, order, family, genus, species
d)
domain, king, phillip, class, order, family, genus, species
133.
What is the science of organizing, classifying and naming living things.
a)
taxonomy
b)
taxadermy
c)
taxicab
d)
toxicology
134.
Who is the closest relative to the birds?
a)
crocodiles
b)
sharks
c)
fish
d)
amphibians
135.
Who is the closest relative to the sharks?
a)
crocodiles
b)
sharks
c)
ray-finned fish
d)
amphibians
136.
Reasons that viruses are considered to be nonliving is because
a)
They are not cellular
b)
They cannot reproduce on their own
c)
They cannot make proteins
d)
all of the above
137.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need bacteria
d)
They need insulin
138.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
139.
Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
140.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
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