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Worksheets

PBS EOC Review

Total questions: 139

Worksheet time: 1hrs 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The state produced by the establishment of an infective agent in or on a suitable host.

a)

Infection

b)

Microbiology

c)

Transmission

d)

Antibody

2.

Communicable by contact.

a)

Contagious

b)

Infection

c)

Transmission

d)

Aseptic Technique

3.

The way a microbial organism moves from one host to another

a)

Transmission

b)

Contagious

c)

Immunity

d)

Infection

4.

The way a microbial organism moves from one host to another

a)

Transmission

b)

Contagious

c)

Immunity

d)

Infection

5.

A type of lymphocyte responsible for cell-mediated immunity that differentiates under the influence of the thymus.

a)

T Lymphocyte (T Cells)

b)

B Lymphocyte (B Cell)

c)

Antibody

d)

Phagocyte

6.

A spiral-shaped bacterium.

a)

Spirillum

b)

Coccus

c)

Bacillus

d)

Phagocyte

7.

Any protist of the phylum or subkingdom Protozoa.

a)

Protozoan

b)

Spirillum

c)

Virus

d)

Immunity

8.

Any of various infectious proteins that are abnormal forms of normal cellular proteins, that proliferate by inducing the normal protein to convert to the abnormal form, and that in mammals include pathogenic forms.

a)

Prion

b)

Virus

c)

Fungus

d)

Coccus

9.

A cell (as a white blood cell) that engulfs and consumes foreign material (as microorganisms) and debris.

a)

Phagocyte

b)

T Lymphocyte (T Cells)

c)

B Lymphocyte (B Cell)

d)

Virus

10.

A cell (as a white blood cell) that engulfs and consumes foreign material (as microorganisms) and debris.

a)

Phagocyte

b)

T Lymphocyte (T Cells)

c)

B Lymphocyte (B Cell)

d)

Virus

11.

A branch of biology dealing especially with microscopic forms of life (as bacteria, protozoans, viruses, and fungi).

a)

Microbiology

b)

Zoology

c)

Botany

d)

Immunology

12.

The state produced by the establishment of an infective agent in or on a suitable host.

a)

Infection

b)

Microbiology

c)

Transmission

d)

Antibody

13.

A condition of being able to resist a particular disease, especially through preventing development of a pathogenic microorganism or by counteracting the effects of its products.

a)

Immunity

b)

Infection

c)

Microbiology

d)

T Lymphocyte (T Cells)

14.

A parasitic worm (as a tapeworm, liver fluke, ascarid, or leech).

a)

Helminth

b)

Fungus

c)

Bacteria

d)

Protozoan

15.

A method for the differential staining of bacteria that involves fixing the bacterial cells to a slide and staining with crystal violet and iodine, then washing with alcohol, and counterstaining with safranin. Results in gram-positive bacteria retaining the purple dye and gram-negative organisms having it decolorized so that the red counterstain shows up.

a)

Gram Stain

b)

Aseptic Technique

c)

Microbiology

d)

Transmission

16.

Saprophytic and parasitic spore-producing eukaryotic organisms that lack chlorophyll and include molds, rusts, mildews, smuts, mushrooms, and yeasts.

a)

Fungus

b)

Helminth

c)

Prion

d)

Protozoan

17.

A spherical bacterium.

a)

Coccus

b)

Bacillus

c)

Spirillum

d)

Prion

18.

A type of lymphocyte that develops in the bone marrow and later produces antibodies.

a)

B Lymphocyte (B Cell)

b)

T Lymphocyte (T Cells)

c)

Phagocyte

d)

Immunity

19.

Single-celled microorganisms that are often aggregated into colonies or motile by means of flagella, typically live in soil, water, organic matter, or the bodies of plants and animals, are usually autotrophic, saprophytic, or parasitic in nutrition, and are noted for their biochemical effects and pathogenicity.

a)

Bacteria

b)

Fungus

c)

Helminth

d)

Protozoan

20.

A cylindrical or rod-shaped bacterium.

a)

Bacillus

b)

Coccus

c)

Spirillum

d)

Protozoan

21.

A procedure performed under sterile conditions.

a)

Aseptic Technique

b)

Gram Stain

c)

Microbiology

d)

Immunity

22.
An examination of the body after death usually with such dissection as will expose the vital organs for determining the cause of death.
a)
Examination
b)
Autopsy
c)
Manner of death
d)
Disinterment
23.
A physician who performs an autopsy when death may be accidental or violent. He or she may also serve in some jurisdictions as the coroner.
a)
Oncoligist
b)
Coroner
c)
Medical Examiner
d)
Cause of Death
24.
A comprehensive set of standards and practices designed to give patients specific rights regarding their personal health information.
a)
Protected health information(PHI)
b)
Manner of Death
c)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
d)
Cause of death
25.
A collection of components organized to accomplish a specific function or set of functions.
a)
Systemic Cirulation
b)
Autopsy
c)
System
d)
Lymphatic System
26.
A collection of components organized to accomplish a specific function or set of functions.
a)
Systemic Cirulation
b)
Autopsy
c)
System
d)
Lymphatic System
27.
The way to categorize death. The classifications are natural, accident, suicide, homicide, undetermined.
a)
Manner of death
b)
Method of death
c)
Mode of death
d)
Cause of death
28.
The disease or injury that initiated the train of morbid events leading directly to death or the circumstances of the accident or violence that produced the injury.
a)
Cause of death
b)
Manner of death
c)
Method of death
d)
Mechanism of death
29.
The disease or injury that initiated the train of morbid events leading directly to death or the circumstances of the accident or violence that produced the injury.
a)
Cause of death
b)
Manner of death
c)
Method of death
d)
Mechanism of death
30.
Regulates how medical professionals and other people use and disclose certain indivisually identufiable health information. 
a)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
b)
Manner of Death
c)
Protected health information(PHI)
d)
Cause of Death
31.

A measure of cardiac activity usually expressed as the number of beats per minute.

a)

heart rate

b)

Pulse

c)

Carotid pulse

d)

Radial pulse

32.

The rhythmic expansion and recoil of arteries resulting from heart contraction; can be felt from the outside of the body.

a)

Blood pressure

b)

Pulse

c)

Hypertension

d)

systolic pressure

33.

Located by sliding your fingers alongside your jaw bone and down into the depression on the side of your neck.

a)

pacemaker

b)

Heart Rate

c)

Radial pulse

d)

Carotid pulse

34.

This is rhythmic expansion and recoil of arteries resulting from heart contraction, wwhich can be located at the wrist.

a)

Carotid pulse

b)

Radial pulse

c)

diastolic pressure

d)

Bundle branches

35.

Pressure exerted by the blood upon the walls of the blood vessels, especially arteries, usually measured by means of a sphygmomanometer and expressed in millimeters of mercury.

a)

Electrocardiogram

b)

systolic pressure

c)

diastolic pressure

d)

blood pressure

36.

A measurement of heart electrical activity.

a)

Sphygmomanometer

b)

Electrocardiogram

c)

Pacemaker

d)

Purkinje fibers

37.

Blood pressure that remains between heart contractions.

a)

diastolic pressure

b)

systolic pressure

c)

Hypertension

d)

Hypotention

38.

An abnormally high blood pressure.

a)

Hypertension

b)

Heart rate

c)

asystole

d)

Hypotension

39.

An instrument for measuring blood pressure and especially arterial blood pressure.

a)

pacemaker

b)

Sphygmomanometer

c)

Bundle branches

d)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

40.

n acute episode of heart disease marked by death or damage of heart muscle due to insufficient blood supply to the heart muscle.

a)

Carotid pulse

b)

myocardial infarction

c)

Hypertension

d)

heart rate

41.

An electrical device for stimulating or steadying the heartbeat or reestablishing the rhythm of an arrested heart.

a)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

b)

pacemaker

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

d)

Bundle branches

42.

A small mass of tissue that is made up of Purkinje fibers, ganglion cells, and nerve fibers, that is embedded in the musculature of the right atrium, and that originates the impulses stimulating the heartbeat

a)

Bundle branches

b)

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

c)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

d)

Purkinje fibers

43.

A specialized mass of conducting cells located at the atrioventricular junction in the heart.

a)

Bundle branches

b)

Sinoatrial (SA) node

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

d)

Purkinje fibers

44.

An important part of the electrical conduction system of the heart, located at the inferior end of the interatrial septum, to the ventricles of the heart. This is also known as the Bundle of HIS.

a)

Purkinje fibers

b)

Pacemaker

c)

Atrioventricular (AV) node

d)

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

45.

Offshoots of the Bundle of HIS in the heart's ventricle. They play an integral role in the electrical conduction system of the heart.

a)

Sphygmomanometer

b)

Radial pulse

c)

Bundle branches

d)

Atrioventricular (AV) bundle

46.

Unique cardiac end-organ. Further histologic examination reveals that thesefibers are split in ventricles walls.

a)

Pacemaker

b)

Bundle Branches

c)

Purkinje fibers

d)

Electrocardiogram

47.
A test of the body’s ability to metabolize glucose that involves the administration of a measured dose of glucose to the fasting stomach and the determination of blood glucose levels in the blood or urine at intervals thereafter and that is used especially to detect diabetes.
a)
glucose tolerance testing
b)
Gel Electroperesis
48.
A protein hormone secreted by the pancreas that is essential for the metabolism of carbohydrates and the regulation of glucose levels in the blood.
a)
Glucagon
b)
Insulin
49.
Diabetes of a form that usually develops during childhood or adolescence and is characterized by a severe deficiency of insulin, leading to high blood glucose levels.
a)
Type 1 Diabetes
b)
Type 2 Diabetes
50.
Diabetes of a form that develops especially in adults and most often obese individuals and that is characterized by high blood glucose resulting from impaired insulin utilization coupled with the body’s inability to compensate with increased insulin production.
a)
Type 2 Diabetes
b)
Type 1 Diabetes
51.
A product of living cells that circulates in blood and produces a specific, often stimulatory, effect on the activity of cells that are often far from the source of this.
a)
Glucose
b)
Hormone
52.
The maintenance of relatively stable internal physiological conditions (as body temperature or the pH of blood) in higher animals under fluctuating environmental conditions.
a)
Homeostasis
b)
negative feedback
53.
A primary mechanism of homeostasis, whereby a change in a physiological variable that is being monitored triggers a response that counteracts the initial fluctuation.
a)
positive feedback
b)
negative feedback
54.
Feedback that tends to magnify a process or increase its output.
a)
negative feedback
b)
positive feedback
55.
A monomer of carbohydrate, simple sugar.
a)
Glucose
b)
Glucagon
56.
A protein hormone secreted by pancreatic endocrine cells that raises blood glucose levels; an antagonistic hormone to insulin.
a)
Glucagon
b)
Hormone
57.
A double-stranded, helical nucleic acid molecule capable of replicating and determining the inherited structure of a cell’s proteins.
a)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms
b)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
c)
Restriction enzymes
d)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
58.
The building block of a nucleic acid, consisting of a five-carbon sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.
a)
Genotype
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Nucleotide
59.
The nucleotides link together in a series spiraling clockwise around a central axis forming a twisted ladder structure
a)
Genes
b)
double helix
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Genotype
60.
A discrete unit of hereditary information.
a)
Model
b)
Genetic Material
c)
Genes
d)
Guanine
61.
Any of the usually linear bodies in the cell nucleus that contain the genetic material.
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Transfer RNA
d)
Transcription
62.
The separation of nucleic acids or proteins, on the basis of their size and electrical charge, by measuring their rate of movement through an electrical field in a gel.
a)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
b)
Ribonucleic Acid
c)
Guanine
d)
gel electrophoresis
63.
Differences in DNA sequence on homologous chromosomes that can result in different patterns of restriction fragment lengths 
a)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms
b)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
c)
Ribonucleic Acid
d)
Transfer RNA
64.
A degradative enzyme that recognizes specific nucleotide sequences and cuts up DNA.
a)
Genetic Material
b)
Genotype
c)
Restriction enzymes
d)
Ribonucleic Acid
65.
A component of nucleic acids, energy-carrying molecules such as ATP, and certain coenzymes. Chemically, it is a purine base.
a)
Thymine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Guanine
d)
Adenine
66.
A component of nucleic acids that carries hereditary information in DNA and RNA in cells. Chemically, it is a pyrimidine base.
a)
Adenine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Guanine
67.
Molecules responsible for heredity and variation of organisms.
a)
Genes
b)
double helix
c)
Nucleotide
d)
Genetic Material
68.
All or part of the genetic constitution of an individual or group.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Genotype
c)
Model
d)
Translation
69.
A component of nucleic acids that carries hereditary information in DNA and RNA in cells. Chemically, it is a purine base.
a)
Thymine
b)
Adenine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
70.
A simplified version of something complex used, for example, to analyze and solve problems or make predictions.
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
Transfer RNA
c)
Model
d)
Chromosomes
71.
A type of nucleic acid consisting of nucleotide monomers with a ribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and uracil (U); usually single-stranded; functions in protein synthesis and as the genome of some viruses.
a)
Ribonucleic Acid
b)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
c)
Polymerase Chain Reaction
d)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms
72.
A component of nucleic acid that carries hereditary information in DNA in cells. Chemically, it is a pyrimidine base.
a)
Guanine
b)
Cytosine
c)
Thymine
d)
Adenine
73.
An RNA molecule that functions as an interpreter between nucleic acid and protein language by picking up specific amino acids and recognizing the appropriate codons in the mRNA.
a)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid
b)
Transfer RNA
c)
gel electrophoresis
d)
Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphisms
74.
The synthesis of a polypeptide using the genetic information encoded in an mRNA molecule. There is a change of language from nucleotides to amino acids.
a)
Restriction enzymes
b)
Translation
c)
Genetic Material
d)
Transcription
75.
Individuals who are homozygous for the gene controlling hemoglobin S. The disease is characterized by the destruction of red blood cells and by episodic blocking of blood vessels by the adherence of sickle cells to the vascular endothelium.  
a)
Sickle Cell Disease
b)
Transcription
c)
Autosome
d)
Pedigree
76.
The percent of the volume of whole blood that is composed of red blood cells as determined by separation of red blood cells from the plasma usually by centrifugation.
a)
Hematosis
b)
Hematocrit
c)
Hemorrhage
d)
Erythr
77.
Any of the hemoglobin-containing cells that carry oxygen to the tissues and are responsible for the red color of vertebrate blood.
a)
Platelets
b)
White Blood Cell
c)
Thrombocyte
d)
Erythrocyte
78.
Any of the blood cells that are colorless, lack hemoglobin, contain a nucleus, and include the lymphocytes, monocytes, neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
Thrombocytes
c)
Erythrocytes
d)
Leukocytes
79.
A minute colorless anucleate disklike body of mammalian blood that assists in blood clotting by adhering to other platelets and to damaged epithelium.
a)
Thrombocytes
b)
Erythrocytes
c)
Leukocytes
80.
A condition in which the blood is deficient in red blood cells, hemoglobin, or in total volume
a)
anemia
b)
sickle cell
c)
hematocrit
d)
centrifugation
81.
A rare change in the DNA of a gene, ultimately creating genetic diversity.
a)
Codon
b)
Mutated
c)
messenger RNA
d)
Translation
82.
A protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.
a)
Hematocrit
b)
genetic material
c)
Hemoglobin
d)
homologous chromosomes
83.
The building block of a nucleic acid, consisting of a five-carbon sugar covalently bonded to a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.
a)
Genotype
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Nucleotide
84.
The creation of a protein from a DNA template.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
protein synthesis
d)
Mutation
85.
The process of synthesizing mRNA from a DNA template is called:
a)
transcription
b)
translation
c)
transformation
d)
translocation
86.
The synthesis of a polypeptide using the genetic information encoded in an mRNA molecule. There is a change of language from nucleotides to amino acids.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Protein Synthesis
d)
RNA replication
87.
A type of RNA, synthesized from DNA and attached to ribosomes in the cytoplasm; it specifies the primary structure of a protein.
a)
rRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
qRNA
88.
An organic monomer which serves as a building block of proteins.
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Monosaccharide
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Erythrocytes
89.
An RNA molecule that functions as an interpreter between nucleic acid and protein language by picking up specific amino acids and recognizing the appropriate codons in the mRNA.
a)
tRNA
b)
mRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
none of the above
90.
A three-nucleotide sequence of DNA or mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid or termination signal; the basic unit of the genetic code
a)
Codon
b)
Anticodon
c)
Hydrophobic
d)
Protein
91.
A type of nucleic acid consisting of nucleotide monomers with a ribose sugar and the nitrogenous bases adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and uracil (U); usually single-stranded; functions in protein synthesis and as the genome of some viruses.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
ATP
d)
ADP
92.
A cell organelle that functions as the site of protein synthesis in the cytoplasm.
a)
Nucleotides
b)
Ribosome
c)
amino acids
d)
Gene
93.
Having an affinity for water.
a)
Hydrophobic
b)
homologous chromosomes
c)
Hydrophilic
d)
Recessive
94.
Having an aversion to water; tending to coalesce and form droplets in water.
a)
Hydrophilic
b)
Hydrophobic
c)
Mitosis
d)
Meiosis
95.
A rare change in the genetic material, ultimately creating genetic diversity.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Hereditary
d)
Mutation
96.
Any of the usually linear bodies in the cell nucleus that contain the genetic material.
a)
Allele
b)
Gene
c)
Chromosome
d)
Genotype
97.
Molecules responsible for heredity and variation of organisms.
a)
Allele
b)
genetic material
c)
Genotype
d)
Autosomal
98.
A process that takes place in the nucleus of a dividing cell, involves a series of steps, and results in the formation of two new nuclei each having the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
Mutation
d)
Sex Chromosome
99.
The cellular process that results in the number of chromosomes in sex cells being reduced to one half and in which one of each pair of homologous chromosomes passes to each daughter cell.
a)
Meiosis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Mutation
d)
Phenotype
100.
Chromosomes having the same or allelic genes with genetic loci usually arranged in the same order.
a)
Dominant
b)
Leukocytes
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
Thrombocytes
101.
A discrete unit of hereditary information.
a)
Mutation
b)
genetic material
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Gene
102.
The transmission of traits from ancestor to descendant
a)
Mutation
b)
Genotype
c)
Heredity
d)
Allele
103.
Alternative versions of a gene that produce distinguishable phenotypic effects.
a)
Allele
b)
Karyotype
c)
Ribosome
d)
Chromosomes
104.
All or part of the genetic constitution of an individual or group.
a)
Karyotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Genetic material
105.
The physical and physiological traits of an organism that are determined by its genetic makeup.
a)
Phenotype
b)
Genotype
c)
Hereditary
d)
Autosomal
106.
Expressed in a person who has only one copy of the gene associated with the trait.
a)
Karotype
b)
Dominant
c)
Codon
107.
A condition that appears only in individuals who have received two copies of a mutant gene, one copy from each parent.
a)
Recessive Trait
b)
Dominant trait
c)
Genotype
d)
Phenotype
108.
A chromosome that is not directly involved in determining sex, as opposed to a sex chromosome.
a)
Recessive
b)
Autosomal
c)
Dominant
d)
Pedigrees
109.
A display of the chromosome pairs of a cell arranged by size and shape.
a)
Phenotype
b)
Karyotype
c)
Genotype
d)
Hematocrit
110.
A diagram of a family tree showing the occurrence of heritable characters in parents and offspring over multiple generations.
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Pedigree Square
c)
Pedigree
d)
Punnett
111.
A simple graphical way of discovering all of the potential combinations of genotypes of an offspring, given the parents’ genotypes.
a)
Punnett Square
b)
Pedigree
c)
Phenotype
d)
Karyotype
112.
A condition that appears only in individuals who have received two copies of a mutant gene, one copy from each parent.
a)
Recessive Trait
b)
Dominant trait
c)
Genotype
d)
Phenotype
113.

Given the following Bacterial species gram stain results bacterial morphology, which specimen would appear like purple spheres under the microscope?

a)

Micrococcus luteus

b)

Bacillus megaterium

c)

Rhodospirillum rubrum

d)

Escherichia coli

114.

The plasma membrane is shown by number ___ on the diagram

a)

6

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

115.

Malaria and Giardia are just two examples of this pathogen.

a)

Prions

b)

Protozoa

c)

Virus

d)

Helminthes

116.

The flagellum is shown on the diagram by number

a)

5

b)

7

c)

4

d)

6

117.

Which of these PPE is NOT recommended or required when working with bacteria?

a)

gloves

b)

goggles

c)

apron

d)

face mask

118.

This type of pathogen can be treated with antibiotics?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Virus

c)

prion

d)

Protozoa

119.

Gram negative bacteria have a ___ cell wall and turn ___ when gram stained.

a)

thin, purple

b)

thick, pink

c)

thin, pink

d)

thick, purple

120.

Determine if B Cells are an example of a specific or non-specific immunity

a)

Specific

b)

Non-Specfic

121.

The diastolic pressure for a normal young adult would be

a)

120 mm Hg

b)

100 mm Hg

c)

60 mm Hg

d)

80 mm Hg

122.

An artificial pacemaker supplements the actions of

a)

the heart muscle itself

b)

the medulla oblongata

c)

the atrioventricular node

d)

the sinoatrial node

123.

The aorta leaves the

a)

right ventricle

b)

left ventricle

c)

left atrium

d)

right atrium

124.

Cholesterol is believed to be carried by

a)

high density lipoproteins only

b)

low density lipoproteins only

c)

triglycerides

d)

both high density and low density lipoproteins

125.

What occurs during systole?

a)

oxygen rich blood is pumped to the lungs

b)

the heart muscle tissues contract

c)

the atrioventricular valves suddenly open

d)

all of these

126.

The left side of the heart contains __________________ blood and the right side contains __________________ blood.

a)

oxygenated, deoxygenated

b)

deoxygenated, oxygenated

c)

deoxygenated, deoxygenated

d)

oxygenated, oxygenated

127.

The effect of narrowed arteries on a person’s blood flow and blood pressure would be

a)

Increased flow and increased pressure.

b)

Increased flow and decreased pressure

c)

Decreased flow and decreased pressure.

d)

Decreased flow and increased pressure.

128.

Which of the following connections is correct?

a)

QRS = ventricular contraction

b)

T wave = atrial contraction

c)

P wave = ventricular repolarization

d)

P wave = ventricular contraction

129.

These vessels bring oxygenated blood back to the heart from the lungs.

a)

10

b)

3

c)

2

d)

9

130.

The location of the bicuspid valve is shown by ___ on the diagram.

a)

12

b)

6

c)

two dotted lines

d)

13

131.

Erythrocytes are shaped like----------and have no----------- .

a)

donuts, nucleus

b)

runts, chromosomes

c)

donuts, hemoglobin

d)

sickles, ribosomes

132.

Hematocrit is best defined as:

a)

The percent of the volume of whole blood that is composed of red blood cells.

b)

The percent of the volume of whole blood that is composed of oxygen verses carbon dioxide.

c)

The average blood sugar concentrations for the preceding two to three months.

d)

The ratio of blood plasma to red blood cells and white blood cells.

133.

The Purpose of Hemoglobin is:

a)

to carry oxygen to your body's organs and tissues and transport carbon dioxide from your organs and tissues back to your lungs.

b)

to help fight infections by attacking bacteria, viruses, and germs that invade the body.

c)

to prevent bleeding and promote healing.

d)

to transport nutrients, hormones, and proteins to the parts of the body that need it.

134.

Proteins are made in the :

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Cell Nucleus

c)

Golgi Apparatus

d)

Cytoplasm

135.

Copying of genetic information from DNA to RNA called:

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Messenger RNA

d)

Termination sequence

136.

A series of three adjacent bases in an mRNA molecule that codes for a specific amino acid is called a:

a)

codon

b)

anticodon

c)

amino acid

d)

Paired base

137.

Decoding of mRNA into a protein is called :

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

anticodon

d)

complementary

138.

Indicate whether the following molecules are hydrophobic or hydrophilic: Glucose

a)

Hydrophilic

b)

Hydrophobic

139.

The picture below shows red blood cells that are:

a)

all healthy

b)

all sickled

c)

both sickled and healthy

d)

none of the above