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biology semester 2 final

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

organisms, such as plants, that make their own food are called...

a)

autotrophs

b)

heterotrophs

c)

thylakoids

d)

pigments

2.

What are the 3 parts of an ATP molecule

a)

NADH, NADPH, AND FADH2

b)

adenine, thylakoids, stroma

c)

adenine, ribose, phosphate group

d)

stroma, grana, chlorophyll

3.

when is energy released from ATP

a)

ATP is exposed to sunlight

b)

a phosphate group is added

c)

adenine bonds to ribose

d)

a phosphate group is removed

4.

Jan Van Helmont concluded that plants gain most of their mass from...

a)

water

b)

light

c)

the soil

d)

oxygen in the air

5.

Ingenhousz showed that plants produced oxygen when exposed to.....

a)

water

b)

light

c)

burning candle

d)

ATP

6.

a student is collecting the gas given off from the plant in bright sunlight at a temp of 27 C. The gas collected is probably.....

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

water

d)

ATP

7.

plants gather the suns energy with light absorbing molecules called

a)

thylakoids

b)

ATP

c)

glucose

d)

pignments

8.

which region of the visible light spectrum is absorbed well by chlorophyll

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

violet

d)

all of the above

9.

the stroma is the region outside the

a)

chloroplast

b)

thylakoids

c)

plant cells

d)

all of the above

10.

where in the chloroplast is the chlorophyll found

a)

stroma

b)

thylakoid

c)

ATP

d)

glucose

11.

where do light dependant reactions take place

a)

in the stroma

b)

within the thylakoid membranes

c)

in mitokondria

d)

chlorophyll molecules

12.

which step is in the beginning of photosynthesis

a)

pigments in photosystem 1 absorb

b)

high energy electrons move through the electron transport chain

c)

pigments in photosystem 2 absorb

d)

ATP synthase allows H plus ions to join through the thylakoid membrane

13.

choose the correct pathway that represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis

a)

H20 > photosystem 1 > photosystem two

b)

O2 > ADP > Calvin Cycle

c)

Photosystem 1 > Calvin cycle, NADPH

d)

H2O > NADPH > Calvin cycle

14.

the calvin cycle is another name for

a)

light dependant reactions q

b)

light independent reactions

c)

photosynthesis

d)

all of the above

15.

where does the Calvin cycle occur

a)

in the stroma

b)

in the photosystems

c)

in the thylakoid membranes

d)

all of the above

16.

what is the product of the calvin cycle

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

ATP

c)

oxygen gas

d)

high energy sugars

17.

If carbon dioxide is completely removed from a plants environment, what would you expect to happen to the production of the plants high energy sugars

a)

more sugar produced

b)

no change

c)

no sugars produced

d)

Carbon dioxide is completely unrelated

18.

which of the following is not a process of cellular respiration

a)

fermentation

b)

electron transport

c)

glycolysis

d)

krebs cycle

19.

which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration

a)

6CO2+ 6H12O6 -> 6CO2 +6H2O + Energy

b)

6CO2+ 6H12O6 + 6H2O + Energy

c)

6CO2+ 6H12O6 + 6CO2 +6H2O + Energy

d)

6CO2+ 6H12O6 + 6CO2 +6H2O -> Energy

20.

cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down

a)

food molecules

b)

ATP

c)

water

d)

carbon dioxide

21.

what are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration

a)

oxygen and lactic acid

b)

glucose and water

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

carbon dioxide and water

22.

which of these is a product for cellular respiration

a)

gas

b)

water

c)

oxygen

d)

all of the above

23.

which process takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell

a)

glycolysis

b)

krebs

c)

all of the above/ below

d)

electron transport

24.

glycolysis provides a cell with a net gain of

a)

18 atp

b)

2 atp

c)

4 atp

d)

26 ATP

25.

which is NOT a product of glycolysis

a)

Atp

b)

NADH

c)

pyruvic acid

d)

glucoses

26.

which of the following acts as an electron carrier in cellular respiration

a)

NAD plus

b)

Pyruvic acid

c)

ADP

d)

ATP

27.

where does lactic acid fermentation occur

a)

mitochondria

b)

muscle cells

c)

bread dough

d)

anywhere when oxygen is present

28.

select the two main types of fermentation

a)

lactic acid

b)

anaerobic

c)

alcoholic

d)

aerobic

29.

what is one cause of muscle soreness

a)

alcoholic fermentation

b)

lactic acid fermentation

c)

krebs

d)

glycolysis

30.

what happens during lactic acid fermentation

a)

NAD+ is regenerated allowing glycolysis to continue

b)

glucose is split into pyruvic acids

c)

oxygen is released

d)

3 ATP molecules are produced

31.

in the presence of oxygen, glycolysis is followed by..

a)

photosynthesis

b)

krebs

c)

fermentation

d)

all of the above

32.

what is the starting molecule for the krebs cycle

a)

oxygen

b)

pyruvic acid

c)

lactic acid

d)

glucose

33.

what does the Krebs cycle produce

a)

oxygen

b)

lactic acid

c)

electron carriers

d)

glucose

34.

the krebs cycle starts with

a)

lactic acid and yields carbon dioxide

b)

glucose and yields 32 ATP

c)

pyruvic acid and yields lactic acid

d)

pyruvic acid and yields carbon dioxide

35.

which of the following passes high energy electrons into the electron transport chain

a)

NADH and FADH2

b)

ATP AND ADP

c)

CITRIC ACID

d)

ACETYL- COA

36.

EACH PAIR OF HIGH ENERGY ELECTRONS THAT MOVES DOWN THE ELECTRON TRANSPORT CHAIN PROVIDES ENOUGH ENERGY TO...

a)

convert 3 adp molecules to 3 atp

b)

transport water molecules

c)

convert carbon dioxide molecules into water molecules

d)

break down glucose

37.

the energy of electrons passing along the electron transport chain is used to make

a)

atp

b)

lactic acid

c)

ADP

d)

alcohol

38.

breathing heavily after running a race is your body's way of

a)

repaying oxygen debt

b)

restarting cellular respiration

c)

recharging

d)

making more citric acid

39.

when the body needs to exercise for more than 90 seconds it generates ATP by carrying out

a)

cellular respiration

b)

glycolysis

c)

fermentation

d)

all of the above

40.

the energy needed to win a 3 minute foot race is most likely produced by

a)

cellular respiration

b)

lactic acid fermentation

c)

using stored up atp

d)

breaking down fats

41.

which statement mainly explains why even well conditioned athletes have to pace themselves

a)

LACTIC ACID FERMENTATION CAUSES MUSCLE SORENESS

b)

heavy breathing is needed to get rid of lactic acid

c)

cellular respiration releases slower than fermentation does

d)

all of the above

42.

explain how photosynthesis and cellular respiration are opposite processes

a)

photosynthesis releases energy while cellular respiration stores it UP

b)

photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, while cellular respiration puts it back

c)

photosynthesis removes oxygen from the atmosphere, while cellular respiration puts it back

d)

cellular respiration removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, while photosynthesis puts it back

43.

cellular respiration releases energy by breaking down glucose in the presence of carbon dioxide

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

44.

AS A CELL BECOMES LARGER ITS VOLUME INCREASES FASTER THAN ITS SURFACE AREA

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

click all that apply: as a cell grows it

a)

places more demands on dna

b)

it goes through interphase

c)

it has more trouble moving

d)

uses up food and oxygen faster

46.

after cell division each new daughter cell

a)

has a lower surface area/volume ratio than the parent

b)

has a higher surface area/volume ratio than the parent

c)

has the same surface area/volume ratio than the parent

d)

has less dna

47.

when during cell cycle are the chromosomes visible

a)

ALL STAGES

b)

Only during cell divison

c)

during G1 phase

d)

only when being replicated

48.

what occurs during interphase

a)

cell grows

b)

spindle fibers appear

c)

centrioles appear

d)

centromeres divide

49.

what is the role of the spindle during mitosis

a)

duplicates dna

b)

breaks down membrane

c)

helps separate chromosomes

d)

makes the chromosomes visible

50.

what are the 2 main stages or phases in the cell cycle

a)

M and S phase

b)

meiosis and cytokinesis

c)

mitosis and interphase

d)

sythesis and cytokenesis

51.

during normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having 4 chromosomes will produce 2 daughter cells each containing

a)

2 chromosomes

b)

8 chromosomes

c)

16 chromosomes

d)

4 chromosomes

52.

cell grown in a petri dish tends to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish If you removed the middle of the dish the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing, what does this show

a)

when cells come in contact with other cells they stop growing

b)

the controls on a cells growth and division can be turned on and off

c)

cell division can be regulated FROM factors outside

d)

all of the above

53.

cancer is a disorder that causes some cells to lose the ability to control their

a)

Growth rate

b)

surface area

c)

size

d)

spindle fibers

54.

cancer cells form masses of cells called

a)

tumors

b)

cyclins

c)

growth factors

d)

p53

55.

a cell with a defective p53 gene is likely to

a)

divide normally

b)

stop dividing

c)

accumulate chromosomal damage

d)

combat tumors

56.

Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study

a)

flowering

b)

inheritance of traits

c)

gamete formation

d)

cross pollination

57.

offspring that result from crosses between parents with different traits

a)

called hybrids

b)

make up the parental generation

c)

are true breeding

d)

make up f2 generation

58.

Mendel removed the male parts from the flowers of some plants in order to

a)

control crosses

b)

self simulate pollination

c)

prevent cross pollination

d)

prevent hybrids

59.

chemical factors that determine traits

a)

allele

b)

genes

c)

gamete

d)

characters

60.

Mendel concluded that traits are

a)

not inherited by offspring

b)

inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring

c)

determined by dominant factors only

d)

determined by recessive factors only

61.

what does the principle of dominance state

a)

all alleles are dominant

b)

all alleles are recessive

c)

some are recessive while others are dominant

d)

alleles are neither dominant nor recessive

62.

if a pea plant has a recessive allele for green peas it will produce

a)

green peas if it also has a dominant allele for yellow peas

b)

both green and yellow peas

c)

green peas only if their is no dominant yellow peas

63.

t/f Organisms said to have 2 identical alleles for a particular trait are called heterozygous

a)

true

b)

false; homozygous

64.

How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produced by a pea plant whose genotype is RrYY

a)

3

b)

2

c)

6

d)

8

65.

one allele is not completely dominant over another allele

a)

polygenic

b)

multiple alleles

c)

multiple genes

d)

incomplete dominance

66.

a cross between a black chicken (BB) and a white chicken (WW) gets (BBWW) what is this called

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic trait

67.

variation in human skin color is an example of

a)

codominance

b)

polygenic traits

c)

inherited traits

d)

incomplete dominance

68.

the number of Chromosomes in a gamete is usually represented by what symbol

a)

G

b)

N

c)

A

d)

X

69.

if an organisms haploid number is 12 than the diploid number is

a)

12

b)

6

c)

3

d)

4

70.

t/f gametes have 1 allele per gene

a)

true

b)

false 2 per gene

71.

how are gametes produced

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

replication

d)

crossing over

72.

t/f Chromosomes form tetrads during interphase

a)

false: during prophase 1 of mitosis

b)

true

c)

false; during anapahse 2

73.

Unlike mitosis, Meiosis can form

a)

diploid cells

b)

haploid cells

c)

2N daughter cells

d)

body cells

74.

4 types of tissue in the body

a)

epithelial, connective, muscle, nervous

b)

epithelial, arm , muscle, nervous

c)

epithelial, connective, neck, brain

d)

cardiac, connective, muscle, nervous

75.

what type of tissue lines body cavities and covers the body

a)

connective

b)

epithelial

c)

muscle

d)

nervous

76.

what are the 2 types of muscle tissue

a)

cardiac

b)

nervous

c)

muscle

d)

skeletal

77.

(t/f) involuntary control is unconscious control of muscle contractions

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

78.

two types of nervous tissues

a)

GLIA

b)

NEURONS

c)

NEUTRONS

d)

CARDIAC

79.

Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to..

a)

being preserved as fossils

b)

providing humans with food

c)

surviving in the environment they inhabited

d)

swimming from South America to the Galapagos islands

80.

the species finches that Charles Darwin found on the Galapagos Islands displayed different structural adaptations that Darwin noted was the

a)

similarities of birds' enbryos

b)

birds different shaped beaks

c)

length of birds necks

d)

number of eggs in each nest

81.

James Hutton and Charles Lyell's work was important to Darwin because these scientists

a)

explained volcanoes and earthquakes

b)

explained all geological events

c)

suggested that the Earth was old enough for evolution to have occured

d)

refuted the work of Lamarck

82.

Lamarck's theory that evolution includes the concept that the new organ in a species appear in result of

a)

continual increase of population

b)

the actions of organisms as they us or fail to use the body structures

c)

an unchanging local event

d)

the natural variations already present within the populartion

83.

Darwin realized that the economist malthus's theory of population control

a)

could be applied to all living organisms

b)

applied to only humans

c)

only when the population lives in a crouded enviroment

d)

explained the number of deaths

84.

according to Darwin's theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. their survival is due to their...

a)

possession of adaptations developed through use

b)

possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness

c)

lack of competition

d)

choices made by plant and animal breeders

85.

When a farmer breeds only his or her best livestock, the process involved is....

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

artificial variation

d)

survival of the fittest

86.

Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the theory of natural selection

a)

they transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse into offspring

b)

they tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population

c)

they are the ones best adapted to survive in their environment

d)

they will perpetuate unfavorable changes

87.

t/f Darwin's concept of evolution was influenced by a knowledge about the structure of dna

a)

false

b)

True

88.

the same kinds of cells that grow in similar patterns in different but related organisms produce

a)

homologous structures such as wings and arms

b)

the same kind of embryos

c)

natural variations in a population

d)

descent with modification

89.

which concept is NOT included in the modern theory of evolution

a)

decent with modification

b)

natural selection

c)

transmission of acquired characteristics

d)

competing among the members of a population

90.

if an allele makes up 1/4 of a population's alleles for a given trait, it's relative frequency is

a)

100%

b)

25%

c)

75%

d)

4%

91.

a change in a sequence of DNA is called a

a)

recombination

b)

polygenic trait

c)

single gene trait

d)

mutation

92.

what are the 2 main sources of genetic variation

a)

genotypes and phenotypes

b)

gene shuffling and mutations

c)

single- gene traits and polygenic traits

d)

directional selection and disruptive selection

93.

the phenotypes for a typical polygenic trait can often be expressed as

a)

bar graph

b)

bell shaped curve

c)

disruptive selection

d)

genetic shift

94.

in a population of finches in which one group of birds has a short, parrot like beak and another group has a long, narrow beak, what process has occurred

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

stabilizing selection

d)

genetic drift

95.

what proportion of all species that have ever lived become extinct

a)

more than 99%

b)

50%

c)

100%

d)

less than 1%

96.

earths most recent era

a)

paleozoic

b)

mesozoic

c)

cenozoic

d)

precambrian

97.

why did oceans not exist on Earth nearly 4 billion years ago

a)

no water molecules were present

b)

water remained a gas because the earth was hot

c)

water remained as ice because the Earth was evry cold

d)

there was no oxygen in the atmosphere

98.

MIller and Urey's expirements attempted to demonstrate

a)

how the earth was formed

b)

whether DnA or RNA evoloved 1st

c)

whether organic molecules could have formed before life was present

d)

how the deepest part of earth formed

99.

what prevents organic molecules from forming on their own and remaining intact today

a)

earth is too hot

b)

atmosphere oxygen is too reactive

c)

the necessary building blocks no longer exist

d)

no energy sources available

100.

the cambrian explosion resulted in the evolution of the 1st

a)

dinosaurs and mammals

b)

representatives of most animal phyla

c)

bacteria

d)

land animals

101.

the separation of populations by barriers such as rivers, mountains, and bodies of water

a)

temporal

b)

geographical

c)

behavoral

d)

genetic equilibruim

102.

which of the following describes what all members of the population share

a)

they are temporally isolated

b)

they are geographically isolated

c)

members of the same species

d)

they have identical genes

103.

all of the genes of all members of a particular population make up the population's

a)

relative frequency

b)

gene pool

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

104.

t/f) Interbreeding within members of a population has no change on the relative frequencies of alleles in the gene pool

a)

true

b)

false

105.

natural selection acts directly on

a)

alleles

b)

individual organisms

c)

genes

d)

mutations

106.

in genetic drift, allele frequencies change because of

a)

mutations

b)

chance

c)

natural selection

d)

genetic equilibrium

107.

which of the following events do biologist consider a random change

a)

directional selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

genetic drift

d)

speciation

108.

one similarity between natural selection and genetic drift is

a)

that both events are based completely on chance

b)

begin with one or more mutations

c)

involve a change in popilation's alelle frequencies

d)

takes place only in small groups

109.

which of the following is a requirement for genetic equilibrium to be reached

a)

natural selection

b)

mutations

c)

nonrandom racing

d)

no movement in or out of the population

110.

A factor that is required for the formation of new species is

a)

reproduction at different times

b)

geographical barriers

c)

different mating behaviors

d)

reproductive isolation

111.

The branch of biology dealing with the interactions among organisims and between organisms and their environment is called

a)

economy

b)

recycling

c)

ecology

d)

modeling

112.

the combined portions of the Earth is which all living things exist is called the

a)

biome

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

biosphere

113.

plants are

a)

consumers

b)

producers

c)

herbivores

d)

omnivores

114.

(t/f) Sunlight is the original source of almost all the energy in most ecosystems

a)

false

b)

true

115.

what are organisms called that produce its own food supply

a)

autotrophs

b)

hetrotrophs

c)

consumer

d)

producer

116.

what is the term for each step in the transfer of energy in and matter within the food web

a)

energy path

b)

trophic level

c)

food pyramid

d)

food chain

117.

what types of ecosystem shows the amount of living tissue at each Trophic level in an ecosystem

a)

numbers pyramid

b)

an energy pyramid

c)

biomass pyramid

d)

a food pyrmaid

118.

nitrogen fixation is carried out primarily by

a)

humans

b)

plants

c)

bacteria

d)

consumers

119.

t/f Cool air will rise

a)

fale: sink

b)

true

120.

if a wolf pack attacks a moose, what are the wolves in this situation

a)

predators

b)

prey

c)

mutualists

d)

hosts

121.

which of the following is NOT an abiotic factor in the envrionment

a)

plant life

b)

soil type

c)

rainfall

d)

temperature

122.

a series of predictable changes that occur in a community overtime is called

a)

population growth

b)

ecological sucession

c)

climate community

d)

climate change

123.

Pond and lakes are known as

a)

flowing- water wet lands

b)

standing water ecosystems

c)

estuaries

d)

wetlands