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Human Bio Quizizz (Missing Jack)

Total questions: 163

Worksheet time: 2hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

-------- is the pooling of blood in the body.

a)

Rigor Mortis

b)

Livor Mortis

c)

Algor Mortis

2.

Mummification cannot happen naturally, the Egyptians were the only ones to carry it out.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Which is the first stage of human decomposition?

a)

Active Decay

b)

Bloat

c)

Autolysis

d)

Skeletonization

4.

Using -------- we are able to determine cause of death.

a)

Google

b)

Forensic Science

c)

Smells and Appearance

5.

Stage 2 includes the ---------- system because of the bacteria that resides in its organs.

a)

Skeletal

b)

Integumentary

c)

Muscular

d)

Digestive

6.

There (is / is not) a set time frame for when skeletonization occurs.

a)

Is

b)

Is not

7.

What type of bacteria requires no oxygen to survive?

a)

Anerobic

b)

E. Coli

c)

Prokaryotic

d)

Superbug(s)

8.

Autolysis is also known as when the the body ----- ------.

a)

Does digest

b)

Does not digest

c)

Liquefies it's organs

d)

Begin self digestion

9.

Fluids leaking from the body marks the start of Bloat.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

What causes the unpleasant odors people smell during decomposition?

a)

Putrefaction

b)

Postmortem Flatus

c)

Rigor Mutilates

11.

After how many days does Autolysis begin to occur?

a)

8-10 days

b)

1-2 days

c)

3-5 days

d)

15-25 days

12.

What three insects impact stage 1?

a)

Maggots, Flies, Crickets

b)

Beetles, Termites, Ants

c)

Flies, Beetles, Moths

d)

Moths, Bed Bugs, Beetles

13.

Which of the following do Forensic Scientists use to determine when someone dies?

a)

Cause of Death

b)

Manner of Death

c)

Mechanism of Death

d)

All of the Above

14.

During stage 1, what are the only outward indicators of death?

a)

Livor, Rigor, and Algor Mortis

b)

Skin Discoloration and Puffiness around eyes

c)

Bloating and Odour

d)

Temperature

15.

What are the important factors that influence decomposition?

a)

Temperature, Access of insects, and depth of burial

b)

"Chill of Death"

c)

Autolysis, Bloat, Active Decay, Skeletonization

d)

None of the Above

16.

What is located on the distal ends of olfactory dendrites?

a)

axons

b)

taste buds

c)

smell buds

d)

cilia

17.

What is the correct olfactory pathway?

a)

olfactory bulbs, olfactory tracts, memory & emotions, smelling

b)

smelling, olfactory buds, olfactory tracts, memory & emotions

c)

olfactory buds, olfactory tract, fragrance

d)

memory & emotion, scent, buds, olfactory tract

18.

What do gustatory cells respond to

a)

Wind gusts

b)

Chemicals dissolved in mucus

c)

Chemicals dissolved in saliva

d)

Dry chemicals

19.

What are the elevations on the tongue that are associated with taste?

a)

Papillae

b)

Taste buds

c)

Taste pores

d)

Taste hairs

20.

What contain receptors associated with the sense of taste?

a)

Smell buds

b)

Umami

c)

Taste buds

d)

Papillae

21.

Which one of the following is NOT one of the 5 primary tastes?

a)

Sweet

b)

Minty

c)

Salty

d)

Bitter

22.

Approximately how many taste buds are located on the tongue?

a)

5,000

b)

10,000

c)

1,000,000

d)

50,000

23.

Around how many odors are we able to recognize?

a)

25,000

b)

10,000

c)

6,000

d)

2,000

24.

What percentage do olfactory receptors adapt in the first second or so after stimulation.

a)

75%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

90%

25.

How many receptors for smell are there?

a)

10-100 million

b)

50-500 million

c)

20- 200 million

d)

60-300 million

26.

Which chemical stimulates olfactory receptor cells?

a)

mucus

b)

olfactory tracts

c)

odorant molecules

d)

olfactory bulbs

27.

T or F: Smell does NOT affect taste.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

to complete taste profile, which sensors are involved?

a)

Olfactory

b)

Balance

c)

Equilibrium

d)

Proprioceptors

29.

There are four layers of the eyeballs

a)

True

b)

False

30.

The white portion of the eye (In Humans)

a)

Pupil

b)

Sclera

c)

Dyslexia

d)

Retina

31.

Cornea is abnormally curved, causes blurry vision because it is unable to focus.

a)

Temporarily Blind

b)

Blindness

c)

Astigmatism

d)

Eye

32.

What is the innermost layer and most delicate layer of the eyeball where photoreceptors are located?

a)

Sclera

b)

Choroid

c)

Retina

d)

Cornea

33.

What light sensitive cells are stimulated in dim light?

a)

rods

b)

cones

34.

Which one of these is a layer of the eyeball?

a)

Iris

b)

Cornea

c)

Retina

d)

Eyelid

35.

Which nerve transmits information from the eye to the brain?

a)

Optic

b)

Olfactory

c)

Oculomotor

d)

Trigeminal

36.

Which one of these is NOT an accessory structure?

a)

Eyelid

b)

Eyelashes

c)

Eyebrows

d)

Sclera

37.

The sclera and cornea are part of the Fibrous Tunic?

a)

True

b)

False

38.

What is the colored part of our eye called?

a)

Retina

b)

Rod

c)

Color Ring

d)

Iris

39.

Photoreceptors that detect colour are called.

a)

Cones

b)

Rods

40.

Nearsightedness is also known as ....

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Presbyopia

d)

none of the above

41.

What supports the eyeball and provides attachment for muscles?

a)

Cornea

b)

Optic Nerve

c)

Sclera

d)

Lens

42.

Clouding, of the normally clear lens, in the eye.

a)

Alzheimer's disease

b)

Organ procurement

c)

Spina bifida

d)

Cataract

43.

Usually occurs after age 40 -Lens hardens, can’t focus on close objects

a)

Myopia

b)

Hyperopia

c)

Astigmatism

d)

Presbyopia

44.

What is the result of a decline of stem cell production due to aging?

a)

Thinner

b)

Increase in Translucence

c)

Weaker/ Subject to injury and infections

d)

All of the above

45.

What is the result of a decline in the production of melanocyte as the body ages?

a)

Decrease in UV production & in pigment

b)

Increase in UV production & in pigment

c)

There are no melanocytes in old age

46.

What is the result of a decrease in the effectiveness of a person’s sebaceous gland as they age?

a)

Soft, wrinkly skin

b)

Decrease in sweat

c)

Dry, scaly, and itchy skin

d)

Dark spots appear and skin becomes thinner

47.

What causes a person’s skin to become saggy and wrinkly as they age?

a)

Decrease in fat & collagen

b)

Decrease in bone mass & tendon strength

c)

Increase in the stratified squamous epithelial cells

d)

Increase in the buccal pad

48.

What is the result of the fiber network decreasing in size in a person’s skin?

a)

Dermis is thicker and increases in elasticity

b)

Epidermis is thicker and increases in elasticity

c)

Dermis is thinner and less flexible

d)

Epidermis is thinner and less flexible

49.

Which gender has a bigger change in their reproductive system due to aging?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Both

50.

What occurs to a male’s testosterone level as they age?

a)

Libido increases

b)

Testosterone increases

c)

Testosterone decreases

d)

Testosterone is strictly a female hormone

51.

What is the biggest change that a female’s reproductive system undergoes due to age? Example?

a)

The body speeds up cell production; can cause cancer

b)

Females libido increases; higher pregnancy rates

c)

Hormonal changes take place; menopause

d)

A woman's period ends; called menses

52.

What is the most common change that occurs to a person due to their brain aging?

a)

Dementia caused by a lack of cerebrospinal fluid in cranial cavity

b)

Memory loss causing comprehension problems

c)

Problems with the Arbor Vitae leading to poor coordination

d)

Damage to frontal lobe due to daily head movements

53.

What happens do a person’s brain mass as they age?

a)

The brain shrinks and weighs less

b)

The brain grows and is therefore heavier

54.

What happens to a person’s special senses as they age?

a)

Your elders have heightened senses

b)

Your elders might as well be deaf and blind

c)

Your elders special senses decrease

55.

What is the result of a decline in a person’s blood flow to their nerve endings, spinal cord, and brain?

a)

Nerve endings starve and die

b)

Above organs become less receptive and sensations reduce

c)

Above organs adjust to the new blood flow and keep normal homeostasis (nothing changes)

d)

The brain begins to break down in order to keep normal function

56.

What are some sensations reduced by a decline in a person’s blood flow to their nerve endings, spinal cord, and brain?

a)

Pain detection reduced

b)

Temperature detection reduction

c)

Pressure detection reduction

d)

Vibration detection reduction

e)

All of the above

57.

How does Presbycusis(hearing loss) occur?

a)

Break down of the tympanic membrane with age

b)

Damages or death of tiny hair cells in a person’s ear occurs

c)

Over vibration of cochlea damaging the vestibular nerve

d)

All of the above

58.

What are some changes that occur in a person’s eye due to aging?

a)

Cornea sensitivity, pinpoint pupils, and thinning of retina

b)

Vision cloudiness, cornea hardening, and dilated pupils

c)

Retina strain, enlarging of lens, and cornea irritation

d)

Slower pupil reaction, cloudy and discolored lens, and lack of corneal sensitivity

59.

What is the muscular system composed of?

a)

muscles

b)

tendons

c)

blood vessels

d)

muscle fibers

60.

How many muscles does the human body have?

a)

225

b)

650

c)

260

d)

625

61.

What is a large muscle called?

a)

maximus

b)

greatest

c)

large

d)

max

62.

What kind of cells are muscle fibers made of?

a)

cylindrical multinuclear

b)

cylindrical multinucleate

c)

cylindrical multinucleus

d)

cylindrical multinuclei

63.

What is the medium muscle term?

a)

medium

b)

medius

c)

medium

64.

Where does the name of a muscle come from?

a)

anatomical region; shape & size; origin

b)

muscle fiber

65.

What is the term for a small muscle?

a)

minimum

b)

smallimus

c)

minimus/ minor

66.

A sarcomere structure is made up of what two different protein fibers?

a)

small & large

b)

myosin & actin

c)

thick & thin

67.

What is an agonist muscle?

a)

muscles that attach to bone

b)

muscles in a group

c)

muscles that contract while another relaxes

68.

What is an antagonist muscle?

a)

opposite of agony

b)

stretches muscle fibers

c)

opposes the action of another muscle

69.

Why are skeletal muscles dramatically different from other types of muscles in the body?

a)

because they contain bones

b)

because of their specialized functions

c)

because they cause the heart to beat

d)

because they allow blood to pump through the arteries

70.

What do synergist muscles do to aid agonist muscles?

a)

they help stabilize movements and reduce extraneous movements

b)

they help relax them

c)

they cause cramps and allow us to release hormones

d)

they help with exercise

71.

Which protein is NOT part of the thin filament of a sarcomere?

a)

actin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

myosin

d)

troponin

72.

How many filaments are in a sarcomere?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

3

d)

1

73.

What is myosin?

a)

a protein in the thick filament of a sarcomere

b)

a vitamin that helps bone growth

c)

a hormone that is released by the brain telling our muscles to contract

74.

What is the function of the kidneys?

a)

filters blood and urine

b)

stores bile

c)

holds organs in place

d)

holds urine

75.

What are the function of the ureters?

a)

store urine

b)

allow urine out

c)

carry urine from kidney to bladder

d)

regulates acid-base fluids

76.

The bladder's walls expand to store urine.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Sphincter muscles …

a)

filter urine

b)

empty the bladder

c)

regulate urine

d)

keep urine from leaking by closing tightly

78.

The nerves in the bladder alert a person when it's time to urinate.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

Urine is unsterile.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

How much urine can an adult bladder store?

a)

5 cups to 8 hours

b)

2 cups from 2-5 hours

c)

1 cup from 30 min- 1 hour

d)

6 cups from 9-10 hours

81.

What does the Urinary system consist of?

a)

Bladder

b)

Kidneys

c)

Ureter

d)

All of the Above

82.

What are some functions of the Kidneys listed below

a)

Remove liquid waste from the blood in the form of urine

b)

Stable balance of water

c)

Help white blood cell production

d)

All of the above

83.

Does the bladder relax or expand to store the urine?

a)

Relax

b)

Expand

c)

Both

84.

How long can a adult hold urine?

a)

7 hours

b)

3-4 hours

c)

5 hours

d)

2-5 hours

85.

The Urethra allow the urine to pass outside the body?

a)

true

b)

false

86.

Does the sphincter muscle keep urine from leaking by closing tightly around the opening?Or do nothing?

a)

Close tightly

b)

Do nothing

87.

Does the nerve in the bladder alert you when you need to pee, or do nothing.

a)

Alert you

b)

do nothing

88.

Which blood type can be transfused to an individual whose blood type is unknown?

a)

AB-

b)

AB+

c)

O+

d)

O-

89.

Someone with blood type A would have which antibodies?

a)

none

b)

Anti-A

c)

Anti-B

d)

Anti-A and Anti-B

90.

Which blood type would have antigen A+B

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

91.

Who is the Rh test most important to?

a)

Pregnant women

b)

Kids

c)

Dogs

d)

Moms and Dads

92.

Red blood cells that do not contain either A or B antigens on their surface are found in people with which blood types?

a)

O

b)

AB

c)

A

d)

B

93.

How many blood types is there

a)

12

b)

4

c)

8

d)

10

94.

Which blood types have Rh?

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

None

95.

Which blood type can receive any blood type?

a)

A+

b)

B-

c)

O-

d)

AB+

96.

Which blood type can donate to all blood types?

a)

O-

b)

AB-

c)

AB+

d)

B+

97.

Which blood type is the rarest?

a)

O-

b)

A+

c)

B+

d)

AB-

98.

Which blood type is the most common?

a)

B-

b)

O+

c)

AB+

d)

A+

99.

Which is the most common?

a)

Rh+

b)

Rh-

c)

None

d)

They are the same

100.

Blood type AB+ has no antibodies.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Someone with type A can receive blood from someone who is type AB.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Blood type is determined by the antigens.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

What does the cardiovascular system consist of?

a)

heart, blood vessels, and blood

b)

blood

c)

the heart

d)

stomach and brain

104.

What is one of the main functions of the cardiovascular system?

a)

Transport of hormones to cells through out the body and removal of waste

b)

detoxify chemicals

c)

break down nutrients

105.

Which one is not a function of the cardiovascular system

a)

transport oxygen and nutrients to cells

b)

body temperature regulation

c)

make blood

106.

What causes the valves of the heart to open/close?

a)

an electric impulse

b)

pressure

c)

muscle tissue

d)

Pacemaker cells

107.

Cardiac muscle is unique because it an create its own action potential.

a)

true

b)

False

108.

What function of the heart?

a)

pumps blood throughout the body via the circulatory system, supplying oxygen and nutrients to the tissues and removing carbon dioxide and other wastes

b)

produces blood

109.

What is diastole?

a)

the atria contract (atrial systole) and push blood into the ventricles; then, as the atria start to relax, the ventricles contract (ventricular systole) and pump blood out of the heart

b)

phase of the heartbeat when the heart muscle relaxes and allows the chambers to fill with blood.

110.

What does a normal cardiac cycle consist of?

a)

2 atria contracting while 2 ventricles relax, then vice versa.

b)

1 atria contract while the other relaxes

c)

2 ventricle and 1 atria contract, while the other atria relaxes

111.

What is systole?

a)

phase of the heartbeat when the heart muscle contracts and pumps blood from the chambers into the arteries.

b)

the atria and ventricles relax and fill with blood

112.

When the SA node sends action potential to the AV node, it is delayed so that the AV valve can close.

a)

False

b)

True

113.

What can slow down or speed up the pacing of the heart

a)

atrial fibers

b)

neurotransmitters

c)

minerals

114.

When the Ventricles contract

a)

it contracts all at the same time

b)

it contracts from the top to bottom

c)

it contracts from the bottom to the top

d)

it doesn't contract at all

115.

A defibrillator saves a life by

a)

starting the heart up again.

b)

Stopping the heart so the heart becomes in sync once again.

c)

shocking the entire body

116.

How long does the cardiac cycle normally take?

a)

220 milliseconds

b)

1 second

117.

Pacemaker cells are important because they ensure contractions are coordinated

a)

true

b)

false

118.

Pacemaker cells are important because they ensure contractions are coordinated

a)

true

b)

false

119.

The muscular system consists of what three cells?

a)

skeletal

b)

cardiac

c)

smooth

d)

all of the above

120.

What muscular tissue does not contain striations?

a)

cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

skeletal

d)

monocytes

121.

Name two of the function of the muscular system

a)

produce heat

b)

maintain posture

c)

produce movement

d)

transport substances and store them

122.

What connects bone to muscle

a)

tendons

b)

ligaments

123.

Where is smooth tissue located?

a)

blood vessels

b)

stomach

c)

airways

d)

all of the above

124.

Tears in the muscles from exercising is a good thing

a)

true

b)

false

125.

A cramp is a muscle spasm

a)

true

b)

false

126.

What will happen if you stop working out?

a)

your muscles will stay the same

b)

muscles will shrink

c)

muscles will grow

d)

nothing

127.

What happens first during relaxation?

a)

neurotransmitter acetylcholine is broken down

b)

Neurotransmitter acetylcholine is becoming more sturdy

c)

none of the above

128.

What is the recording of a twitch contraction called?

a)

mammogram

b)

myogram

c)

spasm

129.

what muscles do people work out the most?

a)

glutes

b)

upper and lower back

c)

abs and pecks

d)

biceps and triceps

130.

What happens to the body after the first workout?

a)

start to become more alert and energized

b)

heart rate goes up

c)

all of the above

131.

What is the order of a myogram?

a)

latent, contraction, relaxation

b)

relaxation, contraction, latent

c)

contraction, latent, relaxation

d)

contraction, relaxation, latent

132.

Why do the relaxation phase power strokes come to a stop?

a)

The Ca^2+ levels in the sarcoplasm are too low.

b)

The Ca^2+ levels in the sarcoplasm are decreasing to resting level.

c)

The Ca^2+ levels in the sarcoplasm are too high.

d)

none of the above

133.

What happens as the level Ca^2+ decreases?

a)

Tropomyosin slides back over the myosin-binding sites on actin.

b)

The level of tropomyosin decreases

c)

The level of tropomyosin increases

d)

Tropomyosin slides away from the myosin-binding sites on actin.

134.

How many chambers are in the heart?

a)

5

b)

3

c)

4

d)

2

135.

What is the difference between an artery and a vein, if any?

a)

artery takes blood away from the heart, veins bring it back

b)

Veins take blood away from the heart, arteries bring it back

c)

They serve the same purpose

d)

Arteries have valves while veins don't

136.

Through what chamber does blood from the body enter the heart?

a)

The Left Atrium

b)

The Left Ventricle

c)

The Right Ventricle

d)

The Right Atrium

137.

What is the largest artery in the heart?

a)

The Tricuspid Valve

b)

The Pulmonary Artery

c)

The Aorta

d)

The Superior Vena Cava

138.

In what chamber is the Bicuspid Valve located?

a)

Left Atrium

b)

Right Atrium

c)

Left Ventricle

d)

Right Ventricle

139.

Which parts of the heart contain oxygenated blood?

a)

The Right Atrium and Ventricle

b)

The Left Atrium and Ventricle

c)

The Left Atrium and Right Atrium

d)

The Left Ventricle and Right Ventricle

140.

What is the pericardium?

a)

tissue making up the thick muscle layer of the heart

b)

Another name for the SA node

c)

tissue forming the inner layers of the heart

d)

The sac that surrounds the heart

141.

What part of the heart is labeled the letter O?

a)

Aorta

b)

Inferior Vena Cava

c)

Pulmonary Artery

d)

Superior Vena Cava

142.

What part of the heart is labeled J?

a)

The Bicupid Valve

b)

The Tricuspid Valve

c)

The Atrial Valve

d)

The Mitral Valve

143.

What is the purpose of an EKG?

a)

To detect oxygen levels in the blood

b)

To measure blood pressure

c)

To collect info about heart rate and electrical activity

d)

To detect stress in the body

144.

The left atrium receives oxygenated blood from the systemic veins. True or False?

a)

True

b)

False

145.

The heart can continue beating even when it’s disconnected from the body. True or False?

a)

False

b)

True

146.

The movement of blood through the heart and body is called:

a)

Heart pump

b)

Locomotion

c)

Ventriculation

d)

Circulation

147.

What mammals have the biggest hearts?

a)

Humans

b)

Whales

c)

Cows

d)

Elephants

148.

The beating sound your heart makes comes from:

a)

Blood going in the wrong direction

b)

Valves closing

c)

The heart skipping beats

d)

Your ears playing tricks on you

149.

The sense of hearing lets us perceive…

a)

Sound

b)

Flavor

c)

Distance

d)

Images

150.

What is the average frequency that the human ear can hear?

a)

2hz-20hz

b)

20Hz-20KHz

c)

40hz-20khz

d)

15hz-100hz

151.

What is a vibration?

a)

A man

b)

A woman

c)

A noise

d)

An on/off compression

152.

What age does your hearing began to decline?

a)

17

b)

73

c)

65

d)

85

153.

How long does the eardrum take to heal?

a)

1 year

b)

About 3 months

c)

They don't heal

d)

10 years

154.

What part of your ear do people pierce (ear piercing)?

a)

Middle Ear

b)

Auricle (or Pinna)

c)

Outer Ear

d)

Malleus

155.

Which of the following are good ways to take care of your ears?

a)

Wear Earplugs at a loud concert

b)

Don't poke your ears with cotton swabs

c)

Keep the volume quieter

d)

All of the above

156.

What can cause conductive hearing loss? (2)

a)

old age

b)

fluid in the ear

c)

head injury

d)

something blocking the ear canal

157.

What animals can communicate in subsonic tones?

a)

Elephants

b)

Lions

c)

Mole Rats

d)

Dogs

158.

Is Sensorineural Hearing Loss permanent?

a)

Yes

b)

No

159.

What separates the outer ear from the inner ear?

a)

The Cochlea

b)

The Eardrum

c)

The ear wall

d)

Auricle

160.

Is conductive deafness permanent?

a)

Yes

b)

No

161.

All sounds begin with a sound wave _____

a)

Vibration

b)

Ocean wave

c)

Earthquake

d)

Transverse wave

162.

What is the eardrum?

a)

A liquid that helps perceive vibrations

b)

A bone in the ear

c)

A drum in the ear

d)

A membrane that responds to vibrations

163.

The organs involved in hearing are ...

a)

The lungs

b)

The stomach

c)

The ears

d)

The prostate gland