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RMA chapters 21-25

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

the process of removing tissue from a patient for microscopic examination is called

a)

cytology

b)

microbiology

c)

biopsy

d)

histology

2.

the following blood collection tubes contain an anticoagulant except:

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

lavender

d)

red

3.

a urine specimen that is collected at any time of the day is referred to as

a)

clean catch

b)

random

c)

24 hr

d)

postprandial

4.

the clear liquid portion of blood that composes 55% of whole blood is

a)

serum

b)

plasma

c)

hemoglobin

d)

fibrinogen

5.

appropriate locations for collecting capillary blood include the following except

a)

fingertip

b)

earlobe

c)

antecubital space

d)

heel

6.

when multiple tubes of blood are to be drawn, which is drawn first?

a)

tubes with antecubital additives

b)

blood culture tubes

c)

tubes with no additive

d)

tubes with sodium citrate

7.

the specimen used to perform a culture test for the presence of tuberculosis is

a)

sputum

b)

capillary blood

c)

venous blood

d)

swab from the throat

8.

a blood test used to indicate the level of kidney function

a)

sedimentation rate

b)

complete blood count

c)

blood urea nitrogen

d)

human chronic gonadatropin

9.

the solution used to identify fungal infection is

a)

0.9% sodium chloride

b)

sodium citrate

c)

PSA (prostate specific studies)

d)

KOH (potassium hydroxide)

10.

urine test that compares the weight of urine with that of distilled water is

a)

sedimentation rate

b)

clarity

c)

specific gravity

d)

pH

11.

which of the following is proper technique when performing venipuncture

a)

bevel up, needle at 15- 30 degree angle

b)

bevel down, needle at 30 degree angle

c)

bevel up , needle is at 45-60 degree angle

d)

placement of bevel does not matter, needle at 45 degree angle

12.

proper sites for a capillary puncture include the following except

a)

tip of index finger

b)

heel of an infant

c)

earlobe

d)

ring finger

13.

normal range of urine pH is

a)

3.00 to 5.00

b)

5.00 to 8.00

c)

5.00 to 10.00

d)

8.00 to 10.00

14.

what is the normal adult WBC count

a)

1,000 cells/mm3

b)

7,000 cells/mm3

c)

20,000 cells/mm3

d)

50,000 cells/mm3

15.

urine pregnancy test measures

a)

RPR

b)

VDRL

c)

HCG

d)

HDL

16.

which vacuum collection tube is used to collect plasma for coagulation studies

a)

yellow

b)

blue

c)

red

d)

tiger top

17.

term used to describe turbid urine

a)

pale

b)

straw

c)

transparent

d)

turbid

18.

which department of the laboratory performs hemoglobin and hematocrit tests

a)

cytology

b)

bacteriology

c)

immunology

d)

hematology

19.

a hematocrit reading of 40 means that

a)

40% of the total blood volume consists of RBC

b)

60% of the total blood volume consist of RBC

c)

40% of the total blood volume is plasma

d)

60% of the total blood volume is WBC

20.

when whole blood is allowed to clot, the clear portion visible after centrifugation is the

a)

plasma

b)

buffy coat

c)

serum

d)

hemoglobin

21.

which of the following would be considered a normal finding for urine

a)

protein-positive 4+

b)

clarity- cloudy

c)

color-straw

d)

SG- 1.055

22.

parasitology includes the study of

a)

worms

b)

fungi

c)

cells

d)

bacteria

23.

a pt.'s WBC is 15 x 10(3) cells/uL, which is

a)

normal

b)

slightly above normal

c)

slightly below normal

d)

above normal and concerning

e)

below normal and concerning

24.

a normal potassium range is

a)

2% to 6%

b)

2.0 to 6/0 mEq/L

c)

32% to 45%

d)

3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L

25.

heat applied to a large part of the body will cause

a)

vasoconstriction

b)

vasodilation

c)

decreased blood flow to the body part

d)

increased blood pressure

26.

infrared therapy uses heat produced by

a)

electricity

b)

water

c)

chemicals

d)

wave lengths

27.

cryotherapy is a form of treatment that uses

a)

sound waves and microwaves

b)

ice packs and cold packs

c)

paraffin wax

d)

hot compresses and hot water

28.

which of the following is necessary to do when measuring crutches so they fit properly

a)

pt. should be fitted while barefoot

b)

with pt. standing normally, crutch tips should be touching the sides of the shoes

c)

when the hands are resting on the handgrips, elbows should be straight

d)

there should be a gap of 2-3 finger widths between the underarm and top of the crutch

29.

A device used to measure the extent of joint movement is a(n)

a)

Diathermy machine

b)

Passive motion machine

c)

Electrical stimulation device

d)

gonioneter

30.

The realignment of a dislocated finger is an example of which kind of therapy

a)

Immobilization

b)

Manipulation

c)

Traction

d)

Resistance exercise

31.

When the tips of both crutches and one leg are advancing at the same time, it is referred to as a

a)

3 point gait

b)

2 point gait

c)

Swing to gait

d)

Swing through gait

32.

The type of exercise used when the pt. is unable to move the affected body part without help is

a)

Range of motion

b)

Passive exercise

c)

Isometric exercise

d)

Active exercise

33.

Kneading and tapping tissue with the hands is a form of

a)

Manipulation

b)

Traction

c)

range of motion

d)

Massage

34.

when instructing the pt. on the use of a cane, you should tell them to

a)

Use the cane only for stairs

b)

Use the cane on their weaker side

c)

Adjust the cane low enough so that the arm is straightvwhile walking

d)

Go up steps with the stronger limb first

35.

Good body mechanics include the following guidelines except

a)

When lifting, maintain a narrow base with feet together

b)

Carry heavy objects close to your body

c)

Bend from the knees, not your back

d)

Use feet to pivot, not the body

36.

The area of medicine that deals with restoring or improving donation impaired by disease is

a)

Preventative health

b)

Ergonomics

c)

Thermotherapy

d)

Rehabilitative medicine

37.

Cold therapy is frequently applied to

a)

Increase blood flow to the affected area

b)

Promote healing by increasing circulation

c)

Increase nerve sensitivity

d)

Decrease swelling

38.

The use of a whirlpool is an example of

a)

Diathermy

b)

Cryotherapy

c)

Hydrotherapy

d)

Ultrasound therapy

39.

An example of a deep heating agent is

a)

Diathermy

b)

Hydrocollator pack

c)

infrared lamp

d)

Paraffin bath

40.

To evaluate the extent of movement of a pt.’s knee, the following exam would be performed

a)

Isometric exercise

b)

Range of motion

c)

Manipulation

d)

Gait evaluation

41.

The preferred method used in the initial treatment of an injury is

a)

Hot compress

b)

Paraffin

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Ice pack

42.

The type of gait in which the pt. advances the left foot and right crutch and then the right foot and left crutch is a

a)

Swing through gait

b)

2 point gait

c)

3 point gait

d)

4 point gait

43.

Exercises performed by the pt. without assistance are

a)

Active exercises

b)

Passive exercises

c)

Range of motion exercises

d)

Water exercises

44.

Common acts performed during a persons normal day are referred to as

a)

Body mechanics

b)

Activities of daily living

c)

Ergonomics

d)

Isometric

45.

A therapeutic method used to treat jaundice in newborns is

a)

Ultrasound

b)

Infrared

c)

Diathermy

d)

Ultraviolet

46.

Physiatry deals with

a)

Diagnosis and treatment of disease and disability using ohysical means

b)

Prevention and treatment of sports injuries

c)

Prevention of injury and impairment

d)

Diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders

47.

Which of the following treatments used melted wax

a)

Chemical hot packs

b)

Diathermy

c)

Cryotherapy

d)

Paraffin bath

48.

A method of physical therapy used to realign fractures bones is

a)

Electrical stimulation

b)

Massage

c)

passive exercise

d)

Traction

49.

the purpose of heat therapy includes the following except

a)

Relieve muscle pain

b)

Decrease bleeding and hemorrhage

c)

Relive pain

d)

Increase blood flow to the body part

50.

The two bones of the lower leg are the

a)

Ulna and tibia

b)

Femur and radius

c)

Femur and ulna

d)

Tibia and fibula

51.

The process of taking nutrients into the body is called

a)

Ingestion

b)

Digestion

c)

Absorption

d)

Metabolism

52.

The cholesterol considered to be the good type is

a)

Triglycerides

b)

High density lipoprotein

c)

Low density lipoprotein

d)

Saturated fat

53.

The nutrient that primarily builds and heals body tissue is

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Triglycerides

54.

Vitamin that promotes red blood cell production is

a)

Vitamin B12

b)

Vitamin A

c)

Vitamin B

d)

Vitamin K

55.

The organization that developed guidelines to assist people on making healthy food choices is

a)

FDA

b)

USDA

c)

CDC

d)

AMA

56.

A clear liquid diet includes the following except

a)

Chicken broth

b)

Tea

c)

Milk

d)

Apple juice

57.

Metabolism is the process of

a)

Taking food into the boy

b)

Physically changing nutrients to allow absorption

c)

Chemically changing nutrients in the body

d)

Using nutrients from the bloodstream to produce energy

58.

The fat soluble vitamin that promotes blood clotting is

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin K

d)

Vitamin E

59.

A person on a low cholesterol diet should limit which of the following food groups

a)

Fruits

b)

Vegetables

c)

Grains

d)

Meats

60.

The mineral responsible for proper bone and tooth developement is

a)

Calcium

b)

Iron

c)

Potassium

d)

Zinc

61.

Which of the following nutrients has the highest amount of calories per gram

a)

Carbs

b)

Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Fiber

62.

A pt. diagnosed with hypertension will benefit from a diet low in

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

iron

d)

Protein

63.

Which of the following diets is recommended for a patient diagnosed with gout

a)

Low salt

b)

Lows carbs

c)

Low fiber

d)

Low purine

64.

The substance necessary for hemoglobin to transport oxygen in the blood is

a)

Zinc

b)

Iodine

c)

Potassium

d)

iron

65.

The process by which nutrients leave the gastrointestinal system and enter the blood stream is

a)

Ingestion

b)

Digestion

c)

Absorption

d)

Metabolism

66.

An example of a saturated fat is

a)

Butter

b)

Olive oil

c)

Egg whites

d)

Salmon

67.

A person diagnosed with hypokalemia should increase their intake of

a)

Cooper

b)

fluoride

c)

Calcium

d)

Potassium

68.

The mineral iodine is an essential substance for the proper function of which of the following organs

a)

Kidneys

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Liver

d)

Thyroid gland

69.

Night blindness can be caused by a deficiency of vitamin

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

C

70.

The diet recommended for the treatment of ulcers is

a)

Low sodium

b)

Soft foods

c)

Bland

d)

Low cholesterol

71.

A clear liquid diet is indicated for which of the following

a)

A patient with an ulcer

b)

A patient having trouble chewing

c)

A patient with diarrhea

d)

A patient who is limiting calories for a diet

72.

A low fat diet would be recommended to treat

a)

Hypertension

b)

Gallbladder disease

c)

Thyroid disease

d)

Gout

73.

Ascorbic avid is also known as vitamin

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

74.

Which of the followkng May be prevented with proper amounts of vitamin D in the diet

a)

Diabetes

b)

Hemorrhage

c)

Blindness

d)

Rickets

75.

Persons who want to limit their intake of iodine in the body should avoid

a)

Seafood

b)

Banana

c)

Milk

d)

Eggs

76.

The agency that controls who may administer and use specific drugs is the

a)

FDA

b)

CDC

c)

DEA

d)

PDR

77.

Which of the following is not included in the rights of drug administration

a)

Right drug

b)

Right physician

c)

Right route

d)

Right time

e)

Right patient

78.

Drugs that can be purchased over the counter are classified as schedule

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

5

79.

Parental administration of medication generally means that the medication is

a)

Administered through a suppository

b)

Injected

c)

In liquid form to swallow

d)

Dissloved in and absorbed through the mouth

80.

To convert grams to milligrams

a)

divide by 100

b)

Divide by 1,000

c)

Multiply by 100

d)

Multiply by 1,000

81.

Information found on a prescription includes the following except

a)

Patient instructions

b)

Number of doses to b dispensed

c)

Patients name and DOB

d)

Number of refills

82.

Which of the following is an appropriate task for a medical assistant or administrative medical specialist

a)

Call a drug renewal to a pharmacy

b)

Prescribe drugs

c)

Authorize reorder of drugs

d)

Dispense drugs

83.

The prescription direction “ii gtt q4h” means

a)

one drop every hr

b)

one drop every 4 hours

c)

two drops every 4 hours

d)

four Drops every 4 hours

84.

which of the following classifications of medication is used to control high blood pressure

a)

Antipyretic

b)

Antiemetic

c)

Antihypertensive

d)

Antihistamines

85.

Of the following drugs, which one can be dispensed only with a written prescription

a)

Valium

b)

Robitussin

c)

Tylenol

d)

Morphine

86.

The method of administration of medication under the tongue is

a)

Topical

b)

Sublingual

c)

Parenteral

d)

Subcutaneous

87.

The physician orders 300mg of medication tid x 10 days. The medication is available in 150 mg capsules. How many capsules will the patient need to complete the course of therapy

a)

60

b)

45

c)

20

d)

10

88.

The equivalent of 5 cubic centimeters is

a)

5mg

b)

5mL

c)

5 cm

d)

5 gtt

89.

A subq injection is injected into

a)

Muscle tissue

b)

Dermal tissue

c)

Fatty tissue

d)

Epidermal tissue

90.

a solution administered through ID method is

a)

Keflex

b)

Penicillin

c)

Imferon

d)

Tuberculin solution

91.

Imferon an iron preparation is administered by which method

a)

Subq

b)

Z track

c)

Intravenous

d)

Sublingual

92.

A subcutaneous injection is given using which technique

a)

90 degree angle, 21 G needle

b)

25 degree angle, 25 G needle

c)

15 degree angle, 21 G needle

d)

45 degree angle, 25 G needle

93.

When an event that compromises safety occurs on the medical offfice

a)

An incident report should be completed

b)

The practice attorney should be notified

c)

The event should be reported to the local medical board

d)

No further action is required

94.

The medical term used to describe a victim who has fainted is

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Febrile

c)

Shock

d)

Syncope

95.

A stroke is also known as

a)

CVD

b)

CVA

c)

COPD

d)

CHF

96.

Another term for a heart attack is

a)

Cardiovascular disease

b)

Coronary heart disease

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Congestive heart failure

97.

Treatment of third degree burns includes

a)

Immersing body parts in cold water

b)

Applying an ice pack to the affected part

c)

Removing any blisters that form

d)

Covering the victim and notifying EMS

98.

Is some cases of poisoning it is necessary to induce vomiting. The agent used is

a)

Iodine

b)

Ipecac

c)

Adrenaline

d)

Epinephrine

99.

Type of shock caused from bacterial infection is

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Cardiogenic

c)

Psychogenic

d)

Septic

100.

A victim experiencing a body temperature below 95 degrees is

a)

Hypothermic

b)

Hyperthermic

c)

Febrile

d)

Hypovolemic

101.

Which of the following is a sign or symptom of shock

a)

Slow respiration

b)

pale skin

c)

High blood pressure

d)

Warm skin

102.

Characteristics of a first degree burn

a)

Blistered skin

b)

Charred skin

c)

Reddened skin

d)

Edema of the skin

103.

The type of soft tissue injury that causes a jagged wound that bleeds is an

a)

Abrasion

b)

Confusion

c)

Puncture

d)

Laceration

104.

Diabetic coma is caused by

a)

Overproduction of insulin

b)

Low glucose level

c)

Lack of insulin

d)

Normal glucose with high insulin level

105.

To control bleeding from a laceration of the palm, direct pressure should be placed over the

a)

Subclavian artery

b)

Brachial artery

c)

Radial artery

d)

Medical artery

106.

The type of wound that results from scraping off layers of skin is a

a)

Bruise

b)

Abrasion

c)

Confusion

d)

Laceration

107.

Which of the following is a fracture of the radius bone at the wrist

a)

Compound

b)

Closed

c)

Colles

d)

Greenstick

108.

It is necessary to perform the hemlock maneuver if

a)

The victim is coughing

b)

The victim says he or she is choking

c)

The victim is conscious but cannot speak or cough

d)

The victim becomes unconscious

109.

Fire extinguishers should be serviced

a)

Monthly

b)

Quarterly

c)

Semi annually

d)

Annually

110.

exposure control plan guidelines are recommended by

a)

SDS

b)

OSHA

c)

EEOC

d)

HIPAA

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