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super life science REVIEW

Total questions: 126

Worksheet time: 2hrs 24mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Are all mutations harmful?
a)
Yes, they are caused by toxic chemicals and radiation
b)
No, all mutations are beneficial
c)
Yes, mutations cause fatal diseases
d)
No, some can be useful in a changing environment
2.
If you are a boy, what percent of your genes did you get from your dad?
a)
25%
b)
50%
c)
75%
d)
100%
3.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
4.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

Although all the DNA is present in every cell, in different types of cells different genes are activated/inactivated for different purposes depending on the cells purpose

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

5.
traits that show up more often
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
6.
True or False? A tightly wound bundle of DNA is a chromosome.
a)
False
b)
True
7.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
8.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
9.
In certain species of plants, purple flowers (P) are dominant to white flowers (p). If two heterozygous plants are crossed, what will be the phenotype of the offspring?
a)
100% purple flowers
b)
100% white flowers
c)
75% white flowers, 25% purple flowers
d)
25% white flowers, 75% purple flowers
10.
What is this image showing?
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosome
c)
Alleles
d)
Phenotype
11.
Chromosomes are made of
a)
DNA
b)
RNT
c)
WWE
d)
DMA
12.
B=Blonde Hair b=Brown Hair
If a person was BB they would have
a)
Blonde Hair
b)
Brown Hair
13.
What % of offspring are yellow?
a)
50
b)
25
c)
75
d)
100
14.
The passing of physical characteristics from parent to offspring is?
a)
genetics
b)
Heredity
c)
Traits 
d)
Fertilization
15.
A change in DNA or chromosomes
a)
Mitosis
b)
Meiosis
c)
mutation
d)
Osmosis
16.
What is a gene?
a)
a chromosome 
b)
a two-stranded molecule with a double-helix shape
c)
the basic unit of heredity in a living organism.  They hold information to build and pass genetic traits to offspring
d)
something that you wear to keep your legs warm; made out of denim material
17.
Why do offspring usually look like their parents?
a)
Their parents choose their features and make sure they look similar to themselves.
b)
The offspring adapt to their surroundings making them look more like their parents
c)
Offspring receive characteristics that have been passed down from their parents
18.
Segements of DNA are called _______________________
a)
Genes
b)
Nuclei
c)
genotypes
d)
Chromosomes
19.
____________________ are used to make predictions about the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring.
a)
Dominant Squares
b)
Punnett Grids
c)
Punnett Squares
d)
Recessive Squares
20.
The passing of DNA from parents to offspring
a)
Generation
b)
Heredity
c)
Inheritance
d)
Traits
21.
The Genetic Code for all living things
a)
ABC
b)
RNA
c)
NBC
d)
DNA
22.
Heredity is the passing of traits from _____________________ to _____________________
a)
predators to prey
b)
water to rain
c)
parents to offspring
d)
fungi to protists
23.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
24.
Who was the naturalist that traveled the world to study plants and animals?
a)
Albert Einstein
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Charles Barkley
d)
Isaac Newton
25.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
26.

Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________

a)

be more likely to survive, reproduce, and pass on their traits to the next generation

b)

become extinct

27.
What is an organism that has similar characteristics and can reproduce?
a)
species
b)
organism
c)
embryology
d)
vestigial 
28.

What is this an example of?

a)

different species that can still mate together

b)

genetic variation within the same species

c)

vestigial structures

d)

DNA research studies

29.

Similarities in bone structure between different organisms are evidence that the organisms ...

a)

hang out on the weekends

b)

share a predator/prey relationship

c)

share a common ancestor

d)

have a symbiotic relationship

30.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light 
b)
dark
31.
The cause of artificial selection is…
a)
The environment
b)
Humans
c)
Mutation
d)
Gene Flow
32.
Darwin wrote that organisms with traits that are best suited to the environment will ________________
a)
increase in number
b)
become extinct
33.
Which of the following is NOT an example of natural selection? 
a)
People selectively breeding hamsters.
b)
Insect populations developing resistance to certain pesticides.
c)
Bacteria becoming resistant to antibiotics.
d)
Male birds of certain species developing colorful feathers to attract female mates.
34.
Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring? 
a)
Evolution 
b)
Variation 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection 
35.
Which species’ DNA is most similar to the DNA of the toothed whale? 
a)
Hippopotamus 
b)
Baleen Whale
c)
Grazing Mammals
d)
Camels
36.
The environment around Manchester, England, changed during the Industrial Revolution.  How did this change affect peppered moths living in the area?
a)
Natural selection favored moths with dark wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
b)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings that were easy for predators to see.
c)
Natural selection favored moths with white wings because predators could not see them on the soot-colored trees.
d)
Natural selection caused moths with white wings to become extinct.
37.
Two organisms that are closely related would have
a)
very similar DNA sequence
b)
exactly the same DNA sequences
c)
no proteins in common
d)
completely different DNA sequence
38.
A remnant or trace of an organism from the past is called a _______.
a)
Ancestor
b)
Skeleton
c)
Fossil
d)
Imprints
39.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
40.
What characteristic did Darwin observe about the finches on the Galapagos Islands?
a)
Their feathers 
b)
Genotypes 
c)
Their beaks
d)
Their body sizes
41.
The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the winter months (snow). This is an example of ________________
a)
Species
b)
Environmental Change
c)
Adaptation
d)
Variation
42.
Genetic differences between organisms of the same species
a)
Variation
b)
Adaptation
c)
Behavior
d)
Environment
43.
Darwin referred to this as survival of the fittest. Over time, it results in changes in the inherited characteristics of a population because organisms with adaptations that make them fit for their environment will survive and reproduce better than those without favorable traits.
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Genetic Variation
c)
Survival of the Fittest
44.
What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?
a)
To look different from other species.
b)
To be able to eat the food readily available in the environment.
c)
To protect itself against predators.
d)
To protect itself against prey.
45.
A group of similar organisms that can mate with each other and produce fertile offspring is called a species.  
a)
True  
b)
False
46.
In natural selection, the selective agent is the
a)
humans
b)
mutations
c)
breeders
d)
environment
47.

The more genetic variation a population has,

the more likely it is for some individuals to

a)

evolve

b)

migrate

c)

survive

d)

mutate

48.
asexual reproduction produces offspring with
a)
half of a single parent's genes
b)
the same genes as the parent
c)
a mix of genes from two parents
d)
lots of genetic variation
49.
What is the process in which humans breed organisms for certain traits?
a)
natural selection
b)
inheritance
c)
artificial selection
d)
descent withOUT modification
50.
The study of the early stages of development that is one evidence of evolution is:
a)
Homologous Structures
b)
Embryology
c)
Vestigial Organs
51.
The opossum and kangaroo both incubate their young in a pouch. This provides evidence that they---
a)
are descended from a common ancestor
b)
Have very similar skeletal structures
c)
belong to the same species
d)
must range great distances to eat
52.
The table shows the survival rate of two types of beetles in the same environment over a period of three years.  

Which statement about the beetles in this environment is best supported by the data?
a)
Brown beetles have a shorter life cycle than green beetles have
b)
Green beetles are more fit for their environment than brown beetles
c)
 brown beetles are undergo more unfavorable mutations than green beetles
53.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
54.
The gradual change in species over time is...
a)
Evolution
b)
Nucleotide 
c)
Adaptation
d)
Natural Selection
55.
What is one of the reactants of cellular respiration?
a)
energy
b)
glucose
c)
carbon dioxide
d)
water
56.
What happens to your breathing rate when you exercise?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It stays the same
57.
Which organ excretes carbon dioxide?
a)
Lungs
b)
Liver
c)
Heart
d)
Kidney
58.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

Glucose and oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide and water

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Carbon monoxide

59.

The mitochondria is responsible for ...

a)

photosynthesis

b)

anaerobic respiration

c)

cellular respiration

d)

fermentation

60.

When your cells need usable energy but there is no presence of oxygen it is known as

a)

lactic acid fermentation

b)

alcohol fermentation

c)

cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis

61.

The reactants (what goes in to photosynthesis) are

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

water

c)

all of the above

62.

The chemical energy created during photosynthesis is

a)

corn syrup

b)

fire wood

c)

sucrose

d)

glucose

63.

The products (what comes out) of photosynthesis are

a)

water and sugar

b)

oxygen and glucose (sugar)

c)

water and carbon dioxide

d)

chalk and nitrogen

64.

The body systems that bring in and deliver the necessary ingredients for cellular respiration are

a)

the digestive system

b)

the respiratory system

c)

the circulatory system

d)

all of the above

65.

True or False: Plants go through cellular respiration too (do they use some of the glucose they produce?)

a)

True

b)

False

66.
Overlapping food chains in an ecosystem make up....
a)
food web
b)
food chain
c)
niche
d)
symbiosis
67.
All food webs and food chains begin with _________________.
a)
primary consumer
b)
producers
c)
secondary consumers
d)
predators
68.
A food pyramid represent the relative amount of energy in trophic levels. Which of the following correctly shows a food pyramid?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
69.
In this energy pyramid, which organisms have the most energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Carnivores
c)
Herbivores
d)
Top Predator
70.
In an ecological pyramid, which type of organism always has the least amount of energy available?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Top Predator
71.
How much of the energy in each level of a ecological pyramid gets lost as heat or used by the organism so that it cannot be passed on to the next trophic level?
a)
80%
b)
90%
c)
10%
d)
20%
72.
If there are 100 Kcal of energy available in the producers, how much energy would be available in the herbivores?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
73.
This diagram shows the amount of energy that moves from one feeding level to another.
a)
Energy Pyramid
b)
Food Web
c)
Ecosystem
d)
Food Chain
74.
The diagram represents a pyramid of energy in an ecosystem.  Which level would most likely contain organisms that do photosynthesis?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
75.
In this ecological pyramid which type of consumer gets only 10% of the energy stored in plants?
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Tertiary Consumer
c)
Secondary Consumers
d)
Primary Producers
76.
Organisms that need to eat other organisms to obtain food are called
a)
autotrophs 
b)
hungry
c)
producers
d)
heterotrophs
77.
Pyramids of energy show the transfer of _____ through trophic systems. 
a)
biomass
b)
energy
c)
food
d)
chicken
78.
Organisms that use energy from the sun to make their food are called
a)
heterotrophs
b)
consumers
c)
autotrophs
d)
carnivores
79.
The nonliving parts of an ecosystem.
a)
Abiotic factors
b)
Biotic factors
80.
A collection of organisms that make up a community as well as all of the nonliving parts of the environment.
a)
Population
b)
Community
c)
Habitat
d)
Ecosystem
81.
What is an organism that breaks down & absorbs dead matter so nutrition can be recycled into the soil?
a)
Consumer
b)
Decomposer
c)
Producers
d)
Scavenger
82.

What is the source of energy for almost all producers?

a)

sun

b)

wind

c)

Earth

d)

rain

83.
The owl receives energy from which organisms?
a)
grasshopper and mouse
b)
mouse and rabbit
c)
rabbit and butterfly
d)
butterfly and frog
84.
Which organism is the top predator in this food web?
a)
leopard seal
b)
killer whale
c)
elephant seal
d)
crabeater seal
85.
Name the producers in this food web.
a)
seagull and fish
b)
penguin and crab
c)
phytoplankton and seaweed
d)
seaweed and zooplankton
86.
The krill is eaten by which consumer?
a)
blue whale
b)
phytoplankton
c)
leopard seal
d)
penguin
87.
Which one is NOT an example of a decomposer?
a)
mushroom
b)
leaves
c)
mold
d)
worm
88.
Grass is considered a ...
a)
consumer
b)
producer
c)
decomposer
d)
composers
89.
What percentage of energy is passed on to each tropic level?
a)
10%
b)
50%
c)
90%
d)
100%
90.
Which is NOT an abiotic factor:
a)
soil
b)
air
c)
bacteria;
d)
water
91.

Where are decomposers placed on a ecological energy pyramid?

a)

at the top

b)

they don't belong in an ecological energy pyramid

c)

at the bottom below producers

d)

at every level (along the side, they decompose everything)

92.

Algae is a

a)

producer

b)

decomposer

c)

primary consumer

d)

tertiary consumer

93.

True/False: all producers use the suns energy

a)

True

b)

False

94.

Plants and other photosynthetic organisms use the sun's

a)

heat

b)

ultraviolet

c)

microwaves

d)

light

95.

In which organelle does photosynthesis take place?

a)

the nucleus

b)

the chloroplasts

c)

The mitochondria

96.

In which organelle does cellular respiration take place

a)

the mitochondria

b)

the chloroplasts

c)

the nucleus

97.

TRUE/FALSE: Mr. Keough's class was fun, informative, I learned a ton and ya he's just an overall awesome dude!

a)

True

b)

False

98.

DNA is transcribed into a piece of

a)

PSA

b)

YMCA

c)

RCA

d)

other DNA

e)

RNA

99.

A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?

a)

100% black

b)

150%Brown

c)

100% Brown

d)

0% Brown

100.

Proteins are made out of

a)

amino acids

b)

pieces of DNA

c)

peices of brain

d)

nothing

e)

water

101.

DNA codes for

a)

words

b)

Morse Code messages

c)

random proteins (really only the environment determines characteristics)

d)

specific proteins (which ultimately determines traits)

102.

These organic (life) chemicals are made out of smaller chemicals known as amino acids.

a)

hair and nails only

b)

bro teens

c)

proteins

d)

brain cells only

e)

all of the above

103.

Proteins are built in this organelle

a)

cytoplasm

b)

ribosome

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi body

104.

An organisms growth is determined by

a)

the environment

b)

the organism's DNA

c)

all of the above

d)

none of the above

105.

meiosis produces

a)

2 body cells with identical DNA as parent cell

b)

2 sex cells with identical DNA as the parent cell

c)

1 parent cell with no DNA

d)

4 sex cells with half the amount of DNA as the parent cell

106.

Mitosis produces

a)

2 sex cells for sexual reproduction

b)

2 daughter cells (body cells) for organism growth and cell replacement

c)

nothing

d)

4 sex cells for sexual reproduction

107.

Sex cells are

a)

body cells

b)

sperm cells

c)

egg cells

d)

both sperm and egg cells

e)

cell phones

108.
Which of the following is a base that is NOT contained in DNA?
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
109.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
110.
In eukaryotic cells, I travel out of the nucleus to a ribosome.
a)
Both DNA and RNA
b)
DNA
c)
RNA
111.
I include the bases guanine, cytosine, and adenine.
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Both DNA and RNA
112.
What is the product of translation?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
113.

The Process of creating RNA from DNA

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

114.

Transcribe the following DNA strand: CTG AAT

a)

GAC TTA

b)

CTG AAT

c)

GAC UUA

d)

CUG AAU

115.

What combines together to make a protein?

a)

Amino Acid

b)

RNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

DNA

116.

What organelle is the site of translation?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Ribosome

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Chloroplast

117.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
118.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
119.
Which of the following statements is true?
a)
DNA is single-stranded
b)
RNA is single-stranded
c)
DNA contains uracil
d)
RNA contains deoxyribose
120.
What is the template for mRNA?
a)
DNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
proteins
121.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
122.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
123.
The following picture must be
a)
DNA because it's double stranded
b)
RNA because it's single stranded
c)
DNA because it's single stranded
d)
RNA because it's double stranded
124.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
125.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
126.
Does the order of amino acids in a protein matter?
a)
YES!
b)
NO!

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