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WorksheetsHonors Chem 2018 Summer Final
Total questions: 118
Worksheet time: 3hrs 26mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What type of matter is made of particles that are tightly packed together and firmly connected?
a)
plasma
b)
liquid
c)
solid
d)
gas
2.
A milk shake is a(n)
a)
mixture
b)
compound
c)
element
3.
Gold is a(n)
a)
mixture
b)
compound
c)
element
4.
Salt water is a ____ mixture.
a)
homogeneous
b)
heterogeneous
5.
Cereal is a ____ mixture.
a)
homogeneous
b)
heterogeneous
6.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
7.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
8.
For the formula:
Q= m c ∆T
The units for specific heat are:
Q= m c ∆T
The units for specific heat are:
a)
g /J C
b)
°C/g J
c)
kJ/g
d)
J/g°C
9.
How would you write 4.3756 x 104 in standard form?
a)
437,560,000
b)
0.00043756
c)
43,756
d)
4,3756
10.
How would you write 0.0005 in scientific notation?
a)
50 x 105
b)
5 x 104
c)
5 x 103
d)
.5 x 103
11.
How do you write
1001
in scientific notation?
1001
in scientific notation?
a)
1.0001 x 104
b)
1.01 x 105
c)
1.001 x 103
d)
10.1 x 103
12.
How do you write
8.317 x 106
in standard form?
8.317 x 106
in standard form?
a)
8, 371, 000
b)
83, 170, 000
c)
837, 100
d)
8, 317, 000
13.
In Fe2+, the number of protons is ___ and the number of electrons is ___. (electrons are negative so when you have a positive charge, you lose or take away electrons)
a)
26, 26
b)
26, 24
c)
26, 28
d)
24, 24
14.
The first energy level can hold up to how many electrons?
a)
8
b)
4
c)
2
d)
5
15.
Which scientist saw the atom as a positively charged sphere with negative particles (electrons) embedded within?
a)
J.J. Thomson
b)
Niels Bohr
c)
John Dalton
d)
Ernest Rutherford
16.
Which scientist used his gold foil experiment to show that an atom has a small, central, positively charged nucleus that contains most of the atom's mass?
a)
Rutherford
b)
Bohr
c)
Thomson
d)
Dalton
17.
Which of the following correctly orders the atomic models from the oldest to the most recent?
a)
Dalton, Thomson, Rutherford, Bohr, Modern
b)
Dalton, Thomson, Bohr, Modern, Rutherford
c)
Thomson, Dalton, Rutherford, Modern, Bohr
d)
Modern, Bohr, Rutherford, Thomson, Dalton
18.
What is the nickname for Thomson's model?
a)
Plum pudding model
b)
Electron cloud model
c)
Billiard ball model
d)
Nuclear model
19.
What scientist is best known for his "Plum Pudding" model of the atom?
a)
J.J. Tomson
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
John Dalton
d)
Democritus
20.
How did Rutherford discover the proton?
a)
Cathode tube ray experiment
b)
Gold Foil Experiment
c)
Planetary Model
d)
Plum Pudding Model
21.
Ernst Rutherford discovered which part of the atom through the use of gold foil?
a)
Proton
b)
Neutron
c)
Electron
d)
Orbitals
22.
The name of FeCl₂ is
a)
iron chloride
b)
iron (II) chloride
c)
iron (I) chloride
d)
iron dichloride
23.
The name of Mg₃N₂ is
a)
manganese nitride
b)
magnesium nitride
c)
magnesium (III) nitride
d)
trimagnesium dinitride
24.
The name of Cu₃N₂ is
a)
copper (III) nitride
b)
copper (II) nitride
c)
copper nitride
d)
tricopper dinitride
25.
The chemical formula of magnesium phosphide is
a)
MgP
b)
Mg₂P₃
c)
Mg₃P₂
d)
Mg₃(PO₄)₂
26.
Ionic compounds are written with
a)
cation (+ ion) first then anion (- ion)
b)
anion (- ion) first then cation (+ ion)
c)
either way is fine
d)
polyatomic ions first
27.
What is the formula for sodium phosphate?
a)
Na3PO4
b)
Na3PO3
c)
Na3P
d)
Na3PO
28.
What is the formula for calcium carbonate?
a)
CaCO
b)
CaCO2
c)
CaCO3
d)
Ca3CO3
29.
What is the formula for Lead II Phosphate?
a)
Pb₃(PO₃)₂
b)
Pb₃(PO₄)₂
c)
Pb₂PO₄
d)
Pb₂P
30.
K3N
a)
potassium nitrate
b)
potassium nitrite
c)
potassium nitride
d)
potassium nitrogen
31.
Pb3PO4
a)
Lead (I) Phosphate
b)
Lead Phosphate
c)
Lead (III) Phosphate
d)
Lead Phosphide
32.
What is the formula for potassium chromate
a)
K2CrO4
b)
K2Cr
c)
KCr2
d)
K(CrO4)2
33.
What is the formula for Tribromine nonoxide?
a)
Br3O9
b)
Br3O10
c)
Br3O6
d)
Br3O4
34.
What is the formula for Dihydrogen monoxide?
a)
H3O2
b)
H8O3
c)
H2O
d)
HO2
35.
What is the formula for Sulfur hexafluoride?
a)
SF6
b)
S6F5
c)
S6F8
d)
SF9
36.
What is the name of HI?
a)
iodic acid
b)
hydroiodic acid
c)
iodous acid
d)
hypoiodous acid
37.
What is the name of H2SO3 ?
a)
sulfuric acid
b)
hydrosulfuric acid
c)
sulfurous acid
d)
persulfuric acid
38.
what is the name of CCl4?
a)
carbon tetrachloride
b)
monocarbon tetrachloride
c)
tetracarbon monochloride
d)
carbon chloride
39.
What is the name of the compound HgCl2
a)
mercury (II) chloride
b)
mercury chlorite
c)
Monomercury dichloride
40.
Which of these is covalent?
a)
NaCl
b)
Pb(NO3)2
c)
CO2
d)
AlCl3
41.
A binary covalent bond exists between
a)
2 metals
b)
1 metal and 1 nonmetal
c)
2 nonmetals
d)
Any 2 elements
42.
Which of these compounds is ionic?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Dinitrogen trioxide
c)
Silicon tetrachloride
d)
Lithium bromide
43.
What is the name of the compound Ni(ClO3)2
a)
nickel (II) chlorate
b)
nickel (I) chlorite
c)
Nickel dichlorate
44.
Ca + AlCl3→ CaCl2 + Al
a)
Synthesis (combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Double replacement
45.
Pb(NO3)2 →PbO + NO2 + O2
a)
Synthesis (combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Combustion
46.
Mg + N2 →Mg3N2
a)
Synthesis (combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Combustion
47.
NO2 →N2 + O2
a)
Synthesis (combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Combustion
48.
Cu + 2Ag(NO3) → 2Ag + Cu(NO3)
a)
Synthesis Reaction
b)
Decomposition Reaction
c)
Single Displacement Reaction
d)
Double Displacement Reaction
49.
Si + S8 --> Si2S4
a)
Synthesis (combination)
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single replacement
d)
Double replacement
50.
What are always the product(s) for the combustion of a hydrocarbon?
a)
O2
b)
Acids and Bases
c)
H2O and CO2
d)
H2 and C
51.
What is the Law of Conservation of Mass?
a)
It states that no matter can be created or destroyed.
b)
It states that no energy can be created or destroyed.
c)
It states that matter can be created or destroyed.
d)
It states that no sound can be created or destroyed.
52.
What is a coefficient?
a)
The small number on the right of the chemical symbol.
b)
The large number in front of a chemical formula.
c)
The number in between the chemical symbols.
d)
The number behind a chemical formula.
53.
At the end of chemical reactions, what is the total mass of the reactants compared to the total mass of the products?
a)
the product is doubled
b)
the product is half the mass of the reactants
c)
the mass is the same
d)
the mass changes depending on the reaction
54.
_Na3PO4+_KOH --->
_NaOH + _ K3PO4
_NaOH + _ K3PO4
a)
1 Na3PO4+3 KOH
--->
3 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
--->
3 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
b)
2 Na3PO4+2 KOH
--->
3 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
--->
3 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
c)
1 Na3PO4+2 KOH
--->
2 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
--->
2 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
d)
3 Na3PO4+3 KOH
--->
3 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
--->
3 NaOH + 1 K3PO4
55.
Balance this equation.
_CF4 + _Br2 -- _CBr4 + _F2
_CF4 + _Br2 -- _CBr4 + _F2
a)
2,1,2,1
b)
1,2,2,1
c)
1,2,1,2
d)
2,2,2,2
56.
Which coefficients balance this equation:
NH3 + O2 ----> NO + H2O
NH3 + O2 ----> NO + H2O
a)
2,3,5,6
b)
5,5,4,6
c)
4,6,4,5
d)
4,5,4,6
57.
Balance this equation
_Al +_HCl --> _H2 +_AlCl3
_Al +_HCl --> _H2 +_AlCl3
a)
2, 6, 3, 2
b)
it is already balanced
c)
4, 12, 3, 4
d)
2, 1, 4, 5
58.
Which of these are not diatomic molecules?
a)
Boron
b)
Iodine
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Oxygen
59.
Which reaction type is the following: C5H10 + O2 --> CO2 + H2O
a)
Decomposition
b)
Synthesis
c)
Combustion
d)
Double Replacement
60.
Which of the following is the general formula for a decomposition reaction?
a)
A + B → AB
b)
AB → A + B
c)
AB + C → AC + B
d)
AB + CD → AC + BD
61.
Which of the following is an example of synthesis?
a)
Na + Br2 --> NaBr
b)
KClO3 --> KCl + O2
c)
HgO + Cl2-->HgCl + O2
d)
Cl2 + NaBr --> NaCl + Br2
62.
2 NaClO3 (s) --> 2NaCl (s) +3 O2 (g)
12.00 moles of NaClO3 will produce how many grams of O2?
12.00 moles of NaClO3 will produce how many grams of O2?
a)
256 g of O2
b)
576 g of O2
c)
288 g O2
63.
Given the equation:
2NaClO3 (s) → 2NaCl (s) + 3O2 (g)
2.00 moles of NaClO3 will produce how many grams of O2? (mass of O2 = 32g/mol)
a)
56 g of O2
b)
96 g of O2
c)
64 g O2
d)
32 g O2
64.
2H2 + O2 −−〉 2H2O
How many grams of H2O can be produced from 3.91 g of O2?
How many grams of H2O can be produced from 3.91 g of O2?
a)
1.905
b)
4.4
c)
2.2
d)
1.1
65.
2Al + 3H2SO4 -> Al2(SO4)3 + 3H2
How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250g H2SO4 completely reacted with aluminum?
How many grams of aluminum sulfate would be formed if 250g H2SO4 completely reacted with aluminum?
a)
0.85 g
b)
290 g
c)
450 g
d)
870 g
66.
If 15 grams of copper (II) chloride react with 20 grams of sodium nitrate, how much sodium chloride can be formed?
a)
13.04 g
b)
130.4 moles
c)
130.4 g
d)
13.04 moles
67.
How many grams of ammonia (NH3) can be produced from the reaction of 28 g of nitrogen gas and 25 grams of hydrogen gas?
a)
43 g
b)
34 moles
c)
25 grams
d)
34 grams
68.
Silver nitrate and sodium phosphate are reacted in equal amounts of 200 g each. How many grams of silver phosphate are produced?
a)
164 g
b)
64 g
c)
146 g
d)
164 moles
69.
How many grams of CuSO4 do you need to get exactly Avogadro's number?
a)
159.61 g
b)
111.6 moles
c)
63.55 g
d)
159.61 moles
70.
What is the pH of a solution that has a [H+] of 2.5 x 10-5?
a)
4.60
b)
5.0
c)
2.5
d)
7
71.
What is the pOH of a solution where the [OH-] is 7.3 x 10-2 M?
a)
-1.14
b)
2.0
c)
1.14
d)
7.3
72.
What is the [OH-] if the [H+] is 1.0 x 10-3M?
a)
1.0 x 10-3 M
b)
6.02 x 10-23 M
c)
1.0 x 10-14 M
d)
1.0 x 10-11 M
73.
What is the [H+] if the pH is 4.0?
a)
1.0 x 10-10 M
b)
1.0 x 10-4 M
c)
1.0 x 10-14 M
d)
1.0 x 10-7 M
74.
What is the [OH-] if the pH is 4.9?
a)
7.94 x 10-10 M
b)
1.0 x 10-4 M
c)
7.94 x 10-14 M
d)
4.9 x 10-10 M
75.
What is the pOH of a solution that has a pH of 2?
a)
10
b)
12
c)
14
d)
1
76.
The lower the pH, the greater the concentration of :
a)
OH-
b)
H+
77.
Solve this equation for alpha decay.
20985At = ___ + 42He
20985At = ___ + 42He
a)
20583Bi
b)
20986Rn
c)
20781Tl
d)
20885At
78.
Solve this equation for beta decay.
6027Co = ___ + 0-1e
6027Co = ___ + 0-1e
a)
5625Mn
b)
6028Ni
c)
5823V
d)
5927Co
79.
Solve this equation for beta decay.
146C = ___ + 0-1e
146C = ___ + 0-1e
a)
104Be
b)
147N
c)
102He
d)
136C
80.
The following is an example of what type of reaction?
24395Am → 23993Np + 42He
24395Am → 23993Np + 42He
a)
alpha decay
b)
beta decay
c)
gamma decay
81.
What is the missing isotope that will balance the following nuclear equation?
94Be + 11H → _____ + 42He
94Be + 11H → _____ + 42He
a)
105B
b)
105Ne
c)
63Li
d)
63C
82.
This type of reaction occurs when a heavy nucleus, such as U-235, splits into two or more parts. [KEY WORD: SPLIT]
a)
Fission
b)
Fusion
c)
Chain reaction
d)
synthesis
83.
This is an example of...
a)
Fission reaction
b)
Fusion reaction
c)
Decomposition reaction
d)
Combustion
84.
Positively charged particles that consist of two protons and two neutrons are called
a)
alpha particles
b)
beta particles
c)
gamma rays
d)
neutron emissions
85.
An electron that is emitted during radioactive decay is a
a)
neutron
b)
gamma ray
c)
alpha particle
d)
beta particle
86.
The half-life of strontium-90 is 25 years. How much strontium-90 will remain after 75 years if the initial amount is 100 grams?
a)
75
b)
50
c)
25
d)
12.5
87.
In order of most to least penetrating radiation we have
a)
Alpha , Beta, Gamma
b)
Beta , Gamma , Alpha
c)
Gamma, Beta, Alpha
d)
Gamma, Alpha, Beta
88.
Which type of radioactive decay only releases energy?
a)
gamma decay
b)
alpha decay
c)
beta decay
89.
If the temperature stays the same, the solubility of gases in liquids
a)
increases with increasing pressure
b)
cannot reach equilibrium
c)
decreases with increasing pressure
d)
does not depend on pressure
90.
When the solution is holding more solute than its maximum (by raising the temperature saturating the solution and then lowering the temperature) it is said to be
a)
Supersaturated
b)
Saturated
c)
Unsaturated
d)
Undefined
91.
__________ are made up of solutes and solvents.
a)
Solutions
b)
Suspension
c)
Colloid
92.
What is a solution called where more amount of solute CAN BE dissolved at a specific temperature and pressure?
a)
Supersaturated
b)
Saturated
c)
Unsaturated
d)
Undefined
93.
what is the molarity of a solution that contains 125 g NaCl in 4.00 L of solution?
a)
0.535 M NaCl
b)
2.14 M NaCl
c)
8.56 M NaCl
d)
31.3 M NaCl
94.
What is the molarity of a solution made by adding 1.565 moles of PbNO3 to 500 mL?
a)
300. M
b)
31.3 M
c)
3.13 M
d)
1.56 M
95.
What is the molarity of a solution which contains 22.41 grams of NaCl in 50.0 mL of solution?
a)
0.488 M
b)
7.67 mol
c)
7.67 M
d)
0.00767 M
96.
What is the molarity of a solution made by diluting 26.5 mL of 6.00M HNO3 to a volume of 250. mL?
a)
15.9 M
b)
0.636 M
c)
0.642 M
d)
1.59 M
97.
Solvent is best defined as-
a)
a mixture in which the substances are spread out evenly between one another and cannot be told apart
b)
the ability of a substance to dissolve in another substance
c)
a substance that dissolves in another substance
d)
a substance into which another substance dissolves
98.
How many moles are needed to make 2.5 L of a 3.8 M solution?
a)
9.5 mol
b)
0.66 mol
c)
1.5 mol
d)
15 mol
99.
What are the two criteria for a collision to be effective?
a)
proper orientation and particle size
b)
enough energy to overcome the activation energy and proper orientation
c)
enough energy to overcome the activation energy and homogeneity
d)
proper orientation and heterogeneity
100.
Under the collision theory, the particles must collide with ____ and ____ for a reaction to occur.
a)
sufficient rate and sufficient energy
b)
sufficient surface area and correct orientation
c)
sufficient catalyst and sufficient energy
d)
sufficent energy and correct orientation
101.
Which of the following is NOT a factor affecting reaction rate?
a)
temperature
b)
catalysts
c)
particle size
d)
polarity
102.
Which of the following increase the reaction rate?
a)
less surface area
b)
lower temperature
c)
an inhibitor
d)
increased concentration
103.
When writing an endothermic reaction, heat energy is stated as a
a)
product
b)
catalyst
c)
reactant
d)
Spicy Switze
104.
When the rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of backward reaction, the system is said to be in
a)
Chemical Equilibrium
b)
Chemical Balance
c)
Stoichiometry
d)
Chemical Reaction
105.
The idea that when a system at equilibrium is stressed, it will react to relieve that stress and return to equilibrium is known as:
a)
Boyle's Law
b)
Le Chatelier's Principle
c)
Charles Law
d)
Switzer's Law
106.
For the reaction...
SO2 + O2 <−> SO3
If the concentration of SO2 is increased, the equilibrium of the reaction will shift ___________.
SO2 + O2 <−> SO3
If the concentration of SO2 is increased, the equilibrium of the reaction will shift ___________.
a)
left
b)
right
c)
left and right
d)
neither left nor right
107.
For the reaction...
heat + N2 + O2 <−> 2NO
If O2 is removed, the concentration of N2 will _______.
heat + N2 + O2 <−> 2NO
If O2 is removed, the concentration of N2 will _______.
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
remain the same
d)
double
108.
For the reaction...
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) <−> 2 NH3 (g)
If the pressure in the system is increased, which substance will increase in concentration?
N2 (g) + 3 H2 (g) <−> 2 NH3 (g)
If the pressure in the system is increased, which substance will increase in concentration?
a)
N2
b)
H2
c)
N2 and H2
d)
NH3
109.
What kind of reaction is this?
a)
Endothermic
b)
Exothermic
c)
Equilibrium
d)
Can not be determined
110.
If the equilibrium constant is much greater than one (K >> 1) then
a)
Equilibrium is not established.
b)
Equilibrium lies to the right (products are favored)
c)
Equilibrium lies to the left (reactants are favored)
d)
Neither products or reactants are favored.
111.
If the equilibrium constant is much less than one (K << 1) then
a)
Equilibrium is not established.
b)
Equilibrium lies to the right (products are favored)
c)
Equilibrium lies to the left (reactants are favored)
d)
Neither products or reactants are favored.
112.
The specific heat of aluminum is 0.21 cal/g°C. How much heat(Q) is released when a 10 g piece of aluminum foil is taken out of the oven and cools from 100° to 50°?
a)
105 J
b)
10.5 J
c)
1.05 J
113.
The specific heat(c) of copper is 0.39 J/g °C. What is the temperature change(∆t) when 100 Joules of heat(Q) is added to 20 grams?
a)
12.82 °C
b)
24.12°C
c)
351 °C
114.
A sample of iron receives 50.J of heat energy that raises the temperature of the iron 25.0°C. If iron has a specific heat of .10 J/g°C, what is the mass of the iron sample?
a)
25g
b)
30g
c)
20g
d)
50g
115.
20 g of water. specific heat of water is 4.18 J/g°C. temperature changes from 25° C to 20° C, how much heat energy (Q) moves from the water to the surroundings?
a)
418 Joules
b)
209 J
c)
83 J
d)
4.18 J
116.
What line segment represents only the solid state?
a)
A-B
b)
B-C
c)
C-D
d)
D-E
117.
In which segment is the kinetic energy remaining constant?
a)
A-B
b)
B-C
c)
C-D
d)
E-F
118.
A substance's heating curve is shown in the graph. What is its boiling point?
a)
100 C
b)
60 C
c)
80 C
d)
20 C
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