wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Air Law

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

According to the Chicago Convention, aircraft of Contracting States shall have the right to make flights into or in transit non-stop across the territory of other contracting States and to make stops for non-traffic purposes without the necessity of obtaining prior permission. This applies to the following flights:

a)

To aircraft on non-commercial flights only.

b)

To aircraft of scheduled air services only.

c)

To aircraft not engaged in scheduled international air services.

d)

To aircraft engaged in commercial non-scheduled flights only.

2.

For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?

a)

The rules established by the state of registry of the aircraft.

b)

The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation.

c)

The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft.

d)

The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas overflown.

3.

Which is the permanent body of ICAO being responsible to the Assembly?

a)

The Air Navigation Commission.

b)

The Secretary General of ICAO.

c)

The Council.

d)

The President of the Assembly

4.

Which of the following ICAO documents contain International Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS)?

a)

Annexes to the Convention on international civil aviation.

b)

Procedures for Air Navigation Services (PANS).

c)

Regional Supplementary Procedures (SUPPS).

d)

ICAO Technical Manuals.

5.

What is the obligation of a State in the event of non-compliance with an international Standard?

a)

The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

b)

The State has to notify the Assembly of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP.

c)

The State has to publish such differences in the national AIP only.

d)

Modifications to International Standards shall be published in the national AIP only; differences to Recommended Practices have to be notified to ICAO.

6.

Within Europe, certain non-scheduled commercial flights between ECAC States may be carried out without the obligation to request prior permission from the state concerned by the operator of the aircraft. This is based on which international agreement/convention?

a)

Agreement of Paris.

b)

Warsaw agreeement.

c)

Cyprus convention.

d)

Convention of The Hague.

7.

According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures

upon a person committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

a)

The Convention of Tokyo.

b)

The Convention of Rome.

c)

The Convention of Warsaw.

d)

The Convention of Chicago.

8.

Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for

a)

Security

b)

Aerodromes

c)

Facilitation

d)

none of the above.

9.

The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refuelling, maintenance is to

following freedom of the air:

a)

2nd freedom.

b)

1st freedom.

c)

3rd freedom.

d)

4th freedom.

10.

Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third parties on the surface?

a)

The Rome convention.

b)

The Montreal convention.

c)

The Tokyo Convention

d)

The Guatemala Convention.

11.

For which flights is the article about cabotage in the Convention of Chicago applicable?

a)

For domestic flights.

b)

For national carriers.

c)

For cargo flights.

d)

For international flights.

12.

Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:

a)

Aerodromes

b)

Facilitation

c)

Operation of aircraft

d)

Security

13.

An airline is planning a flight that will require a Technical landing in a neighboring state. Which freedom of the Air will be exercised ?

a)

4th freedom

b)

1st freedom

c)

3rd freedom

d)

2nd freedom

14.

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) establishes

a)

standards and recommended practices applied without exception by all states, signatory to the Chicago convention.

b)

aeronautical standards adopted by all states.

c)

proposals for aeronautical regulations in the form of 18 annexes.

d)

standards and recommended international practices for contracting member states.

15.

The objectives of ICAO was ratified by the :

a)

Warzaw convention 1929

b)

Chicago convention 1944

c)

Geneva convention 1948

d)

Geneva convention 1936

16.

The International Civil Aviation Organisation (I.C.A.O.) was established by the international convention of :

a)

Warsaw

b)

The Hague

c)

Chicago

d)

Montreal

17.

(IR) Who is responsible for the development of the contingency procedures required to cover the case of engine failure during an instrument departure, which occurs after V1?

a)

The designer of the procedure (normally the State).

b)

ATC will provide radar vector for obstacle clearance.

c)

The operator of the aircraft.

d)

The pilot in close co-operation with ATC.

18.

(IR) Which of the following standard instrument departures is not a straight departure? A) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 20° from the runway alignment. B) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 15° from the runway alignment. C) A departure where the initial departure track differs more than 10° from the runway alignm

a)

A

b)

A and B

c)

A, B and C

d)

A, B, C and D

19.

During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:

a)

125 kt

b)

120 kt

c)

135 kt

d)

150 kt

20.

The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

a)

25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks and 15° for missed approach procedures.

b)

25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed approach procedures

c)

The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation related to aeroplane categories.

d)

25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure, approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).

21.

Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its descend below the OCA?

a)

When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway lights in sight

b)

When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

c)

When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet

d)

When seems possible to land

22.

A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:

a)

Procedure turn

b)

Base turn

c)

Reversal procedure

d)

Race track

23.

If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so as to :

a)

pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.

b)

follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.

c)

pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.

d)

leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.

24.

In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

a)

Aerodrome elevation.

b)

Aeredrome reference point.

c)

Relevant runway threshold.

d)

Mean sea level.

25.

A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the designated track is called a :

a)

Procedure turn.

b)

Base turn.

c)

Race track.

d)

Reversal track.

26.

You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descend below the MDA should not be made until : 1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight 2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained 3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made The combination regrouping all the correct answers is :

a)

2, 3.

b)

1, 2.

c)

1, 2, 3.

d)

1, 3.

27.

In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

a)

Shuttle.

b)

Based turn.

c)

Racetrack pattern.

d)

Procedure turn.

28.

Where an operational advantage can be obtained, an ILS procedure may include a dead reckoning segment from a fix to the localizer. The DR track will:

a)

Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 10 NM in length

b)

Intersect the localizer at 30° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

c)

Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 5 NM in length.

d)

Intersect the localizer at 45° and will not be more 10 NM in length.

29.

Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

a)

150m (492 ft).

b)

300m (984 ft).

c)

450m (1476 ft).

d)

600m (1968 ft).

30.

In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which aligment and descent for landing are made is called:

a)

Final approach segment

b)

nitial approach segment.

c)

Intermediate approach segment.

d)

Arrival segment.

31.

In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

a)

FAF.

b)

FAP.

c)

MAP.

d)

IF.

32.

In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above runway elevation from

a)

150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).

b)

300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

c)

300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

d)

150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

33.

In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset track is limited to:

a)

1 minute 30 seconds.

b)

1 minute.

c)

2 minutes.

d)

3 minutes.

34.

How many separate segments has an instrument approach procedure.

a)

3.

b)

Up to 5.

c)

4.

d)

Up to 4.

35.

Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure commence?

a)

At the IF.

b)

At the IAF.

c)

At the FAF.

d)

At the final en-route fix.

36.

Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure?

a)

At least 300m (984 ft).

b)

150m (492 ft).

c)

300m (984 ft).

d)

At least 150m (492 ft).

37.

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft fo

a)

1 minute.

b)

1 minute 15 seconds

c)

1minute 30 seconds.

d)

2 minutes.

38.

In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is

performed from the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:

a)

1 minute 30 seconds.

b)

1 minute.

c)

1 minute 15 seconds.

d)

2 minutes.

39.

In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track,

more than:

a)

One and a half of scale deflection.

b)

One scale deflection.

c)

A quarter of scale deflection.

d)

Half a scale deflection.

40.

In a precision approach (ILS), the OCA or OCH values are based among other standard conditions, on a vertical distance between the flight paths of the wheels and glide path antenna, not greater than:

a)

6m

b)

3m

c)

9m

d)

12m

41.

Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

a)

Arrival, intermediate and final.

b)

Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.

c)

Initial, intermediate and final.

d)

Initial and final.

42.

Normally missed approach procedures are based on a nominal missed approach

climb gradient of:

a)

0.8%.

b)

2.5%.

c)

3.3%.

d)

5%

43.

Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

a)

At the point where the climb is established.

b)

At the missed approach point.

c)

At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be maintained.

d)

At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.

44.

The term used to discribe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not

suitably located for straigh-in approach, is:

a)

Contact approach.

b)

Visual approach.

c)

Visual manoeuvring (circling).

d)

Aerodrome traffic pattern.

45.

It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a

prominent obstcle exists in the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final

approach and missed approach area. When this option is exercised, the published

procedure:

a)

Prohibits circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

b)

Permits circling only in VMC.

c)

Recommends not to perform circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists.

d)

Prohibits the circling approach to the affected runway.

46.

When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle id 1632 clearance altitude/height (OCA/H) is determined:

a)

Only for categories A and B aircraft.

b)

For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

c)

Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.

d)

For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.

47.

A circling approach is:

a)

A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.

b)

A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

c)

A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.

d)

A contact flight manoeuvre.

48.

If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is

expected that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:

a)

Landing runway.

b)

MAP

c)

FAF

d)

Final missed approach track.

49.

Obstacle clearance for an ILS approach is based on the assumption that the pilot does not deviate from the centre line more than :

a)

half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator and horizontal 35 ° off the centerline.

b)

full scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

c)

half scale deflection of the localizer indicator.

d)

full scale deflection of the localizer indicator and half scale deflection of the glidepath indicator.

50.

Who establishes the OCA/H (Obstacle Clearance Altitude/Height) for an approach

procedure?

a)

the "flight-operations" of the company

b)

the operator

c)

the pilot-in-command ;

d)

the state

51.

On a non-precision approach a so-called "straight-in-approach" is considered acceptable, if the angle between the final approach track and the runway

centreline is :

a)

40 degrees or less

b)

30 degrees or less

c)

20 degrees or less

d)

10 degrees or less

52.

Normally, the maximum descent gradient, applicable in the final approach segment

to ensure the required minimum obstacle clearance, is :

a)

8%.

b)

5%.

c)

7%.

d)

6,5%.

53.

The primary area of an instrument approach segment is :

a)

the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very carefully;

b)

A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full obstacle

clearance is provided.

c)

the first part of the segment ;

d)

the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from o ft to the appropriate minimum

54.

In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at least :

a)

decreasing from 984 to 492 ft

b)

1476 ft

c)

492ft

d)

984 ft

55.

If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre,

a)

Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling alitude

b)

Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual conctact

c)

If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact

d)

Initiate a missed approach

56.

What action should be taken if contact is los with the aerodrome on the down wind leg?

a)

Request an amended clearance

b)

Descend to OCL/ACH and in the hope that the visibility is better at a lower altitude

c)

Maintain your circling altitude and turn towards the aerodrome

d)

Initiate a missed approach

57.

During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial approach segment primary area is equal to :

a)

120 m (394 ft)

b)

300 m (984 ft)

c)

210 m (690 ft)

d)

150 m (492 ft)

58.

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

a)

90 m (295 ft)

b)

50 m (164 ft)

c)

30m(98ft)

d)

120 m (384 ft)

59.

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum

obstacle clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

a)

50 m (164 ft)

b)

30m(98ft)

c)

90 m (295 ft)

d)

120 m (384 ft)

60.

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

a)

120 m (384 ft)

b)

30m(98ft)

c)

90 m (295 ft)

d)

50 m (164 ft)

61.

During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

a)

120 m (384 ft)

b)

30m(98ft)

c)

90 m (295 ft)

d)

50 m (164 ft)

62.

A "precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...

a)

using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance information.

b)

using bearing, elevation and distance information.

c)

using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an

autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.

d)

carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.

63.

Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC

charts are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

a)

2%

b)

2.5%

c)

5%

d)

3.3%

64.

Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the

IAF. These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

a)

5NM

b)

20 NM

c)

10NM

d)

25 NM

65.

The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is :

a)

±12.5NM

b)

± 10 NM

c)

±5NM

d)

±2.5NM

66.

In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

a)

the OCH

b)

200 ft

c)

350ft

d)

400 ft

67.

For a category I precision approach, the decision height cannot be lower than :

a)

150ft

b)

250 ft

c)

200ft

d)

100 ft

68.

(IR) Minimum sector altitudes published on approach charts provide at least the

following obstacle clearance:

a)

300 m within 25 km of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome.

b)

300 m within 25 nm of the homing facility associated with the approach procedure for that aerodrome.

c)

300mwithin25kmoftheFAForFAP

d)

300 m within 25 nm of the initial approach fix.