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Cardiology and Critical Care Dosing

Total questions: 31

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

SS presents to the clinic with symptoms of acute ischemic stroke. What is the dose of t-PA?

a)

IV: 0.9mg/kg (max total dose 100mg)

Give 10% IV push over 1 minutes followed by 90% over 1 hour

b)

IV: 0.9mg/kg (max total dose 90mg)

Give 10% IV push over 1 minutes followed by 90% over 1 hour

c)

IV: 0.9mg/kg (max total dose 90mg)

Give 90% IV push over 1 minutes followed by 10% over 1 hour

d)

IV: 0.9mg/kg (max total dose 150mg)

Give 10% IV push over 1 minutes followed by 90% over 1 hour

2.

LM presents to the clinic with symptoms of v.fib. What is the appropriate treatment dose?

a)

Amiodarone

150mg IV over 10 min

then 1mg/min IV infusion for 6 hours

Followed by 0.5mg/minute for 18 additional hours then switch to PO therapy

b)

Amiodarone

1500mg IV over 10 min

then 10mg/min IV infusion for 6 hours

Followed by 0.05mg/minute for 18 additional hours then switch to PO therapy

c)

Amiodarone

15mg IV over 10 min

then 0.1mg/min IV infusion for 6 hours

Followed by 0.05mg/minute for 18 additional hours then switch to PO therapy

d)

Amiodarone

1.5mg IV over 10 min

then 1.5mg/min IV infusion for 6 hours

Followed by 0.25mg/minute for 18 additional hours then switch to PO therapy

3.

What is the dose of Atropine for bradycardia?

a)

IV, IM: 0.05mg q3-5 min; max total dose: 0.3mg

b)

IV, IM: 0.25mg q3-5 min; max total dose: 0.3mg

c)

IV, IM: 5mg q3-5 min; max total dose: 30mg

d)

IV, IM: 0.5mg q3-5 min; max total dose: 3mg

4.

What is the proper dose of Buprenex for moderate to severe pain?

a)

Slow IV: 30mg q6-8h prn

b)

Fast IV: 30mg q6-8h prn

c)

Slow IV: 0.3mg q6-8h prn

d)

Fast IV: 0.3mg q6-8h prn

5.

What is the treatment dose of Stadol for pain management?

a)

IV: 1mg, may repeat every 3-4 hours prn

b)

IV: 10mg, may repeat every 3-4 hours prn

c)

IV: 2mg, may repeat every 3-4 hours prn

d)

IV: 3mg, may repeat every 3-4 hours prn

6.

What is the proper treatment dose of Platinol for ovarian cancer?

a)

Cisplatin 10mg/m2 q4weeks

b)

Cisplatin 1mg/m2 q4weeks

c)

Cisplatin 100mg/m2 q4weeks

d)

Cisplatin 1000mg/m2 q4weeks

7.

What is the proper dose of Dantrolene for malignant hyperthermia?

a)

IV: 0.5mg/kg continuously repeat dose until symptoms subside

b)

IV: 0.25mg/kg continuously repeat dose until symptoms subside

c)

IV: 25mg/kg continuously repeat dose until symptoms subside

d)

IV: 2.5mg/kg continuously repeat dose until symptoms subside

8.

Which of the following is true in regards to Aranesp (Darbepoetin) for anemia due to CKD for pt ON DIALYSIS?

a)

Reduce dose if hemoglobin approaches or exceeds 11g/dL

b)

IV, SubQ: 0.45mcg/kg once weekly

c)

0.75 mcg/kg q2 wks

d)

All of the above

9.

What is the proper dose of dexamethasone for adrenal crisis?

a)

40-100 as single dose, repeated if necessary

b)

1-4mg as single dose, repeated if necessary

c)

4-10mg as single dose, repeated if necessary

d)

0.1-0.4 as single dose, repeated if necessary

10.

What is the appropriate dose of Lanoxin for a.fib?

a)

0.50mg with repeat dosing to a max of 1.5mg over 24 hours followed by oral maintenance regimen

b)

25mg with repeat dosing to a max of 15mg over 24 hours followed by oral maintenance regimen

c)

0.025mg with repeat dosing to a max of 1.05mg over 24 hours followed by oral maintenance regimen

d)

0.25mg with repeat dosing to a max of 1.5mg over 24 hours followed by oral maintenance regimen

11.

What is the initial dose of Dobutamine for cardiac decompensation?

a)

0.1-2mcg/kg/min

b)

0.5-1mcg/kg/min

c)

5-10mcg/kg/min

d)

10-15mcg/kg/min

12.

What is the appropriate dose of Anzemet for postoperative nausea and vomiting?

a)

IV: 12.5mg ~15 min before cessation of anesthesia

b)

IV: 25mg ~15 min before cessation of anesthesia

c)

IV: 1.25 ~15 min before cessation of anesthesia

d)

IV: 5mg ~ 15 min before cessation of anesthesia

13.

What is the appropriate dose of Dopamine for hemodynamic support?

a)

0.5mcg/kg/min (max: 10mcg/kg/min)

b)

1mcg/kg/min (max: 20mcg/kg/min)

c)

2-20mcg/kg/min (max: 50mcg/kg/min)

d)

25mcg/kg/min (max: 100mcg/kg/min)

14.

What is the appropriate dose of Inapsine for acute undifferentiated agitation?

a)

Initial 250mg-1000mg as monotherapy or in combo with BZD (max dose: 2000mg per episode)

b)

Initial 0.25mg-5mg as monotherapy or in combo with BZD (max dose: 10mg per episode)

c)

Initial 25mg-100mg as monotherapy or in combo with BZD (max dose: 20mg per episode)

d)

Initial 2.5mg-10mg as monotherapy or in combo with BZD (max dose: 20mg per episode)

15.

What is appropriate dose of Epinephrine for asystole/pulseless arrest. pulseless VT/VF?

a)

10mg q3-5 min until spontaneous circulation

b)

1mg q3-5 min until spontaneous circulation

c)

0.5mg q3-5 min until spontaneous circulation

d)

100mg q3-5 min until spontaneous circulation

16.

What is the appropriate dose of Neupogen for bone marrow transplantation?

a)

IV infusion: 1.5mcg/kg/day (more than 24 hours after chemo and bone marrow infusion)

b)

IV infusion: 15mcg/kg/day (more than 24 hours after chemo and bone marrow infusion)

c)

IV infusion: 100mcg/kg/day (more than 24 hours after chemo and bone marrow infusion)

d)

IV infusion: 10mcg/kg/day (more than 24 hours after chemo and bone marrow infusion)

17.

What is the appropriate treatment of Normodyne for hypertensive emergency?

a)

0.5mg-1mg IV push over 2 min (max: 30mg)

b)

10mg-20mg IV push over 2 min (max: 300mg)

c)

100mg-200mg IV push over 2 min (max: 3000mg)

d)

1mg-2mg IV push over 2 min (max: 30mg)

18.

What is the appropriate treatment of folate-deficiency megaloblastic anemia with Wellcovorin?

a)

≤ 1mg QD

b)

≤ 10mg QD

c)

≤ 100mg QD

d)

≤ 5mg QD

19.

What is the appropriate treatment for VF or pulseless VT for Xylocaine?

a)

0.5mg/kg IV/IO

b)

15mg/kg IV/IO

c)

1-1.5mg/kg IV/IO

d)

5mg/kg IV/IO

20.

What is the appropriate treatment for MI with Metoprolol?

a)

25mg every 5 min as tolerated for up to 3 doses

b)

50mg every 5 min as tolerated for up to 3 doses

c)

5mg every 5 min as tolerated for up to 3 doses

d)

15mg every 5 min as tolerated for up to 3 doses

21.

What is the appropriate treatment of inotropic support in heart failure with Milrinone?

a)

500mcg/kg admin over 10 min followed by maintenance dose

b)

20mcg/kg admin over 10 min followed by maintenance dose

c)

15mcg/kg admin over 10 min followed by maintenance dose

d)

50mcg/kg admin over 10 min followed by maintenance dose

22.

What is the appropriate treatment of angina with Tridil?

a)

5mcg/min, increase by 5mcg/min every 3-5mins to 20mcg/min

b)

50mcg/min, increase by 5mcg/min every 3-5mins to 200mcg/min

c)

2mcg/min, increase by 5mcg/min every 3-5mins to 5mcg/min

d)

20mcg/min, increase by 5mcg/min every 3-5mins to 50mcg/min

23.

What is the appropriate treatment of hypotension/shock with Levophed?

a)

8-12 mcg/min; titrate to desired response

MD: 2-4 mcg/min

b)

2-4 mcg/min; titrate to desired response

MD: 8-12 mcg/min

c)

5 mcg/min; titrate to desired response

MD: 2-4 mcg/min

d)

20 mcg/min; titrate to desired response

MD: 10 mcg/min

24.

What is the appropriate treatment of hypotension/shock with phenylephrine?

a)

IV bolus: 1-5mcg/dose q10-15 min prn

b)

IV bolus: 10-50mcg/dose q10-15 min prn

c)

IV bolus: 100-500mcg/dose q10-15 min prn

d)

IV bolus: 0.5mcg/dose q10-15 min prn

25.

What is the appropriate treatment of hypokalemia with Potassium Chloride?

a)

Peripheral or central line: ≤20 mEq/hour; repeat as needed based on lab values

b)

Peripheral or central line: ≤1 mEq/hour; repeat as needed based on lab values

c)

Peripheral or central line: ≤100 mEq/hour; repeat as needed based on lab values

d)

Peripheral or central line: ≤10 mEq/hour; repeat as needed based on lab values

26.

What is the appropriate treatment of ventricular arrhythmias with Procainamide?

a)

Maintenance infusion: 20-60mg/min by continuous infusion

b)

Maintenance infusion: 2-6mg/min by continuous infusion

c)

Maintenance infusion: 10mg/min by continuous infusion

d)

Maintenance infusion: 60mg/min by continuous infusion

27.

What is the appropriate treatment of a.fib with propanolol?

a)

5mg/dose slow IVP

b)

10mg/dose slow IVP

c)

1-3mg/dose slow IVP

d)

30mg/dose slow IVP

28.

What of the following is treat based on the treatment of heparin overdose with protamine

a)

1mg of protamine neutralizes 100 units of heparin

b)

Immediate dose of protamine is 1-1.5mg

c)

Immediate dose of protamine if 10-15mg

d)

Options 1 and 2 are correct

29.

What is the appropriate treatment of acute MI with streptokinase?

a)

IV single dose of 5 million units infused over 1 hour ASAP after onset of symptoms

b)

IV single dose of 3 million units infused over 1 hour ASAP after onset of symptoms

c)

IV single dose of 2 million units infused over 1 hour ASAP after onset of symptoms

d)

IV single dose of 1.5 million units infused over 1 hour ASAP after onset of symptoms

30.

Which of the following is correct regarding the treatment of APAP overdose with Mucomyst

a)

21-hour regimen: consist of 3 doses; total dose delivered 300mg/kg

b)

LD: 150mg/kg (max 15g) infused over 1 hour

c)

Second dose: 50mg/kg (max 5g) infused over 4 hours

d)

Third dose: 100mg/kg (max 10g) infused over 16 hours

e)

All of the above are correct

31.

Which of the following is correct regarding adenosine for the treatment of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia?

a)

IV rapid infusion over 1-2 seconds via peripheral line

b)

Initial: 6mg; if not effective within 1-2 min, 12mg may be given

c)

Adenosine is a class IV antiarrhythmic agent

d)

All of the above are correct