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College Biology Evaluation #4 Vocabulary Review

Total questions: 112

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

DNA and associated proteins that are packaged into a set.

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Nucleosome

2.

DNA and proteins that have the appearance of thin threads.

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Nucleosome

3.

A structural unit of a eukaryotic chromosome, consisting of a length of DNA coiled around a core of histones.

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Nucleosome

4.

Identical halves of a duplicated chromosome.

a)

Chromatin

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Sister chromatids

d)

Nucleosome

5.

Protein molecules of chromatin.

a)

Histone

b)

Centromere

c)

Centrosome

d)

Nucleosome

6.

A constricted region of a chromosome where sister chromatids attach.

a)

Histone

b)

Centromere

c)

Centrosome

d)

Nucleosome

7.

The primary microtubule organizing center of the cell that generates the spindle.

a)

Histone

b)

Centromere

c)

Centrosome

d)

Nucleosome

8.

The middle of the spindle where the spindle overlap.

a)

Spindle equator

b)

Aster

c)

Cleavage furrow

d)

Cell plate

9.

Array of microtubules found on the poles of cells.

a)

Spindle equator

b)

Aster

c)

Cleavage furrow

d)

Cell plate

10.

Ring of actin fibers draws the cell membrane in two leading to cytokinesis.

a)

Spindle equator

b)

Aster

c)

Cleavage furrow

d)

Cell plate

11.

A collection of vesicles produced by the Golgi that eventually become a new cell membrane between the nuclei of a divided plant cell.

a)

Spindle equator

b)

Aster

c)

Cleavage furrow

d)

Cell plate

12.

A rapidly dividing mammalian cell, such as an adult stem cell, typically take only a few hours to complete the cell cycle.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Plant cells have a centrosome, but lack centrioles.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Proper growth signals must be present; the integrity of the cell's DNA is checked; p53 can stop the cell cycle and initiate repair or apoptosis.

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

G2 checkpoint

c)

Mitotic stage checkpoint

15.

Cell verifies that DNA has replicated, DNA damage is fixed (if exposed to sun or X-rays).

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

G2 checkpoint

c)

Mitotic stage checkpoint

16.

Cell cycle hesitates between metaphase and anaphase to make sure all chromosomes are attached to the spindle.

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

G2 checkpoint

c)

Mitotic stage checkpoint

17.

A molecule that stimulates or inhibits and event in the cell.

a)

Signal

b)

Kinases

c)

Cyclins

18.

Remove phosphates from ATP and add it to another molecule

a)

Signal

b)

Kinases

c)

Cyclins

19.

Proteins only present during the cell cycle. These combine with kinases to activate proteins that drive the cell cycle as well as an enzyme that destroys that cyclin.

a)

Signal

b)

Kinases

c)

Cyclins

20.

Programmed cell death.

a)

Apoptosis

b)

Contact inhibition

21.

Body cells.

a)

Somatic Cells

b)

Germ Cells

22.

Tumor that is encapsulated prevent cancerous cells from spreading.

a)

Benign tumor

b)

Malignant tumor

23.

The use of high energy sources to damage the DNA of rapidly growing cells.

a)

Radiation therapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Hormone therapy

24.

The use of chemicals to damage the DNA of rapidly growing cells.

a)

Radiation therapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Hormone therapy

25.

The use of drugs to block signals necessary for the continued growth and division of cancer cells.

a)

Radiation therapy

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Hormone therapy

26.

Modifies the receptor for estrogen so that this hormone cannot bind and promote the cell cycle.

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Taxol

c)

Vinblastine

27.

Extracted from the bark of the Pacific Yew, this substance prevents the proper formation of spindle.

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Taxol

c)

Vinblastine

28.

First discovered in the periwinkle, this compound prevents spindle from forming.

a)

Tamoxifen

b)

Taxol

c)

Vinblastine

29.

The formation of male reproductive cells.

a)

Spermatogenesis

b)

Oogenesis

30.

The two sister chromatids that remain after meiosis I.

a)

Dyad

b)

Tetrad

31.

The result of synapsis.

a)

Dyad

b)

Tetrad

32.

Homologous chromosomes fail to properly separate.

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Trisomy

c)

Monosomy

d)

Barr Body

33.

A cell that contains three copies of one type of chromosome.

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Trisomy

c)

Monosomy

d)

Barr Body

34.

A cell that contains one copy of a particular chromosome.

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Trisomy

c)

Monosomy

d)

Barr Body

35.

An inactive X-chromosome that appears as a dark staining spot along the margin of the nucleus of a female cell.

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Trisomy

c)

Monosomy

d)

Barr Body

36.

Trisomy 21. Disorder characterized by short stature, an eyelid fold, stubby fingers, and wide gap between the first and second toe, large, fissured tongue; round head; palm crease; and mental disabilities that can range from mild to severe.

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Klinefelter Syndrome

37.

45, XO. Female with a single X chromosome. Individuals are short, broad chested, have a webbed neck, do not undergo puberty or breast development.

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Klinefelter Syndrome

38.

47, XXY. Males with underdeveloped testes and prostate gland. No facial hair and modest breast development. Large hands and feet along with very long arms. Slow to learn but not mentally handicap unless they inherit more then 2 X chromosomes.

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Turner Syndrome

c)

Klinefelter Syndrome

39.

Particular location along a chromosome.

a)

Locus

b)

Homozygous

c)

Heterozygous

40.

Two identical alleles

a)

Locus

b)

Homozygous

c)

Heterozygous

41.

Heterozygote is an intermediate phenotype between either homozygote.

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Polygenic

d)

Pleiotropy

42.

When a trait is controlled by two or more sets of alleles.

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Polygenic

d)

Pleiotropy

43.

A single gene having more than one affect.

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Polygenic

d)

Pleiotropy

44.

Which variable will determine the coat color in Himalayan rabbits?

a)

the genetics will determine it 100%

b)

the environment will determine it 100%

c)

both the genetics and environment will determine the coat color

d)

neither the environment or genes will play a role in determining coat color

45.

Skin color is coded for by several different genes which results in a range of skin colors from very dark to very light. This is an example of

a)

a multifactorial trait.

b)

polygenic inheritance.

c)

pleiotropy.

d)

codominance.

e)

incomplete dominance.

46.

Sickle cell disease is caused by a single mutation in the DNA of a particular gene. A person with this disease has red blood cells that lose their original donut shape and form a sickle shape. People with this disorder suffer from a variety of symptoms such as low energy levels, blood clots, and strokes. This is an example of

a)

a multifactorial trait.

b)

polygenic inheritance.

c)

pleiotropy.

d)

codominance.

e)

incomplete dominance.

47.

The garden pea was a good model for Mendel's genetics experiments. Which of the following is NOT true regarding this model organism?

a)

The plants were easy to grow.

b)

Pea plants can either cross-pollinate or self-pollinate.

c)

There was only one variety of pea available to Mendel.

d)

The plants had several traits that were easily identified.

48.

Which of the following is NOT true with regard to the law of segregation?

a)

Each individual has 2 factors for each trait.

b)

Genes segregate during gamete formation.

c)

Gametes contain only 1 gene from each pair.

d)

Each gamete contains 2 genes for each trait.

49.

Alleles are

a)

dominant traits.

b)

recessive traits.

c)

exact copies of the same trait.

d)

alternate versions of the same trait.

50.

If a heterozygous dominant tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant, what is the expected phenotypic ratio of tall: short plants?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

3:1

d)

all tall

51.

What are all possible gametes that can be produced by an individual with the following genotype, FFGg?

a)

Fg, FG

b)

FG, Fg, fG, fg

c)

FF

d)

Fg

52.

In a dihybrid cross where both parents are heterozygous, the phenotypic ratio is

a)

1:2:1.

b)

9:3:3:1.

c)

1:1

d)

3:1.

53.

Martha has a widow's peak and attached earlobes (both caused by dominant traits). Martha's dad had a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. What is Martha's genotype?

a)

WWEE

b)

WwEE

c)

WwEe

d)

Wwee

54.

Martha has widow's peak and attached earlobes. Martha's dad had a straight hairline and unattached earlobes. If Martha marries a man that is heterozygous for both traits, what is the probability that they will have a child with a widow's peak and attached earlobes?

a)

1/16

b)

1/8

c)

1/4

d)

1/2

55.

A cow with black and white patches is produced from a white bull and a black cow. This is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance.

b)

codominance.

c)

dominance/recessive trait.

d)

polygenic.

56.

A woman with Type AB blood marries a man with Type B blood whose mother was type O. If they have children, what are all the possible blood types for these individuals?

a)

AB only

b)

AB, AA, AO, and BO

c)

AB, BB, AO, and BO

d)

AA, BB, and AB

57.

A homozygous red-eyed female Drosophila mates with a red-eyed male Drosophila. What proportion of the female offspring will have white eyes?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

58.

A red-eyed male Drosophila mates with a red-eyed female Drosophila. One of the female's parents had white eyes. What proportion of the male offspring will have white eyes?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

59.

Vitamin-D resistant rickets is a sex-linked dominant trait, which leads to softening of the bones which can cause fractures and deformities. Rickets is often due to a deficiency of vitamin D, however, with vitamin-D resistant rickets, ingestion of vitamin D is ineffective. Maria's mother is normal and does not display any symptoms of this disease; however, Maria's father has the disease. Maria marries a man that does not have the disease. What is the probability that they will have a daughter that has the disease?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

60.

Linked genes

a)

always assort independently.

b)

undergo crossing over of sister chromatids at a high rate.

c)

are found on homologous chromosomes.

d)

tend to be close together on a single chromosome.

61.

The distance between the alleles for one trait and the alleles for a second trait are called

a)

map units.

b)

gap distance.

c)

dominant distance.

d)

gene loci.

62.

Both parents are heterozygous for Tay-Sachs disease (an autosomal recessive disorder). Three children in a row were born with Tay-Sachs disease. What is the chance that a fourth child will have Tay-Sachs disease?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

e)

100%

63.

Traits that are controlled by several sets or pairs of alleles, such as skin color and height in humans, are the result of what form of inheritance?

a)

polygenic

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

multiple allele systems

d)

codominance

64.

Particular location along a chromosome.

a)

Locus

b)

Genotype

c)

Phenotype

d)

Pleiotropy

65.

The alleles received at fertilization

a)

Locus

b)

Genotype

c)

Phenotype

d)

Pleiotropy

66.

A single gene having more than one affect.

a)

Locus

b)

Genotype

c)

Phenotype

d)

Pleiotropy

67.

Part of a chromosome is lost during DNA replication.

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

68.

A segment of a chromosome is copied.

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

69.

Part of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches to a chromosome changing its code.

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

70.

Part of another chromosome is inserted into a non homologous chromosome.

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Inversion

d)

Translocation

71.

Which molecules make up the backbone of DNA (there are two)?

a)

deoxyribose sugar

b)

ribose sugar

c)

phosphate

d)

nitrogenous bases

72.

When DNA is replicated, _____. (check all that apply)

a)

one half of the DNA strand in the original

b)

one half of the DNA strand is new

c)

the DNA is identical to the original molecule

d)

the DNA is nearly identical, however uracil replaces thymine.

e)

the DNA contains many mutations compared to the old strand.

73.

tRNA is found in the cytoplasm of the cell.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Where are ribosomes found in a cell? Check all that apply.

a)

cytoplasm

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nucleus

d)

Golgi apparatus

e)

secretory vesicles

75.

What function do ribosomes perform for the cell?

a)

make proteins

b)

store genetic information

c)

package and ship proteins

d)

synthesize lipids

76.

How many mRNA codons can occupy the ribosome at a time?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

77.

What do tRNA's deliver to the ribosome?

a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

fatty acids

d)

nucleotides

78.

When you were linking amino acids together to build a protein, eventually there was no tRNA that would match the mRNA sequence. This is ended the production of the protein. This is called ___.

a)

initiation

b)

elongation

c)

termination

79.

A mutation in which one base (letter) in the mRNA sequence is replaced with another (such as Guanine being replaced by Uracil).

a)

substitution

b)

deletion

c)

insertion

80.

Deoxyribose

a)

Part 1

b)

Part 2

c)

Part 4

d)

Part 5

81.

Phosphate

a)

Part 1

b)

Part 2

c)

Part 4

d)

Part 5

82.

Adenine

a)

Part 6

b)

Part 7

c)

Part 4

d)

Part 5

83.

Thymine

a)

Part 8

b)

Part 7

c)

Part 4

d)

Part 5

84.

Guanine

a)

Part 8

b)

Part 7

c)

Part 3

d)

Part 1

85.

Cytosine

a)

Part 8

b)

Part 7

c)

Part 3

d)

Part 1

86.

Part #1

a)

Uracil

b)

Adenine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

87.

Part #2

a)

Uracil

b)

Adenine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

88.

Part #3

a)

Ribose

b)

Adenine

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

89.

Part #4

a)

Ribose

b)

Phosphate

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

90.

Part #5

a)

Ribose

b)

Phosphate

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

91.

Part #6

a)

Ribose

b)

Phosphate

c)

Guanine

d)

Cytosine

92.

When DNA replicates, which of these enzymes directs the reassembly of each half of the DNA strand into two new strands?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Helicase

93.

Is this a model of DNA or RNA?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

94.

Is this a model of DNA or RNA?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

95.

When RNA is made from DNA during transcription, this enzyme is responsible for building the mRNA strand.

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

Ligase

d)

Helicase

96.

Which class of nitrogen bases are larger molecules: Purines or Pyrimidines?

a)

Purines

b)

Pyrimidines

97.

Which of these is NOT part of a nucleotide?

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

base

d)

amino

98.

A homologous pair of chromosomes are two chromosomes of the same _

a)

size

b)

shape

c)

size and shape

99.

The structure that holds a duplicated homologous chromosome together (seen in the illustration below and labeled "Q" is called the _.

a)

centromere

b)

sister chromatid

c)

chromatin

100.

Most onion cells you observed using the online resource were in _, since it is the longest phase in the cell cycle.

a)

interphase

b)

prophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

e)

telophase

101.

The man credited with the formulation of the basic laws of heredity still used by geneticists today is _

a)

Gregor Mendel

b)

Robert Brown

c)

Anton Van Leeuwenhoek

d)

Zacharias Janssen

102.

If yellow seeds (Q) are dominant and green seeds (q) are recessive, what is the expected phenotypes ratio in a cross between two plants that are both heterozygous (Qq).

a)

4:0

b)

1:1

c)

1:2:1

d)

3:1

103.

What is the genotype of the yellow parent?

a)

Homozygous dominant

b)

Homozygous recessive

c)

Hetrozygous

104.

Which chromosome group are these? Large chromosomes with centromeres in the center.

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group D

105.

Which chromosome group are these? Large chromosomes with centromeres slightly off center.

a)

Group A

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group D

106.

Which chromosome group are these? Mid-size chromosomes with centromeres slightly off center.

a)

Group E

b)

Group B

c)

Group C

d)

Group D

107.

Which chromosome group are these? Smaller chromosomes with centromeres near one end giving them a bottle like appearance.

a)

Group E

b)

Group F

c)

Group C

d)

Group D

108.

Which chromosome group are these? Small chromosomes with centromeres in the center

a)

Group E

b)

Group F

c)

Group G

d)

Group D

109.

Which chromosome group are these? Small chromosomes with centromeres near the end of the chromosome giving a bottle like appearance.

a)

Group E

b)

Group F

c)

Group G

d)

Group H

110.

Humans have 46 pairs of chromosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

111.

Which chromosome group is the female "X" chromosome found?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

112.

The male "Y" chromosome is found in this chromosome group.

a)

E

b)

F

c)

G

d)

H