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Honors Bio Practice Final Exam Fall Semester

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Arrange the following from largest to smallest

a)

cell, amino acid, nitrogen atom, proton

b)

amino acid, cell, proton, nitrogen atom

c)

proton, nitrogen atom, amino acid, cell

d)

cell, nitrogen atom, proton, amino acid

2.

How are a theory and a hypothesis different?

a)

a hypothesis has been tested and accepted by the scientific community, based on evidence, and could potentially change in the future

b)

there is no difference... they can be used interchangeably

c)

a theory has been tested and accepted by the scientific community, based on evidence, and could potentially change in the future

d)

a hypothesis is testable and a theory is not

3.

A student wants to test the effect of different types of fertilizers on apple tree growth. What should the control group be in this experiment?

a)

apple trees that receive fertilizer

b)

apple trees that do not receive any fertilizer

c)

the type of soil used for each group

d)

the amount of sunlight each tree is exposed to

4.

A strong hypothesis should contain all of the following except

a)

An "if statement" explaining what will be done in the experiment

b)

A "then statement" explaining what the scientist thinks will occur

c)

A "because statement" explaining why the scientist thinks this will occur based on research and data

d)

all of these should be included in a strong hypothesis

5.

Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?

a)

there are six kittens

b)

one kitten has a tail that measures 13 cm in length

c)

all of the kittens are either black or black and white

d)

one kitten has only three limbs

6.

A new blood pressure medication is being tested on volunteers in a scientific study. What would the independent and dependent variables be in this study?

a)

IV: patient's blood pressure

DV: blood pressure medication

b)

IV: number of participants in the study

DV: blood pressure medication

c)

IV: the hospital that the study is conducted in

DV: patient's blood pressure

d)

IV: blood pressure medication

DV: patient's blood pressure

7.

A study in conducted to examine if adding coconut oil to a dog's normal food can help reduce arthritis symptoms. What would the control group be in this study?

a)

the dogs receiving the food without coconut oil

b)

the dogs receiving the food with the coconut oil

c)

the type of coconut oil used

d)

the brand of dog food used

8.

A student conducts an experiment to examine what impact changing hours slept, vitamins consumed, and hours spent exercising has on his test scores in biology. What is wrong with this experiment?

a)

nothing

b)

too many independent variables, should only test one at a time

c)

the dependent variable is not able to be calculated

d)

vitamins are considered a "performance enhancing drug" and are banned by schools. Therefore, the experiment is unethical

9.

All of the chemical reactions in an organism (such as building and breaking down molecules) is classified as

a)

equilibrium

b)

dehydration synthesis

c)

hydrolysis reactions

d)

metabolism

10.

Which element is able to bond with 4 different atoms, form a variety of different structures, and form single/double/triple bonds?

a)

hydrogen

b)

carbon

c)

oxygen

d)

neon

11.

Which is NOT one of the most common elements in biological molecules?

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

oxygen

d)

nitrogen

e)

potassium

12.

which part of the atom is NOT found in the nucleus of it?

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

neutrons

13.

Organic compounds (containing carbon) will typically form this type of bond

a)

ionic

b)

hydrogen

c)

covalent

d)

sulfur

14.

Which type of bond transfers electrons?

a)

covalent

b)

ionic

15.

In order for a covalent bond to be considered polar the electrons must

a)

be shared unequally (which results in partial positive and negative charges)

b)

be shared equally (which does not result in partial positive and negative charges)

c)

be transferred completely

d)

not form bonds at all

16.

Bonds that form BETWEEN water molecules as a result of the partial positive and negative charges are called

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

sulfur bonds

d)

peptide bonds

17.

Which types of bonds are found between the nitrogenous based in nucleic acids (DNA and RNA)?

a)

ionic bonds

b)

peptide bonds

c)

covalent bonds

d)

hydrogen bonds

18.

Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of monomer to polymer?

a)

glucose, glycogen

b)

amino acid, protein

c)

nucleotide, RNA

d)

triglyceride, carbohydrate

19.

_____________ is the breakdown of polymers into monomers and ____________ is the formation of polymers from monomers

a)

dehydration synthesis, hydrolysis

b)

disulfide bonds, hydrolysis

c)

hydrolysis, dehydration synthesis

d)

dehydration synthesis, peptide bonds

20.

Which biological molecule are the cell membrane channels made out of that allow for facilitated diffusion and active transport?

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

21.

Which biological molecule are enzymes (to help catalyze chemical reactions) made out of?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

nucleic acids

d)

lipids

22.

What is the empirical formula (ratio of elements) for carbohydrates?

a)

C1 H2 O1

b)

C2 H1 O2

c)

C1 H2 O2

d)

C2 H1 O1

23.

What is the main energy source for cells?

a)

triglycerides

b)

proteins

c)

glucose

d)

carbon dioxide

24.

The polysaccharide that animals use to store glucose is _________ and the polysaccharide that plants use to store glucose is __________.

a)

starch, cellulose

b)

cellulose, glycogen

c)

starch, cellulose

d)

glycogen, starch

25.

Which is NOT found in the cell membrane?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

nucleic acids

26.

The monomers of proteins are called _________. All 20 of these have the exact same structure except for the "R" group/functional group.

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleic acids

c)

monosaccharides

d)

triglycerides

27.

During protein synthesis amino acids are bonded together by _______ bonds which will form a ________________.

a)

peptide, polypeptide

b)

disulfide, polydisulfide

c)

hydrogen, polygon

d)

ionic, polyionic chain

28.

Many polypeptide chains are added together in the golgi apparatus after they are produced at the ribosome to assemble a larger protein. This level of protein structure is called

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

29.

This lowers activation energy, is substrate-specific, and reusable in multiple reactions.

a)

enzymes

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

hydrogen bonds

d)

cell membrane protein channels

30.

What is the term for when enzymes that are build out of proteins have their shape altered by changes in temperature or pH?

a)

substrate

b)

denaturing

c)

active site

d)

buffer

31.

What does the enzyme bind with in a reaction?

a)

substrate

b)

product

c)

cell membrane

d)

nucleotides

32.

Why won't an enzyme function properly after it has been denatured by extreme conditions?

a)

the shape of the enzyme changes so that it won't fit with the substrate anymore

b)

the extreme conditions allow the reaction to happen normally, but then destroy the products after

c)

the extreme conditions result in too many substrates being produced and the enzymes can't keep up with the demands

d)

none of these

33.

Enzymes are substrate-specific which means

a)

they fit like a lock and key with only specific shapes of substrate

b)

they will work with anything as long as it is a substrate

c)

enzymes can only work to break down larger molecules, but not build them

d)

enzymes can only work to build larger molecules, but not break them down

34.

Every cell contains all of the following EXCEPT

a)

cell membrane

b)

DNA

c)

ribosomes

d)

cytoplasm

e)

mitochondria

35.

All of the following are found in a plant cell and not an animal cell EXCEPT

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

cell wall

d)

large central vacuole

36.

Which cell is the plant cell?

a)

round cell on the left

b)

rectangular cell on the right

37.

The cell membrane is primarily constructed out of

a)

phospholipids and proteins

b)

phospholipids and nucleic acids

c)

proteins and carbohydrates

d)

carbohydrates and nucleic acids

38.

In the diagram B represents ______________ which are _____________

a)

phosphate heads, hydrophilic

b)

phosphate heads, hydrophobic

c)

fatty acid tails, hydrophilic

d)

fatty acid tails, hydrophobic

39.

How do materials pass through the membrane in simple diffusion vs. facilitated diffusion?

a)

in simple diffusion they use the protein channels and in facilitated diffusion they use the protein pump

b)

in simple diffusion they fit between gaps in the phospholipid bilayer and in facilitated diffusion they use the protein channels

c)

in simple diffusion they use the protein pumps and in facilitated diffusion fit between gaps in the phospholipid bilayer

d)

none of these are correct

40.

Which types of molecules would have the most difficult time crossing the lipid bilayer?

a)

large, charged molecules

b)

small, uncharged molecules

41.

What are protein channels and protein pumps?

a)

proteins acting as enzymes which aid in digestion

b)

proteins acting as enzymes which aid in the building or larger molecules

c)

transport proteins in the cell membrane

d)

proteins involved in cell to cell recognition

42.

What process is being depicted in the diagram? What structure are the molecules travelling through?

a)

osmosis, protein pump

b)

simple diffusion, protein pump

c)

osmosis, aquaporins

d)

active transport, protein channel

43.

If cells containing 10% sodium are placed in a solution with 20% sodium. What type of solution is this and what would happen?

a)

hypertonic, water would enter the cell

b)

hypotonic, water would enter the cell

c)

hypertonic, water would leave the cell

d)

hypotonic, water would leave the cell

44.

If a cell containing 5% NaCl is placed in an environment that is 5% NaCl. That environment would be described as

a)

isotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

hypotonic

d)

hydroponic

45.

Which is the only type of transport that moves particles from an area of low concentration to an area of higher concentration (against the concentration gradient)

a)

simple diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

spontaneous transport

d)

active transport

46.

How to cells release waste by fusing a vesicle with the cell membrane?

a)

exocytosis

b)

endocytosis

47.

Which organelles are involved with energy conversion?

a)

golgi apparatus and centrioles

b)

spindle fibers and chloroplast

c)

chloroplasts and mitochondria

d)

mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum

48.

Which bond is broken to release the energy stored in ATP (also converts it to ADP)

a)

the bond between the 2nd and 3rd (farthest away from sugar molecule) phosphate group

b)

the bond between the 1st (closest to sugar molecule) and 2nd phosphate

c)

the bond between adenine (C) and sugar (B)

d)

bond between sugar (B) and 1st phosphate group

49.

Reactants of glucose metabolism (cellular respiration) include

a)

oxygen and glucose

b)

carbon dioxide, water, ATP

c)

oxygen and ATP

d)

glucose and water

50.

The second state of glucose metabolism (cellular respiration) is

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Light dependent reactions

51.

Which stage of glucose metabolism (cellular respiration) produces the most ATP?

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Calvin Cycle

52.

Which organelle does photosynthesis occur in? (hint: animal cells don't have this organelle)

a)

ribosomes

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

golgi apparatus

53.

The diagram represents which reaction? (hint: line "A" represents light energy)

a)

cellular respiration

b)

protein synthesis

c)

hydrolysis reaction

d)

photosynthesis

54.

The products of photosynthesis are

a)

glucose and oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

water and glucose

d)

oxygen and water

55.

How are photosynthesis and cellular respiration related to each other?

a)

the products of one are the reactants of the other (and vice versa)

b)

they both occur exclusively in animal cells

c)

they use the same exact organelle for both processes

d)

none of these

56.

What plays the role of "final electron acceptor" in the electron transport chain of cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen

b)

glucose

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

fructose

57.

All of the following pathways are aerobic (require oxygen) EXCEPT

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

Electron Transport Chain

c)

Glycolysis

58.

Which pathway is anerobic (doesn't require oxygen) in cellular respiration?

a)

Glycolysis (in cytoplasm)

b)

Krebs Cycle (in mitochondria)

c)

Electron Transport Chain (in mitochondria)

d)

none of these

59.

Which type of cell would you expect to find a higher number of mitochondria?

a)

muscle cell

b)

skin cell

c)

bone cell

d)

nerve cell

60.

What would buildup during breakdown of glucose in an anaerobic environment?

a)

oxygen

b)

water

c)

lactic acid

d)

lactase

61.

______ codes for ___________

a)

DNA, proteins

b)

RNA, DNA

c)

proteins, DNA

d)

DNA, nucleotides

62.

Humans have _____ chromosomes in each of their somatic cells and _______ in their gametes (sperm & egg cells)

a)

23, 46

b)

46, 23

c)

50, 100

d)

100, 50

63.

An RNA nucleotide would consist of a phosphate group as well as

a)

ribose sugar and uracil

b)

deoxyribose sugar and uracil

c)

ribose sugar and thymine

d)

deoxyribose sugar and adenine

64.

If a shellfish has 33% guanine. What also must be true?

a)

It has 33% thymine

b)

It has 33% cytosine

c)

It has 17% cytosine

d)

It has 33% adenine

65.

Which type of nucleic acid contains the nitrogenous base thymine?

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

DNA

d)

mRNA

66.

The complementary base pairs of _____________ all DNA to be replicated, transcribed, and translated easily.

a)

sugar phosphate backbone

b)

nitrogenous bases

c)

tRNA

d)

RNA polymerase

67.

What needs to happen before mitosis/cell division occurs?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Mutations

68.

New DNA is half from the original strand and half from the new strand. This is called _________________

a)

Fully conservative

b)

Semiliberal

c)

Semiconservative

d)

None of these

69.

What is shown in the image?

a)

Protein Synthesis

b)

DNA Transcription

c)

DNA Translation

d)

DNA Replication

70.

Which represents the leading strand in the image?

a)

top strand

b)

bottom strand

71.

In DNA replication...what is true of the new DNA?

a)

It contains only one half of the genetic material that it started with

b)

The new DNA will contain uracil instead of thymine

c)

It is identical to the old strand of DNA

d)

RNA polymerase is used to fill in gaps between Okazaki fragments

72.

Mitosis is used for all of the following EXCEPT

a)

growth and development

b)

repair damage of cells and tissue

c)

a zygote growing into a larger organism

d)

production of gametes (sperm and egg cells)

73.

Cell division consists of two phases. The division of genetic material is _________ and the splitting of the cytoplasm is ___________.

a)

mitosis, cytokinesis

b)

cytokinesis, mitosis

c)

interphase, mitosis

d)

G1 phase, cytokinesis

74.

Hermit crabs have 254 chromosomes in each of their cells. After one cell goes through mitosis how many chromosomes will each of the new cells contain?

a)

127

b)

508

c)

254

d)

46

75.

What happens exclusively during S phase of interphase?

a)

DNA replication

b)

cell growth

c)

protein synthesis

d)

mitosis

76.

Which phase of mitosis is shown here?

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

prophase

77.

Which phase of mitosis is shown here?

a)

metaphase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

prophase

78.

How is cancer related to mitosis?

a)

cancerous cells have lost their ability to control their division cycles

b)

they are not related whatsoever

c)

mitosis always results in cancer

d)

mitosis can be used to treat cancer

79.

Transcription and translation together are known as

a)

DNA replication

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

The circle of life

d)

Energy conversion reactions

80.

Which organelle assembles proteins

a)

ribosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

mitochondria

d)

chloroplast

81.

Germinated seeds should test for higher levels of ________ because of the breakdown of _________ that has started to occur.

a)

glucose, starch

b)

starch, glucose

c)

protein, amino acids

d)

amino acids, protein

82.

Which number(s) show the mRNA

a)

3, 5

b)

8

c)

6, 11

d)

1, 4

83.

What is the process called that converts number 3 to number 6 in the diagram?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

Protein Synthesis

84.

What reads the mRNA code and brings the amino acids to the ribosome (number 8 in the diagram)

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

DNA

85.

Which process uses a strand of DNA to construct a strand of mRNA?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Protein synthesis

86.

In what process is the mRNA read by the tRNA to construct a chain of amino acids?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

d)

Central Dogma

87.

If the DNA sequence is TCA GAT ACT what are the corresponding amino acids? (hint: no start codon here)

a)

Serine - Valine - Stop

b)

Leucine - Valine - Isoleucine

c)

Serine - Leucine - Stop

d)

Glycine - Leucine - Stop

88.

If the codon on the mRNA reads CUC what would the anticodon on the tRNA read?

a)

GAG

b)

GTG

c)

AAU

d)

AUG

89.

If there are 30 amino acids in a polypeptide chain...how many RNA nucleotides coded for those amino acids?

a)

90

b)

30

c)

10

d)

60

90.

Where do polypeptide chains and proteins get sent to be sorted and packaged before leaving the cell?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Nucleus

c)

Vacuole

d)

Mitochondria

91.

(Select all that apply) Which mutation to DNA would likely change the most amino acids in a sequence?

a)

insertion of a single nucleotide

b)

deletion of a single nucleotide

c)

substitution of a single nucleotide (not associated with a start or stop codon)

d)

substitution of a single codon

92.

Which is an example of a silent mutation (caused by redundancy in the genetic code)?

a)

CUU --> UUG

b)

AUG --> UGA

c)

AAA --> CGA

d)

CAA --> CAU

93.

What type of mutation has occurred below and which letter is changed?

Original: TAC AGC TCA GCC

Mutated: TAC GCT CAG CC

a)

deletion, second A was deleted

b)

insertion, two Cs were added to the end

c)

deletion, the last G was deleted

d)

substitution, the last A was replaced with a G

94.

Which type of mutation would cause the most changes in an amino acid sequence?

a)

single nucleotide substation (not involved with the start or stop codon)

b)

insertion of a codon

c)

deletion of a codon

d)

frameshift caused by an insertion or deletion of a single nucleotide

95.

Which would cause the most problems for a cell?

a)

change in the gene

b)

change in a protein produced

c)

change an mRNA strand

d)

all of these would be equally damaging

96.

All cells in your body

a)

have different copies of DNA based on which type of cell they are

b)

have identical copies of DNA

97.

ALL cells contain all of the following EXCEPT

a)

ribosomes

b)

DNA

c)

cell membrane

d)

cytoplasm

e)

mitochondria

98.

Someone has a problem breaking down waste material in their cells. Which organelle is probably isn't functioning properly?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosomes

c)

lysosomes

d)

vacuoles

99.

Which is NOT part of cell theory?

a)

all living organisms are composed of one or more cells

b)

the cell is the basic unit of structure and organization in organisms

c)

cells arise from pre-existing cells

d)

every cell contains mitochondria

100.

What are the products of photosynthesis?

a)

oxygen and glucose

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

ATP and carbon dioxide

d)

glucose and water