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Bio Midterm Review

Total questions: 168

Worksheet time: 2hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

After years of research, the structure of the DNA molecule is now known to be a double helix.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be -

a)

CCUAGCU

b)

AAGTATC

c)

GGATCGA

d)

GGAUCGA

3.

Thymine (T) is replaced by _ in RNA.

a)

adenine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Uracil

d)

Ribose

4.

In 1953, Watson and Crick were able to propose a model of DNA as a helical molecule with a sugar-phosphate backbone on the outside of the molecule. Which of the following earlier discoveries by Rosalind Franklin was most instrumental to this important discovery?

a)

Adenine and Thymine always occur in equal amounts

b)

proteins take the shape of an alpha helix

c)

DNA from a virus enters a bacterial cell to cause an infection

d)

X-ray crystallography studies of DNA

5.

A nucleotide consists of

a)

a sugar, a protein, and adenine.

b)

a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.

c)

a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.

6.

The function of DNA polymerase is to

a)

Create an attachment point for new DNA to be made

b)

Bring in new nucleotides to be complementary to the original DNA strand

c)

Unzip the DNA

d)

Unwind the DNA

7.

What are the main functions of DNA polymerase?

a)

breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes bases

b)

binds nucleotides and corrects base pair errors

c)

zips and unzips the double-stranded DNA

d)

holds DNA strands apart and attracts bases

8.

DNA molecules separate into single strands, which are then used to construct two identical strands of DNA. This process ensures that the --

a)

daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cells

b)

mitochondria are genetically identical to the chloroplasts

c)

parent cells use little ATP

d)

cytoplasm is in equilibrium

9.

Which of the following events occurs directly after a DNA molecule is unzipped?

a)

Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed bases

b)

Identical double-stranded DNA molecules are formed.

c)

Enzymes break hydrogen bonds between base pairs

d)

Mismatched nucleotide bases are identified and replaced

10.

Which scientist examined DNA using x-ray crystallography?

a)

Francis Crick

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

Erwin Chargaff

d)

James Watson

11.

Combining the work of other scientists with their own research, Watson and Crick discovered that two strands of DNA join together to form a(n)

a)

covalent bond

b)

nucleotide

c)

double helix

d)

X in a circle

12.

The five-carbon sugar in DNA nucleotides is called ribose.

a)

Ribose

b)

Deoxyribose

c)

Phosphate

d)

Glucose

13.

The four types of nucleotides that make up DNA are named for their

a)

ring-shaped sugars

b)

nitrogen-containing bases

c)

hydrogen bonds

d)

phosphate groups

14.

The process of making new DNA molecules is semiconservative. This means that every new DNA molecule is composed of

a)

two completely identical strands of DNA

b)

one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA

c)

one original and one new strand of DNA

d)

two strands that mix original and new DNA

15.

During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to

a)

locate replication sites.

b)

send messages

c)

bind nucleotides together

d)

receive messages

16.

Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

ribose

c)

nitrogen base

d)

Phosphate

17.

The name of the sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of RNA is Deoxyribose.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Which of the following is a true statement in regard to the genetic code?

a)

Components of the genetic code vary greatly between species

b)

The genetic code gives us no information about the changes that occur between species

c)

The genetic code is considered a universal code, suggesting that there is a single evolutionary history that underlies the origin of all organisms

d)

Biotic factors (living) and abiotic factors (soil, water, etc.) in an ecosystem all contain a genetic code

19.

Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that

a)

DNA and RNA have the same structure

b)

DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix

c)

guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenin

20.

The attachment of nucleotides to form a complementary strand of DNA --

a)

is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA

b)

is performed by DNA polymerase

c)

prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA

d)

is the responsibility of the complementary DNA mutagens

21.

After examining the DNA of different organisms, which of the following did Erwin Chargaff conclude about the four bases?

a)

A + T = C + G

b)

A = T and C = G

c)

A = C = G = T

d)

A = C and G = T

22.

It has been discovered that the genetic material is protein

a)

True

b)

False

23.

When new DNA molecules are formed, almost all errors are detected and fixed by

a)

the sugar-phosphate backbone

b)

DNA polymerase.

c)

the correct nucleotide

d)

one DNA strand

24.

Franklin’s X-ray diffraction images suggested that the DNA molecule resembled a tightly coiled spring, a shape called a helix.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?

a)

50%

b)

75%

c)

100%

d)

25%

27.

Protein Synthesis is made up of two steps: Transcription and _

a)

Transportation

b)

Translation

c)

Prescription

d)

Transition

28.

In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to

a)

uracil.

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

thymine

29.

During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand in Figure 1 was made?

(NOTE: The mRNA strand is above the Chart)

a)

GAGUUCACGAAG

b)

GAGTTCACGAAG

c)

AGACCTGTAGGA

d)

CUCAAGUGCUUC

31.

Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n)

a)

anticodon

b)

codon

c)

peptide bond

d)

helicase

32.

Refer to the illustration above, FIGURE 1. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC?

a)

Val—Asp—Pro—His

b)

Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe

c)

Pro—Glu—Leu—Val

d)

Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly

33.

Transcription, which is a stage of gene expression, is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)

a)

uracil molecule

b)

mRNA molecule

c)

protein molecule

d)

DNA molecule

34.

The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of

a)

Transcription

b)

Transportation

c)

Translation

d)

Prescription

35.

The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) _

a)

base

b)

bond

c)

connector

d)

codon

36.

During transcription,

a)

DNA is replicated

b)

translation occurs

c)

proteins are synthesized

d)

RNA is produced

37.

Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.

a)

AUT

b)

CTA

c)

AUC

d)

ACG

38.

mRNA is responsible for bringing the message of RNA to DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

The codon on a mRNA reads CAG, this translates to the amino acid GLU. Use (Figure 1)

a)

True

b)

False

40.

If the nucleotide sequence of codon was AUC, then the DNA triplet would be

a)

ATC

b)

TAG

c)

AUC

d)

UAG

41.

Refer to the illustration above (Figure 1). What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence UCUUAUAGAGGU?

a)

Val—Asp—Pro—His

b)

Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly

c)

Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe

d)

Pro—Glu—Leu—Val

42.

Which phrase best describes translation?

a)

produces RNA from DNA molecules

b)

catalyzes bonds between amino acids

c)

recycles tRNA molecules for reuse

d)

converts mRNA into a polypeptide

43.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown above

Refer to the illustration above (IMAGE #1). The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would.

a)

be homozygous for freckles.

b)

not have freckles

c)

have an extra freckles chromosome.

d)

be heterozygous for freckles

44.

If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on

a)

an allele

b)

an autosome

c)

a linked chromosome

d)

a sex chromosome

45.

A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia ( XH X h )marries a hemophiliac man.(X h Y)

What proportion of the female children are hemophiliacs? ________

a)

0% of female children are hemophiliacs

b)

25% of female children are hemophiliacs

c)

50% of female children are hemophiliacs

d)

100% of female children are hemophiliacs

46.

The squares of a pedigree chart represent a male

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Refer to the chart above (IMAGE #4). What is the genotype of individual 3?

a)

TT

b)

Tt

c)

tt

48.

Inheritance in which two dominant alleles are expressed at the same time is called _.

a)

Homozygous

b)

Codominance

c)

Incomplete Dominance

d)

heterozygous

49.

A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (orange:OO and white:WW). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan steer mate together?

(Hint: draw a punnett square)

a)

1 orange cow: 1 white cow

b)

1 orange cow: 2 orange and white cows: 1 white cow

c)

4 orange and white cows

d)

2 orange cows: 2 orange and white cows: 0 white cows

50.

In rabbits, black hair is dominant to brown hair. Also in rabbits, long straight ears are dominant to floppy ears.

The letters represent the genotypes and phenotypes of the rabbits:

B = black hair | b = brown hair

E = long ears | e = floppy ears

A male rabbit with the genotype BBee is crossed with a female rabbit with the genotype bbEe The square is set up below. Fill it out and determine the phenotypes and proportions in the offspring.

How many out of 16 have brown hair and long ears? ______

a)

8/16

b)

4/16

c)

0/16

d)

16/16

51.

Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?

a)

tt

b)

TT

c)

Tt

d)

T

52.

What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous × heterozygous monohybrid cross?

a)

25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive

b)

25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive

c)

50% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous

d)

100% homozygous dominant

53.

A trait that is determined by a gene that is only found on the X chromosome is said to be _.

a)

Dominant linked

b)

Female linked

c)

Sex-linked

d)

Male Linked

54.

What is the main reason that sex-linked disorders are most often observed in males?

a)

The X chromosome has genes only for sex determination.

b)

The Y chromosome cannot mask alleles on the X chromosome

c)

The X chromosome only has genes for genetic disorders.

d)

The Y chromosome cannot have genes that cause genetic disorders.

55.

What is the genotype of individual 2 in Fig 7.4?

a)

WW

b)

ww

c)

Ww

56.

Mendelian genetics represent the only scientifically proven way that traits can be inheritted.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The spotted coat of an Appaloosa horse is the result of both alleles of a gene being expressed. This is an example of

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

a sex-linked trait

c)

codominance

d)

a sex-influenced trait

58.

Which answer choice lists the correct gametes for the black, short hair guinea pig?

a)

BL, Bl, bL, bl

b)

BL, LB, bl, lb

c)

Bb, Ll, Bb, Ll

d)

lL, Lb, bB, Bl

59.

The scientific study of heredity is called

a)

crossing-over

b)

biology

c)

Genetics

d)

meiosis

60.

In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.

a)

75% Freckles and 25% No Freckles

b)

25% FF, 50% Ff and 25% ff

c)

50% Freckles and 50% No Freckles

d)

100% Freckles

61.

The trait in the Punnett Square below is for plant height. Tall is dominant to dwarf. Use the Punnett Square to answer the following question.

What are the genotypes of the plants that were crossed?

a)

Tt on the top; tt along the side

b)

Tt on the top; Tt along the side

c)

TT on the top; TT along the side

d)

tt on the top; tt along the side

62.

H = normal blood clotting

h = hemophilia

What letters would you use to represent the genotype of a heterozygous female?

a)

XH Xh

b)

XH Y

c)

Xh Xh

d)

XH XH

63.

Which statement is true of a sex-linked recessive gene?

a)

In an XX female, only one copy is needed for expression.

b)

In an XY male, this recessive gene is always expressed.

c)

In an XY male, one copy is always inactivated

d)

In an XX female, it is always passed to offspring.

64.

What type of traits do the shaded shapes in Fig 7.4 represent?

a)

Sex-linked dominant traits

b)

sex linked recessive traits

c)

autosomal dominant traits

d)

autosomal recessive traits

65.

A black cat and a white cat have a gray kitten. THis blending of the fur color is an example of:

a)

True

b)

False

66.

A woman who has Type A blood (IAIA) marries a man with Type B blood (IBi). What would be the possible phenotypes of their children?

a)

Types A, B, AB, and O

b)

Types A and B

c)

Types AB and A

d)

Types AB and B

67.

When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will

a)

show three different phenotypes.

b)

show two different phenotypes

c)

all have the same genotype

d)

all have the same phenotype

68.

A snapdragon can produce red (RR), white (R’R’), or pink (RR’) flowers. If two pink snapdragons were crossed, the expected resulting phenotypes of the offspring would be

a)

4 pink

b)

1 white

c)

3 red : 1 white

d)

1 red : 2 pink : 1 white

69.

A polygenic trait involves a single gene with multiple allele options.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

A male rabbit with the genotype GGbb is crossed with a female rabbit with the genotype ggBb. Which answer lists the correct gametes for the FEMALE rabbit.

a)

GB, gb, gB, Gb

b)

gg, Bb, gg, Bb

c)

gB, gb, gB, gb

d)

gB, gg, gB, Bb

71.

The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by

a)

cell division.

b)

DNA replication.

c)

the division of cytoplasm.

d)

replication of mitochondria and other organelles.

72.

In most eukaryotic cells, _ takes place after the nucleus divides.

a)

cytokinesis

b)

prophase

c)

mitosis

d)

synthesis

73.

In mitosis, anaphase follows _.

a)

Telephase

b)

Prophase

c)

interphase

d)

metaphase

74.

Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of

a)

spindle fibers.

b)

a belt of protein threads

c)

centrioles

d)

a cell plate

75.

During what stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell?

a)

Anaphase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

76.

As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis

a)

receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.

b)

receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.

c)

receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell

d)

donates a chromosome to the parent cell

77.

A cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle has 4 chromosomes. What is the expected outcome after mitosis?

a)

Two genetically identical daughter cells with 4 chromosomes each

b)

Two genetically identical daughter cells with 2 chromosomes each

c)

Four genetically identical daughter cells with 1 chromosome each

d)

Two genetically different daughter cells with different numbers of chromosomes

78.

Cells that grow and do not respond to checkpoints often will create a mass of cells called a _

a)

Growth

b)

Ball

c)

Tumor

d)

Spot

79.

Apoptosis is programmed death of a cell.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Which of the following is true of malignant tumors?

a)

They are easily removed through surgery.

b)

They can cause tumors in other parts of the body.

c)

They contain cells that stay clustered together.

d)

They do not require treatment

81.

The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called _.

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Chromosomes

d)

Membrane

82.

Mitosis is the process by which

a)

the cell rests

b)

the nucleus is divided into two nuclei

c)

microtubules are assembled.

d)

cytoplasm is divided

83.

After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Interphase

85.

A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical _, which are held together at the centromere.

a)

Centrides

b)

Spindle Fiber

c)

Chromatids

86.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.

b)

Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes

c)

Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide

d)

Prokaryotes divide by mitosis

87.

The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

The cell cycle has checkpoints that act to prevent uncontrolled cell division.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that

a)

normal cells divide uncontrollably

b)

normal cells cannot make copies of DNA

c)

cancer cells divide uncontrollably.

d)

cancer cells cannot make copies of DNA

90.

Normal cells become cancer cells when

a)

cells pass through G1.

b)

cells respond to control mechanisms.

c)

regulation of cell growth and division occurs.

d)

Cells don't respond to checkpoints

91.

Mitosis is the process by which

a)

microtubules are assembled.

b)

cytoplasm is divided.

c)

the cell rests.

d)

the nucleus is divided into two nuclei

92.

After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase of mitosis, the _ divides, resulting in two cells.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Membrane

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Cell Wall

93.

“Cables” made by the centrioles that attach to the chromosomes’ centromeres during cell division are called _.

a)

Chromatids

b)

Spindle fibers

c)

Chromatin

d)

Cytoplasm

94.

During interphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and

a)

copies DNA

b)

produces a new cell

c)

divides the cytoplasm

d)

divides the nucleus.

95.

During what phase do the chromosomes pull apart from their sister chromatids?

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Metaphase

96.

Which of these sets correctly pairs the cell phase to what happens during that phase?

a)

G1 = DNA replication

b)

G2 = preparation for mitosis

c)

S = cell division

d)

M = cell growth

97.

A substance known to produce or promote the development of cancer is called a growth factor.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

First, you created a POINT mutation in your DNA. Describe what a point mutation is and how this can affect the protein created by the gene.

a)

A point mutation is a deletion of another nucleotide. This affects many amino acids and definitely has an effect the protein.

b)

A point mutation is when one nucleotide is substituted for another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.

c)

A point mutation is an entire piece of the chromosome breaks off (many nucleotides) and joins a different chromosome.

d)

point mutation is an insertion of another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.

99.

The second mutation you explored is called a FRAMESHIFT mutation. Explain what this means and how it affects the protein.

a)

A frameshift mutation can be an insertion of another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.

b)

A frameshift mutation is an entire piece of the chromosome breaks off (many nucleotides) and joins a different chromosome

c)

A frameshift mutation is when one nucleotide is substituted for another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.

d)

A frameshift mutation can be an insertion or deletion of another nucleotide. This affects many amino acids and definitely has an effect the protein.

100.

he third mutation you explored is a special kind of point mutation called a SILENT mutation. Explain what this means.

a)

his is when the mutation is present and it causes multiple different amino acids to change and drastically affects the protein.

b)

This is when the mutation is present and it codes for a different amino acid but only one.

c)

This is when the mutation is present but does not code for a different amino acid.

d)

This is when there is a change in the protein but it is not due to a different amino acid.

101.

Single nucleotide changes are termed chromosomal mutations.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

All mutations are harmful.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Using Image # 3 below: Describe what type of mutation is caused when x is removed.

a)

point substitution

b)

frameshift insertion

c)

frameshift deletion

d)

chromosomal

104.

Which answer best describes a frameshift mutation and how it affects a protein

a)

A frameshift mutation is an entire piece of the chromosome breaks off (many nucleotides) and joins a different chromosome

b)

A frameshift mutation is when one nucleotide is substituted for another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.

c)

A frameshift mutation can be an insertion of another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.

d)

A frameshift mutation can be an insertion or deletion of another nucleotide. This affects many amino acids and definitely has an effect the protein.

105.

Mutations that can affect the offspring of an organism occur in what cell type?

a)

body

b)

gamete

c)

brain

d)

blood

106.

What would happen to structure F in Figure 7 if structure C in the figure above were deleted?

a)

GCU will change to CGA

b)

GCU will stay the same

c)

GCU will change to GUG

d)

GCU will change to GGU

107.

Which of the following would most likely result in an abnormal chromosome number?

a)

DNA exposed to radiation after the birth of the organism

b)

nondisjunction during meiosis

c)

the deletion of DNA during translation

d)

mutations occurring during the blastula stage

108.

The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called _.

a)

Testosterone

b)

Gametes

c)

Sperm

d)

Diploid

109.

The figure above shows crossing over during meiosis. During which phase does this process occur?

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Prophase I

d)

Metaphase II

110.

The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through _.

a)

Cytokinesis

b)

Meiosis

c)

Fertilization

d)

Crossover

111.

In humans, the specific condition caused by an extra chromosome 21 is called _.

a)

Parkinsons Disease

b)

Down syndrome

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Autism

112.

People with Down syndrome , also known as trisomy 21, have

a)

46 Chromosomes

b)

47 Chromosomes

c)

45 Chromosomes

d)

no X chromosome

113.

The diagram above FIgure #4 show chromosomes in a cell undergoing cell division.

If one of the chromosomes breaks during this process, which of the following will most likely happen?

a)

Segregation

b)

Duplication

c)

Mutation

d)

Selection

114.

A mutation in which a piece of a chromosome is lost during meiosis is called a(n) _.

a)

Point mutation

b)

Deletion

c)

Addition

d)

Codon

115.

Trisomy is a mutation that results in a cell having an extra

a)

Nitrogen base

b)

Chromosome

c)

Gene

d)

Codon

116.

What kind of mutation is shown in the image #6 above?

a)

Chromosomal inversion

b)

Chromosomal translocation

c)

Deletion (frameshift)

d)

Point mutation (substitution)

117.

The following image #3 shows a normal DNA strand and the resulting polypeptide chain. Predict how the polypeptide chain would change if a mutation occurred causing structure “X” to be deleted.

a)

Only alanine would change

b)

All amino acids in the polypeptide chain would change.

c)

Only the amino acids before alanine would change.

d)

Alanine and the amino acids following alanine would change

118.

The X and Y chromosomes are called

a)

Partner chromosomes

b)

Autosomes

c)

Sex chromosomes

d)

homologous chromosomes

119.

In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have

a)

one X and one Y chromosome

b)

one X and one O chromosome

c)

two Y chromosomes

d)

two X chromosomes

120.

During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally

a)

the ovary

b)

the sperm cell

c)

the cytoplasm

d)

the DNA

121.

Taxonomy is

a)

the study of life.

b)

the sequence in which different groups evolved.

c)

the evolutionary history of a species.

d)

the science of naming and classifying organisms.

122.

Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?

a)

bacteria

b)

fungi

c)

animals

d)

plants

123.

The two-word system for naming organisms is called _

a)

binomial species

b)

domain naming

c)

binomial nomenclature

d)

binomial kingdoms

124.

Which kingdom includes organisms that are all autotrophic?

a)

fungi

b)

protista

c)

plantae

d)

bacteria

125.

In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the

a)

kingdom

b)

species

c)

family

d)

genus

126.

Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include

a)

prokaryotes.

b)

fungi.

c)

animals.

d)

plants.

127.

Which kingdoms have organisms that are eukaryotic, heterotrophic, and multicellular?

a)

Animalia and Plantae

b)

Animalia and Fungi

c)

Fungi, Protista,and Eubacteria

d)

Eubacteria and Archaebacteria

128.

Which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organisms?

a)

Animalia and Fungi

b)

Protists and Bacteria

c)

Protists and Fungi

d)

Archaea and Animalia

129.

A previously unknown organism is discovered living in a freshwater stream in the Amazon Basin. It is photosynthetic, unicellular, and has a nucleus. Under the current classification system, the new organism should be classified as a(n)

a)

plant

b)

fungi

c)

protist

d)

eubacterium

130.

Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?

a)

fungi

b)

plants

c)

animals

d)

bacteria

131.

Which description distinguishes eukaryotes from prokaryotes?

a)

Eukaryotes have a cell wall

b)

Eukaryotes are multicellular

c)

Eukaryotes are photosynthetic.

d)

Eukaryotes have a nucleus.

132.

Most organisms in the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia are multicellular.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Which kingdom does this organism belong to? A unicellular organism with a nucleus found in pond water.

a)

fungi

b)

plantae

c)

protista

d)

bacteria

134.

Eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals are called _.

a)

eubacteria

b)

protists

c)

archaebacteria

135.

Taxonomy provides consistent ways to name organisms.

a)

True

b)

False

136.

Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include

a)

Plants

b)

Animals

c)

Fungi

d)

Prokaryotes

137.

Under the Linnaean system of classification, organisms are grouped on the basis of similarities in structure.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

Darwin was not the first person to suggest that evolution had occurred.

a)

True

b)

False

139.

The evidence for evolution that looks at the origin of eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells is known as:

a)

Biogeography

b)

Molecular homologies

c)

Endosymbiotic theory

d)

Structural homologies

140.

Darwin was the first to explain

a)

a theory of inheritance.

b)

how to record observations.

c)

the quick rate of evolution.

d)

a correct mechanism for evolution.

141.

Darwin’s observations of finches indicated descent with

a)

modification in bills

b)

inheritance of large bills

c)

convergence

d)

no change

142.

Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection predicts that disadvantageous traits will become more common in a population over time.

a)

True

b)

False

143.

Analagous structures are structures found in organisms that have the same structure, but different functions. Ex: Like the flipper of a dolphin and the arm of a human.

a)

True

b)

False

144.

A species is generally defined as a group of natural populations that can interbreed.

a)

True

b)

False

145.

The finches that Darwin studied differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, the finches probably

a)

came with those traits from South America.

b)

had become adapted to eating different diets.

c)

would become more similar over time.

d)

were descended from similar birds in Africa.

146.

Which of the following does not contribute to the progress of natural selection:

a)

Variety with in a population

b)

Competition within a populatio

c)

Adaptations present within the population

d)

Large population size

147.

Biogeography is the study of

a)

food preferences of organisms

b)

DNA and RNA nucleotides.

c)

homologous structures.

d)

the location of organisms on Earth.

148.

Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection predicts that disadvantageous traits will become more common in a population over time.

a)

True

b)

False

149.

Homologous structures are structures found in organisms that have different structures, but share a similar function. Ex: Like the wing of a bird and the wing of a butterfly.

a)

True

b)

False

150.

Evolution can be defined as a genetic change in

a)

environmental variation.

b)

species.

c)

chromosomal drift.

d)

natural selection

151.

Darwin observed that the plants and animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those on islands off the coast of Africa with similar environments.

a)

True

b)

False

152.

Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that

a)

their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.

b)

they all have the same number of chromosomes.

c)

they all have fingers

d)

they have identical DNA.

153.

The main source of changes in phenotype frequencies in a population is mutation in germ cells that produce gametes.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

When a group of individuals of the same species has become reproductively isolated from its parent population and has accumulated sufficient genetic differences to prevent interbreeding, convergence has occurred.

a)

True

b)

False

155.

Directional selection tends to cause a shift in individuals toward one extreme of phenotypic values.

a)

True

b)

False

156.

This image is showing which type of natural selection?

a)

stabilizing selection

b)

disruptive selection

c)

directional selection

157.

his image shows that the two extreme phenotypes in clam shell color are selected for in the environment.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

A population of clams lives in a rocky intertidal zone where black lava has flowed into an area of white sand and bleached coral. The clams’ shells range in color from white to black with a shade of gray in between. The white clams and the black clams each outnumber the gray clams ten to one. Which is the most probable conclusion for why this is?

a)

The population is experiencing directional selection, with the extreme phenotypes moving in opposite directions.

b)

The population is experiencing stabilizing selection, with the white and black clams each forming a normal distribution.

c)

The population is experiencing stable selection, with the gray clams unable to compete with the white or black clams.

d)

The population is experiencing disruptive selection, with the gray clams having no camouflage in their environment.

159.

The Image #1 above is an example of:

a)

Mutation

b)

Sexual Selection

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Drift

160.

_ is the mechanism of evolution where change happens as a result of a change in DNA.

a)

Genetic Flow

b)

Mutations

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Random Mating

161.

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for evolution?

a)

Random Mating

b)

Mutations

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Genetic Drift

162.

This type of selection favors individuals who have the phenotype at one extreme of the spectrum.

a)

Directional

b)

Disruptive

c)

Stabilizing

d)

Temporal

163.

The formation of new species is called

a)

Extinction

b)

Speciation

c)

Microevolution

164.

Directional selection tends to eliminate

a)

both extremes in a range of phenotypes.

b)

one extreme in a range of phenotypes.

c)

newly formed phenotypes

d)

intermediate phenotypes.

165.

After massive flooding a newly formed river carves out a great divide between lion populations and they can no longer breed with each other. This is an example of what kind of isolation?

a)

Temporal

b)

Directional

c)

Geographic

d)

Behavioral

166.

The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called

a)

Mutation

b)

Random Mating

c)

Gene Flow

d)

Natural Selection

167.

Which of the following mechanisms for evolution stems from organisms being choosy about who they mate with?

a)

Random Mating

b)

Adaptation

c)

Sexual Selection

d)

Natural Selection

168.

_ is the mechanism of evolution that follws the principle of "survival of the fittest."

a)

Sexual Selection

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Geographic Selection

d)

Survivor