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WorksheetsBio Midterm Review
Total questions: 168
Worksheet time: 2hrs 3mins
After years of research, the structure of the DNA molecule is now known to be a double helix.
True
False
During DNA replication, a complementary strand of DNA is made for each original DNA strand. Thus, if a portion of the original strand is CCTAGCT, then the new strand will be -
CCUAGCU
AAGTATC
GGATCGA
GGAUCGA
Thymine (T) is replaced by _ in RNA.
adenine
Cytosine
Uracil
Ribose
In 1953, Watson and Crick were able to propose a model of DNA as a helical molecule with a sugar-phosphate backbone on the outside of the molecule. Which of the following earlier discoveries by Rosalind Franklin was most instrumental to this important discovery?
Adenine and Thymine always occur in equal amounts
proteins take the shape of an alpha helix
DNA from a virus enters a bacterial cell to cause an infection
X-ray crystallography studies of DNA
A nucleotide consists of
a sugar, a protein, and adenine.
a sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogen base.
a sugar, an amino acid, and starch.
The function of DNA polymerase is to
Create an attachment point for new DNA to be made
Bring in new nucleotides to be complementary to the original DNA strand
Unzip the DNA
Unwind the DNA
What are the main functions of DNA polymerase?
breaks hydrogen bonds and exposes bases
binds nucleotides and corrects base pair errors
zips and unzips the double-stranded DNA
holds DNA strands apart and attracts bases
DNA molecules separate into single strands, which are then used to construct two identical strands of DNA. This process ensures that the --
daughter cells are genetically identical to the parent cells
mitochondria are genetically identical to the chloroplasts
parent cells use little ATP
cytoplasm is in equilibrium
Which of the following events occurs directly after a DNA molecule is unzipped?
Free-floating nucleotides pair up with exposed bases
Identical double-stranded DNA molecules are formed.
Enzymes break hydrogen bonds between base pairs
Mismatched nucleotide bases are identified and replaced
Which scientist examined DNA using x-ray crystallography?
Francis Crick
Rosalind Franklin
Erwin Chargaff
James Watson
Combining the work of other scientists with their own research, Watson and Crick discovered that two strands of DNA join together to form a(n)
covalent bond
nucleotide
double helix
X in a circle
The five-carbon sugar in DNA nucleotides is called ribose.
Ribose
Deoxyribose
Phosphate
Glucose
The four types of nucleotides that make up DNA are named for their
ring-shaped sugars
nitrogen-containing bases
hydrogen bonds
phosphate groups
The process of making new DNA molecules is semiconservative. This means that every new DNA molecule is composed of
two completely identical strands of DNA
one strand of DNA and one strand of RNA
one original and one new strand of DNA
two strands that mix original and new DNA
During replication, the function of the enzyme DNA polymerase is to
locate replication sites.
send messages
bind nucleotides together
receive messages
Which of the following is not part of a molecule of DNA?
deoxyribose
ribose
nitrogen base
Phosphate
The name of the sugar that makes up a part of the backbone of molecules of RNA is Deoxyribose.
True
False
Which of the following is a true statement in regard to the genetic code?
Components of the genetic code vary greatly between species
The genetic code gives us no information about the changes that occur between species
The genetic code is considered a universal code, suggesting that there is a single evolutionary history that underlies the origin of all organisms
Biotic factors (living) and abiotic factors (soil, water, etc.) in an ecosystem all contain a genetic code
Watson and Crick built models that demonstrated that
DNA and RNA have the same structure
DNA is made of two strands that twist into a double helix
guanine forms hydrogen bonds with adenin
The attachment of nucleotides to form a complementary strand of DNA --
is accomplished only in the presence of tRNA
is performed by DNA polymerase
prevents separation of complementary strands of RNA
is the responsibility of the complementary DNA mutagens
After examining the DNA of different organisms, which of the following did Erwin Chargaff conclude about the four bases?
A + T = C + G
A = T and C = G
A = C = G = T
A = C and G = T
It has been discovered that the genetic material is protein
True
False
When new DNA molecules are formed, almost all errors are detected and fixed by
the sugar-phosphate backbone
DNA polymerase.
the correct nucleotide
one DNA strand
Franklin’s X-ray diffraction images suggested that the DNA molecule resembled a tightly coiled spring, a shape called a helix.
True
False
Heterozygous individuals have two of the same alleles for a particular gene
True
False
Two parents have the genotype Gg for a genetic disorder caused by a dominant allele. What is the chance that any of their children will inherit the disorder?
50%
75%
100%
25%
Protein Synthesis is made up of two steps: Transcription and _
Transportation
Translation
Prescription
Transition
In RNA molecules, adenine is complementary to
uracil.
cytosine
guanine
thymine
During transcription, the information on a DNA molecule is “rewritten” into an mRNA molecule.
true
false
Which of the following would represent the strand of DNA from which the mRNA strand in Figure 1 was made?
(NOTE: The mRNA strand is above the Chart)
GAGUUCACGAAG
GAGTTCACGAAG
AGACCTGTAGGA
CUCAAGUGCUUC
Each nucleotide triplet in mRNA that specifies a particular amino acid is called a(n)
anticodon
codon
peptide bond
helicase
Refer to the illustration above, FIGURE 1. What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence CUCAAGUGCUUC?
Val—Asp—Pro—His
Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
Transcription, which is a stage of gene expression, is the process by which genetic information encoded in DNA is transferred to a(n)
uracil molecule
mRNA molecule
protein molecule
DNA molecule
The information contained in a molecule of messenger RNA is used to make protein during the process of
Transcription
Transportation
Translation
Prescription
The sequence of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acids or stop signals in the synthesis of protein is called a(n) _
base
bond
connector
codon
During transcription,
DNA is replicated
translation occurs
proteins are synthesized
RNA is produced
Figure 8.2 shows a single strand of DNA. Choose the first three nucleotides of the complementary RNA strand.
AUT
CTA
AUC
ACG
mRNA is responsible for bringing the message of RNA to DNA.
True
False
The codon on a mRNA reads CAG, this translates to the amino acid GLU. Use (Figure 1)
True
False
If the nucleotide sequence of codon was AUC, then the DNA triplet would be
ATC
TAG
AUC
UAG
Refer to the illustration above (Figure 1). What is the portion of the protein molecule coded for by a piece of mRNA with the sequence UCUUAUAGAGGU?
Val—Asp—Pro—His
Ser—Tyr—Arg—Gly
Leu—Lys—Cys—Phe
Pro—Glu—Leu—Val
Which phrase best describes translation?
produces RNA from DNA molecules
catalyzes bonds between amino acids
recycles tRNA molecules for reuse
converts mRNA into a polypeptide
In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown above
Refer to the illustration above (IMAGE #1). The child represented in box 1 in the Punnett square would.
be homozygous for freckles.
not have freckles
have an extra freckles chromosome.
be heterozygous for freckles
If a characteristic is sex-linked, the gene for it is found on
an allele
an autosome
a linked chromosome
a sex chromosome
A woman who is a carrier for hemophilia ( XH X h )marries a hemophiliac man.(X h Y)
What proportion of the female children are hemophiliacs? ________
0% of female children are hemophiliacs
25% of female children are hemophiliacs
50% of female children are hemophiliacs
100% of female children are hemophiliacs
The squares of a pedigree chart represent a male
True
False
Refer to the chart above (IMAGE #4). What is the genotype of individual 3?
TT
Tt
tt
Inheritance in which two dominant alleles are expressed at the same time is called _.
Homozygous
Codominance
Incomplete Dominance
heterozygous
A roan cow shows co-dominance in fur color (orange:OO and white:WW). What is the phenotype ratio expected if a roan cow and a roan steer mate together?
(Hint: draw a punnett square)
1 orange cow: 1 white cow
1 orange cow: 2 orange and white cows: 1 white cow
4 orange and white cows
2 orange cows: 2 orange and white cows: 0 white cows
In rabbits, black hair is dominant to brown hair. Also in rabbits, long straight ears are dominant to floppy ears.
The letters represent the genotypes and phenotypes of the rabbits:
B = black hair | b = brown hair
E = long ears | e = floppy ears
A male rabbit with the genotype BBee is crossed with a female rabbit with the genotype bbEe The square is set up below. Fill it out and determine the phenotypes and proportions in the offspring.
How many out of 16 have brown hair and long ears? ______
8/16
4/16
0/16
16/16
Tallness (T) is dominant to shortness (t) in pea plants. Which of the following represents a genotype of a pea plant that is heterozygous for tallness?
tt
TT
Tt
T
What is the expected genotypic ratio resulting from a heterozygous × heterozygous monohybrid cross?
25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive
25% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous, 25% homozygous recessive
50% homozygous dominant, 50% heterozygous
100% homozygous dominant
A trait that is determined by a gene that is only found on the X chromosome is said to be _.
Dominant linked
Female linked
Sex-linked
Male Linked
What is the main reason that sex-linked disorders are most often observed in males?
The X chromosome has genes only for sex determination.
The Y chromosome cannot mask alleles on the X chromosome
The X chromosome only has genes for genetic disorders.
The Y chromosome cannot have genes that cause genetic disorders.
What is the genotype of individual 2 in Fig 7.4?
WW
ww
Ww
Mendelian genetics represent the only scientifically proven way that traits can be inheritted.
True
False
The spotted coat of an Appaloosa horse is the result of both alleles of a gene being expressed. This is an example of
incomplete dominance
a sex-linked trait
codominance
a sex-influenced trait
Which answer choice lists the correct gametes for the black, short hair guinea pig?
BL, Bl, bL, bl
BL, LB, bl, lb
Bb, Ll, Bb, Ll
lL, Lb, bB, Bl
The scientific study of heredity is called
crossing-over
biology
Genetics
meiosis
In humans, having freckles (F) is dominant to not having freckles (f). The inheritance of these traits can be studied using a Punnett square similar to the one shown below.
75% Freckles and 25% No Freckles
25% FF, 50% Ff and 25% ff
50% Freckles and 50% No Freckles
100% Freckles
The trait in the Punnett Square below is for plant height. Tall is dominant to dwarf. Use the Punnett Square to answer the following question.
What are the genotypes of the plants that were crossed?
Tt on the top; tt along the side
Tt on the top; Tt along the side
TT on the top; TT along the side
tt on the top; tt along the side
H = normal blood clotting
h = hemophilia
What letters would you use to represent the genotype of a heterozygous female?
XH Xh
XH Y
Xh Xh
XH XH
Which statement is true of a sex-linked recessive gene?
In an XX female, only one copy is needed for expression.
In an XY male, this recessive gene is always expressed.
In an XY male, one copy is always inactivated
In an XX female, it is always passed to offspring.
What type of traits do the shaded shapes in Fig 7.4 represent?
Sex-linked dominant traits
sex linked recessive traits
autosomal dominant traits
autosomal recessive traits
A black cat and a white cat have a gray kitten. THis blending of the fur color is an example of:
True
False
A woman who has Type A blood (IAIA) marries a man with Type B blood (IBi). What would be the possible phenotypes of their children?
Types A, B, AB, and O
Types A and B
Types AB and A
Types AB and B
When an individual heterozygous for a trait is crossed with an individual homozygous recessive for the trait, the offspring produced will
show three different phenotypes.
show two different phenotypes
all have the same genotype
all have the same phenotype
A snapdragon can produce red (RR), white (R’R’), or pink (RR’) flowers. If two pink snapdragons were crossed, the expected resulting phenotypes of the offspring would be
4 pink
1 white
3 red : 1 white
1 red : 2 pink : 1 white
A polygenic trait involves a single gene with multiple allele options.
True
False
A male rabbit with the genotype GGbb is crossed with a female rabbit with the genotype ggBb. Which answer lists the correct gametes for the FEMALE rabbit.
GB, gb, gB, Gb
gg, Bb, gg, Bb
gB, gb, gB, gb
gB, gg, gB, Bb
The synthesis (S) phase is characterized by
cell division.
DNA replication.
the division of cytoplasm.
replication of mitochondria and other organelles.
In most eukaryotic cells, _ takes place after the nucleus divides.
cytokinesis
prophase
mitosis
synthesis
In mitosis, anaphase follows _.
Telephase
Prophase
interphase
metaphase
Cytokinesis in plant cells involves the formation of
spindle fibers.
a belt of protein threads
centrioles
a cell plate
During what stage of the cell cycle do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell?
Anaphase
Metaphase
Prophase
Telophase
As a result of mitosis, each of the two new cells produced from the parent cell during cytokinesis
receives exactly half the chromosomes from the parent cell.
receives an exact copy of all the chromosomes present in the parent cell.
receives a few chromosomes from the parent cell
donates a chromosome to the parent cell
A cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle has 4 chromosomes. What is the expected outcome after mitosis?
Two genetically identical daughter cells with 4 chromosomes each
Two genetically identical daughter cells with 2 chromosomes each
Four genetically identical daughter cells with 1 chromosome each
Two genetically different daughter cells with different numbers of chromosomes
Cells that grow and do not respond to checkpoints often will create a mass of cells called a _
Growth
Ball
Tumor
Spot
Apoptosis is programmed death of a cell.
True
False
Which of the following is true of malignant tumors?
They are easily removed through surgery.
They can cause tumors in other parts of the body.
They contain cells that stay clustered together.
They do not require treatment
The DNA in eukaryotic cells is packaged into structures called _.
Ribosomes
Nucleotides
Chromosomes
Membrane
Mitosis is the process by which
the cell rests
the nucleus is divided into two nuclei
microtubules are assembled.
cytoplasm is divided
After mitosis and interphase, each new cell has a complete set of the parent cell’s chromosomes.
True
False
Which phase of mitosis is occurring in the cell indicated by the arrow?
Metaphase
Prophase
Anaphase
Interphase
A duplicated chromosome consists of two identical _, which are held together at the centromere.
Centrides
Spindle Fiber
Chromatids
Which of the following statements is true?
Plant cells and animal cells have different strategies for cytokinesis.
Eukaryotes have circular chromosomes
Animal cells form new cell walls when they divide
Prokaryotes divide by mitosis
The information needed by a cell to direct its activities and to determine its characteristics is contained in molecules of protein.
True
False
The cell cycle has checkpoints that act to prevent uncontrolled cell division.
True
False
One difference between a cancer cell and a normal cell is that
normal cells divide uncontrollably
normal cells cannot make copies of DNA
cancer cells divide uncontrollably.
cancer cells cannot make copies of DNA
Normal cells become cancer cells when
cells pass through G1.
cells respond to control mechanisms.
regulation of cell growth and division occurs.
Cells don't respond to checkpoints
Mitosis is the process by which
microtubules are assembled.
cytoplasm is divided.
the cell rests.
the nucleus is divided into two nuclei
After a new nuclear membrane forms during telophase of mitosis, the _ divides, resulting in two cells.
Nucleus
Membrane
Cytoplasm
Cell Wall
“Cables” made by the centrioles that attach to the chromosomes’ centromeres during cell division are called _.
Chromatids
Spindle fibers
Chromatin
Cytoplasm
During interphase a cell grows, duplicates organelles, and
copies DNA
produces a new cell
divides the cytoplasm
divides the nucleus.
During what phase do the chromosomes pull apart from their sister chromatids?
Prophase
Telophase
Anaphase
Metaphase
Which of these sets correctly pairs the cell phase to what happens during that phase?
G1 = DNA replication
G2 = preparation for mitosis
S = cell division
M = cell growth
A substance known to produce or promote the development of cancer is called a growth factor.
True
False
First, you created a POINT mutation in your DNA. Describe what a point mutation is and how this can affect the protein created by the gene.
A point mutation is a deletion of another nucleotide. This affects many amino acids and definitely has an effect the protein.
A point mutation is when one nucleotide is substituted for another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.
A point mutation is an entire piece of the chromosome breaks off (many nucleotides) and joins a different chromosome.
point mutation is an insertion of another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.
The second mutation you explored is called a FRAMESHIFT mutation. Explain what this means and how it affects the protein.
A frameshift mutation can be an insertion of another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.
A frameshift mutation is an entire piece of the chromosome breaks off (many nucleotides) and joins a different chromosome
A frameshift mutation is when one nucleotide is substituted for another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.
A frameshift mutation can be an insertion or deletion of another nucleotide. This affects many amino acids and definitely has an effect the protein.
he third mutation you explored is a special kind of point mutation called a SILENT mutation. Explain what this means.
his is when the mutation is present and it causes multiple different amino acids to change and drastically affects the protein.
This is when the mutation is present and it codes for a different amino acid but only one.
This is when the mutation is present but does not code for a different amino acid.
This is when there is a change in the protein but it is not due to a different amino acid.
Single nucleotide changes are termed chromosomal mutations.
True
False
All mutations are harmful.
True
False
Using Image # 3 below: Describe what type of mutation is caused when x is removed.
point substitution
frameshift insertion
frameshift deletion
chromosomal
Which answer best describes a frameshift mutation and how it affects a protein
A frameshift mutation is an entire piece of the chromosome breaks off (many nucleotides) and joins a different chromosome
A frameshift mutation is when one nucleotide is substituted for another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.
A frameshift mutation can be an insertion of another nucleotide. This affects only one amino acid and may or may not affect the protein.
A frameshift mutation can be an insertion or deletion of another nucleotide. This affects many amino acids and definitely has an effect the protein.
Mutations that can affect the offspring of an organism occur in what cell type?
body
gamete
brain
blood
What would happen to structure F in Figure 7 if structure C in the figure above were deleted?
GCU will change to CGA
GCU will stay the same
GCU will change to GUG
GCU will change to GGU
Which of the following would most likely result in an abnormal chromosome number?
DNA exposed to radiation after the birth of the organism
nondisjunction during meiosis
the deletion of DNA during translation
mutations occurring during the blastula stage
The four haploid cells formed in the male at the end of meiosis II develop tails and are called _.
Testosterone
Gametes
Sperm
Diploid
The figure above shows crossing over during meiosis. During which phase does this process occur?
Anaphase I
Anaphase II
Prophase I
Metaphase II
The diploid number of chromosomes is re-established through _.
Cytokinesis
Meiosis
Fertilization
Crossover
In humans, the specific condition caused by an extra chromosome 21 is called _.
Parkinsons Disease
Down syndrome
Chromosomal Mutation
Autism
People with Down syndrome , also known as trisomy 21, have
46 Chromosomes
47 Chromosomes
45 Chromosomes
no X chromosome
The diagram above FIgure #4 show chromosomes in a cell undergoing cell division.
If one of the chromosomes breaks during this process, which of the following will most likely happen?
Segregation
Duplication
Mutation
Selection
A mutation in which a piece of a chromosome is lost during meiosis is called a(n) _.
Point mutation
Deletion
Addition
Codon
Trisomy is a mutation that results in a cell having an extra
Nitrogen base
Chromosome
Gene
Codon
What kind of mutation is shown in the image #6 above?
Chromosomal inversion
Chromosomal translocation
Deletion (frameshift)
Point mutation (substitution)
The following image #3 shows a normal DNA strand and the resulting polypeptide chain. Predict how the polypeptide chain would change if a mutation occurred causing structure “X” to be deleted.
Only alanine would change
All amino acids in the polypeptide chain would change.
Only the amino acids before alanine would change.
Alanine and the amino acids following alanine would change
The X and Y chromosomes are called
Partner chromosomes
Autosomes
Sex chromosomes
homologous chromosomes
In humans, the male determines the sex of the child because males have
one X and one Y chromosome
one X and one O chromosome
two Y chromosomes
two X chromosomes
During cytokinesis in the female, what divides unequally
the ovary
the sperm cell
the cytoplasm
the DNA
Taxonomy is
the study of life.
the sequence in which different groups evolved.
the evolutionary history of a species.
the science of naming and classifying organisms.
Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?
bacteria
fungi
animals
plants
The two-word system for naming organisms is called _
binomial species
domain naming
binomial nomenclature
binomial kingdoms
Which kingdom includes organisms that are all autotrophic?
fungi
protista
plantae
bacteria
In the Linnaean system of classification, the level that identifies one unique organism is the
kingdom
species
family
genus
Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include
prokaryotes.
fungi.
animals.
plants.
Which kingdoms have organisms that are eukaryotic, heterotrophic, and multicellular?
Animalia and Plantae
Animalia and Fungi
Fungi, Protista,and Eubacteria
Eubacteria and Archaebacteria
Which two kingdoms contain both unicellular and multicellular organisms?
Animalia and Fungi
Protists and Bacteria
Protists and Fungi
Archaea and Animalia
A previously unknown organism is discovered living in a freshwater stream in the Amazon Basin. It is photosynthetic, unicellular, and has a nucleus. Under the current classification system, the new organism should be classified as a(n)
plant
fungi
protist
eubacterium
Which of the following are prokaryotic cells?
fungi
plants
animals
bacteria
Which description distinguishes eukaryotes from prokaryotes?
Eukaryotes have a cell wall
Eukaryotes are multicellular
Eukaryotes are photosynthetic.
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
Most organisms in the kingdoms Plantae and Animalia are multicellular.
True
False
Which kingdom does this organism belong to? A unicellular organism with a nucleus found in pond water.
fungi
plantae
protista
bacteria
Eukaryotes that are not fungi, plants, or animals are called _.
eubacteria
protists
archaebacteria
Taxonomy provides consistent ways to name organisms.
True
False
Four of the kingdoms include eukaryotes and the other two include
Plants
Animals
Fungi
Prokaryotes
Under the Linnaean system of classification, organisms are grouped on the basis of similarities in structure.
True
False
Darwin was not the first person to suggest that evolution had occurred.
True
False
The evidence for evolution that looks at the origin of eukaryotic cells from prokaryotic cells is known as:
Biogeography
Molecular homologies
Endosymbiotic theory
Structural homologies
Darwin was the first to explain
a theory of inheritance.
how to record observations.
the quick rate of evolution.
a correct mechanism for evolution.
Darwin’s observations of finches indicated descent with
modification in bills
inheritance of large bills
convergence
no change
Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection predicts that disadvantageous traits will become more common in a population over time.
True
False
Analagous structures are structures found in organisms that have the same structure, but different functions. Ex: Like the flipper of a dolphin and the arm of a human.
True
False
A species is generally defined as a group of natural populations that can interbreed.
True
False
The finches that Darwin studied differed in the shape of their beaks. According to Darwin, the finches probably
came with those traits from South America.
had become adapted to eating different diets.
would become more similar over time.
were descended from similar birds in Africa.
Which of the following does not contribute to the progress of natural selection:
Variety with in a population
Competition within a populatio
Adaptations present within the population
Large population size
Biogeography is the study of
food preferences of organisms
DNA and RNA nucleotides.
homologous structures.
the location of organisms on Earth.
Darwin’s theory of evolution by natural selection predicts that disadvantageous traits will become more common in a population over time.
True
False
Homologous structures are structures found in organisms that have different structures, but share a similar function. Ex: Like the wing of a bird and the wing of a butterfly.
True
False
Evolution can be defined as a genetic change in
environmental variation.
species.
chromosomal drift.
natural selection
Darwin observed that the plants and animals of the Galápagos Islands were similar to those on islands off the coast of Africa with similar environments.
True
False
Refer to the illustration above. An analysis of DNA from these organisms would indicate that
their nucleotide sequences show many similarities.
they all have the same number of chromosomes.
they all have fingers
they have identical DNA.
The main source of changes in phenotype frequencies in a population is mutation in germ cells that produce gametes.
True
False
When a group of individuals of the same species has become reproductively isolated from its parent population and has accumulated sufficient genetic differences to prevent interbreeding, convergence has occurred.
True
False
Directional selection tends to cause a shift in individuals toward one extreme of phenotypic values.
True
False
This image is showing which type of natural selection?
stabilizing selection
disruptive selection
directional selection
his image shows that the two extreme phenotypes in clam shell color are selected for in the environment.
True
False
A population of clams lives in a rocky intertidal zone where black lava has flowed into an area of white sand and bleached coral. The clams’ shells range in color from white to black with a shade of gray in between. The white clams and the black clams each outnumber the gray clams ten to one. Which is the most probable conclusion for why this is?
The population is experiencing directional selection, with the extreme phenotypes moving in opposite directions.
The population is experiencing stabilizing selection, with the white and black clams each forming a normal distribution.
The population is experiencing stable selection, with the gray clams unable to compete with the white or black clams.
The population is experiencing disruptive selection, with the gray clams having no camouflage in their environment.
The Image #1 above is an example of:
Mutation
Sexual Selection
Gene Flow
Genetic Drift
_ is the mechanism of evolution where change happens as a result of a change in DNA.
Genetic Flow
Mutations
Genetic Drift
Random Mating
Which of the following is NOT a mechanism for evolution?
Random Mating
Mutations
Gene Flow
Genetic Drift
This type of selection favors individuals who have the phenotype at one extreme of the spectrum.
Directional
Disruptive
Stabilizing
Temporal
The formation of new species is called
Extinction
Speciation
Microevolution
Directional selection tends to eliminate
both extremes in a range of phenotypes.
one extreme in a range of phenotypes.
newly formed phenotypes
intermediate phenotypes.
After massive flooding a newly formed river carves out a great divide between lion populations and they can no longer breed with each other. This is an example of what kind of isolation?
Temporal
Directional
Geographic
Behavioral
The movement of alleles into or out of a population due to migration is called
Mutation
Random Mating
Gene Flow
Natural Selection
Which of the following mechanisms for evolution stems from organisms being choosy about who they mate with?
Random Mating
Adaptation
Sexual Selection
Natural Selection
_ is the mechanism of evolution that follws the principle of "survival of the fittest."
Sexual Selection
Natural Selection
Geographic Selection
Survivor
