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Anatomy & Physiology Fall Final Exam

Total questions: 72

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A vertical plane that divides body into right and left side is a...

a)

Mid-sagittal plane

b)

Sagittal plane

c)

Frontal plane

d)

Transverse Plane

2.

A plane that divides the body at the exact midline is a ...

a)

Mid-Sagittal plane

b)

Sagittal plane

c)

Frontal plane

d)

Transverse plane

3.

A plane that is composed of a vertical line that separates the body is a...

a)

Frontal plane

b)

Sagittal plane

c)

Mid-sagittal plane

d)

Transverse plane

4.

A plane that comprises a horizontal line that separates the body from top to bottom is a...

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Mid-sagittal plane

c)

Frontal plane

d)

Transverse plane

5.

In the abdominopelvic region, area 1 is the...

a)

hypogastric region

b)

Right hypochondriac region

c)

Left lumbar region

d)

umbilical region

6.

In the abdominopelvic region, area 4 is the...

a)

left iliac

b)

right lumbar

c)

right iliac

d)

left lumbar

7.

In the abdominopelvic region, area 5 is the...

a)

umbilical region

b)

hypogastric region

c)

epigastric region

d)

lumbar region

8.

In the abdominopelvic region, area 6 is the...

a)

right lumbar

b)

left lumbar

c)

right hypochondriac

d)

left hypochondriac

9.

In the abdominopelvic region, area 8 is the...

a)

hypogastric (pubic) region

b)

iliac region

c)

lumbar region

d)

hypochondriac region

10.

In the abdominopelvic region, area 9 is the...

a)

right iliac

b)

left iliac

c)

right hypochondriac

d)

left hypochondriac

11.

Tissues: Air sacs of the lungs

a)

simple squamous

b)

simple columnar

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple minded

12.

Tissues: Males urethra and vas deferens

a)

Stratified squamous

b)

Stratified columnar

c)

simple cuboidal

d)

simple squamous

13.

Tissues: Covers ovaries and lines kidney tubules

a)

Simple squamous

b)

simple minded

c)

simple columnar

d)

simple cuboidal

14.

Tissues: Forms the skin's outer layer

a)

Stratified squamous

b)

stratified columnar

c)

simple squamous

d)

simple columnar

15.

Tissues: Lining of the digestive tract and the uterus

a)

simple cuboidal

b)

simple squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

simple minded

16.

Integumentary: Contains waterproofing glycolipids that slow water loss

a)

Stratum granulosum

b)

Stratum basale

c)

Stratum corneum

d)

Stratum spinosum

e)

Stratum lucidum

17.

Integumentary: The outermost layer, 20-30 layers thick

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum lucidum

e)

Stratum granulosum

18.

Integumentary: The Deepest layer which is attached to the dermis

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum lucidum

e)

Stratum granulosum

19.

Integumentary: Thin transparent layer found only in thick skin

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum lucidum

e)

Stratum granulosum

20.

Integumentary: Contains thick bundles of intermediate filaments of pre-keratin

a)

Stratum basale

b)

Stratum corneum

c)

Stratum spinosum

d)

Stratum lucidum

e)

Stratum granulosum

21.

The axial skeleton is comprised of

a)

arms, legs, hands and feet

b)

shoulder and pelvic girdles

c)

the skull, vertebral column and the pelvis

d)

the skull, vertebral column and rib cage

22.

The axial skeleton's main function is to...

a)

provide central support for the body and protect internal organs

b)

provide an attachment point for muscles that allow movement

c)

give the body resilience

d)

provide a space for the major digestive organs

23.

The end of a long bone is known as

a)

periosteum

b)

epiphysis

c)

diaphysis

d)

compact bone

24.

The skeletal system's function is to

a)

support

b)

make blood cells

c)

store material

d)

all of these are functions of the skeletal system

25.

A fontanel is...

a)

not made of bone

b)

the source of the "soft spot" in babies

c)

found in baby skulls

d)

all of these choices are correct

26.

The superior nasal concha is a part of which bone?

a)

maxilla

b)

ethmoid

c)

sphenoid

d)

vomer

27.

Which part of the vertebral column receives the most stress by bearing most of the weight of the body?

a)

the cervical region

b)

the sacrum

c)

the lumbar region

d)

the thoracic region

28.

Bone formation is known as

a)

ossification

b)

chondrocytosis

c)

chondrosis

d)

osteoporosis

29.

A bone with approximately the same width, length and height is probably

a)

a long bone

b)

a short bone

c)

an irregular bone

d)

a flat bone

30.

A fracture that has both ends in the normal position

a)

displaced

b)

incomplete

c)

nondisplaced

d)

complete

31.

The first cervical vertebrae, the C1 is known as the

a)

atlas

b)

axis

c)

axel

d)

at

32.

The smallest bone in the carpals (wrist) is the

a)

pisiform

b)

trapezoid

c)

hamate

d)

vomer

33.

This is the lower jaw and the strongest bone in the face

a)

maxilla

b)

mantallus

c)

mandible

d)

ischium

34.

When bone reabsorption outpaces bone deposit, this disorder develops

a)

spongy bone

b)

compact bone

c)

osteoporosis

d)

arthritis

35.

A fibrous joint that is a peg-in-socket is known as a

a)

syndesmosis

b)

suture

c)

gomphosis

d)

synchrondrosis

36.

An immovable joint found only in the skull is known as a

a)

synovial joint

b)

cartilaginous joint

c)

condyle

d)

suture

37.

The gliding motion of the wrist is accomplished because of which joint?

a)

pivot

b)

hinge

c)

plane

d)

condyloid

38.

When one is moving a limb away from the median plane of the body along the frontal plane, this is called...

a)

inversion

b)

abduction

c)

dorsiflexion

d)

adduction

39.

When a ballerina points the toes, this movement is known as

a)

plantar flexion

b)

protraction

c)

dorsiflexion

d)

pronation

40.

When someone spreads their fingers the movement is known as

a)

abduction

b)

adduction

c)

flexion and extension

d)

hyperextension

41.

The movement in "c" is known as

a)

elevation and depression

b)

protraction and retraction

c)

lateral and medial excursion

d)

circumduction

42.

Muscular Dystrophy is a disease that

a)

mostly affects young women

b)

muscles decrease in size due to loss of fat and connective tissue

c)

muscle fibers degenerate and atrophy

d)

most forms do not appear to be inherited

43.

Which muscle cells have the greatest ability to regenerate?

a)

skeletal

b)

no muscle can regenerate

c)

cardiac

d)

smooth

44.

A sarcomere can be described as

a)

the wavy lines on the cell seen in the microscope

b)

the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscle

c)

the area between two intercalated discs

d)

the area between two Z discs

45.

The contractile units of skeletal muscles are known as

a)

mitochondria

b)

microtubules

c)

T tubules

d)

myofibrils

46.

In an isotonic contraction, the muscle

a)

rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

b)

changes in length and moves the "load"

c)

never converts pyruvate to lactate

d)

does not change in length but increases tension

47.

Muscle tone can be described as

a)

a state of sustained partial contraction

b)

the feeling of well-being following exercise

c)

the condition of athletes after intensive training

d)

the ability of a muscle to efficiently cause skeletal movements

48.

When the term biceps, triceps, or quadriceps forms part a of a muscle's name, you can assume that

a)

the muscle has two, three, or four insertions, respectively

b)

the muscle has two, three, or four functions, respectively

c)

the muscle has two, three, or four origins, respectively

d)

the muscle is able to change direction twice, thrice, or four times faster than other muscles, respectively

49.

Which of the following statements is true regarding the total number of skeletal muscles in the human body?

a)

There are approximately 350 muscles in the body

b)

If one considers the very tiny, insignificant muscles, there are over 1000 muscles in the human body

c)

There are approximately the same number of muscles as bones: 206

d)

There are over 600 muscles in the body

50.

The names of muscles often indicate the action of the muscle. When the term levator is part of the descriptive term for a muscle's action, this means

a)

the muscle flexes and rotates a region

b)

the muscle elevates and/or rotates a region

c)

the muscle is a fixator and stabilizes a bone or joints

d)

the muscle functions as a synergist

51.

Which muscles can cause the forehead to wrinkle horizontally?

a)

the temporalis

b)

the zygomaticus major

c)

the medial pterygoid

d)

the frontal belly of the epicranius

52.

A noisy little child is sitting across from you on the bus. When you look at the child he/she sticks his/her tongue out at you. Which tongue muscle was used?

a)

stylohyoid

b)

hyoglossus

c)

genioglossus

d)

orbicularis oris

53.

Which of the following is not how muscles are classified:

a)

the type of muscle fibers

b)

muscle location

c)

the type of action they cause

d)

muscle shape

54.

Orbicularis oris...

a)

allows protective mechanisms, such as blinking, for the eye

b)

closes, purses, and protrudes the lips

c)

pulls the lower lip down and back

d)

draws the eyebrows together

55.

In a pennate muscle pattern

a)

there is a broad origin and fascicles converge toward a single tendon

b)

muscles look like a feather

c)

there is a narrow origin diverging to a broad insertion

d)

muscles appear to be strap-like

56.

orbicularis oculi is used to

a)

winking

b)

smiling

c)

kissing

d)

frowning

57.

The function of the biceps brachii is to

a)

extend the leg

b)

extend the arm

c)

bend (flex) the hamstrings

d)

flex (bend) the elbow

58.

Immediately following the arrival of the stimulus at a skeletal muscle cell there is a short period called the _________ period during which the events of excitation-contraction coupling occur.

a)

contraction

b)

latent

c)

relaxation

d)

refractory

59.

What is a sarcomere?

a)

the wavy lines on the cell seen in the microscope

b)

the nonfunctional unit of skeletal muscles

c)

the area between two intercalated discs

d)

the area between two Z lines

60.

In an isometric contraction...

a)

there is muscle tension but no lengthening or shortening of the muscle

b)

rapidly resynthesizes creatine phosphate and ATP

c)

never converts pyruvate to lactate

d)

there is movement at the joint and shortening of the muscles

61.

Of the following movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?

a)

supination and pronation

b)

opposition & reposition

c)

lateral & medial excursion

d)

protraction & retraction

62.

Of the following movements which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?

a)

supination & pronation

b)

protraction & retraction

c)

lateral and medial excursion

d)

opposition & reposition

63.
A major function of skin is protection from:
a)
Abrasion
b)
UV light 
c)
Entry of microorganisms
d)
All of the above 
64.
The type of cell that produces melanin, which protects us against harmful UV rays.  
a)
Keratinocytes
b)
Melanocytes
c)
Eccrinocytes
d)
Melatonin
65.
The most important function of skin is:
a)
Protection
b)
Storing fat
c)
Sweating 
d)
Insulation 
66.
Melanin:
a)
Helps protect skin from UV radiation
b)
Is found in almost every human being
c)
Is responsible for skin color
d)
All of the above
67.
Arrector pili muscles:
a)
are a part of your skeletal system
b)
assist in the production of sebum
c)
contract in response to frightening situations or cold weather
d)
cause sweat glands to contract
68.
Name one location
a)
throat
b)
stomach
c)
anus
d)
kidney
69.
Name the tissue
a)
nervous tissue
b)
connective tissue
c)
epithelial tissue
d)
muscle tissue
70.

Which vertebrae articulate with the ribs?

a)

Cervical

b)

Thoracic

c)

Lumbar

d)

Sacral

71.

Which of the following allows the head to nod "yes"?

a)

Coccyx

b)

Lumbar vertebrae

c)

Thoracic vertebrae

d)

Atlas

72.

T/F: There are seven (7) cervical, twelve (12) thoracic, and five (5) lumbar vertebrae.

a)

True

b)

False

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