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Midterm Review (Chemistry)

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A student splashes chemicals on their clothes during an experiment, what object in the room should they use?

a)

Eyewash station

b)

Safety shower

c)

Fire extinguisher

d)

More than one of these

2.

The image shows students in the laboratory performing an experiment. What unsafe practices are demonstrated?

a)

The student is not wearing goggles, is touching hot glass without a glove and is using cracked glass.

b)

The student is not wearing goggles, the Bunsen burner is setup incorrectly and he is pointing the test tube towards his face.

c)

The student is not using a clamp to warm the test tube, does not have his hair tied back, and is using cracked glass.

d)

The student is using cracked glass, is pointing the test tube towards his face, and does not have long sleeves on.

3.

What equipment should be used to transfer 10 mL of sodium hydroxide from a graduated cylinder into a beaker?

a)

Funnel

b)

Scoopula/spatula

c)

Watch glass

d)

Crucible

4.

This equipment may be used to hold boiling water.

a)

Graduated cylinder

b)

Beaker

c)

Crucible

d)

Watch glass

5.

We are completing a lab and need to know the temperature and density (which requires us to know mass and volume) of a substance. Which of the following equipment should we use?

a)

Graduated cylinder and watch glass

b)

Beaker and balance

c)

Beaker and ring stand

d)

Graduated cylinder and balance

6.

Which of the following is the correct way to dilute acid with water?

a)

Add water to acid and then add more acid

b)

Add acid to water

c)

Add water to acid

d)

Add them together in a clean, unused beaker

7.

The image is a

a)

Clamp

b)

Tongs

c)

Ring stand

d)

Beaker

8.

Which of the following is an example of a proper laboratory practice/technique?

a)

Brody immerses a hot beaker into cold water.

b)

Naomi and Meghan go to the restroom and leave a lit Bunsen burner unattended.

c)

Stephen mixes two liquids together that is not stated in the procedure of the lab.

d)

Garrett uses tong to move a hot beaker off a hot plate.

9.

Goggles are worn in the laboratory

a)

To avoid eye strain

b)

To improve your vision

c)

Only if you don’t have corrective glasses

d)

Any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used

10.

A student is going to dissolve 50 g sodium chloride in water for an experiment. Which piece of equipment would she not use?

a)

Bunsen burner

b)

Graduated cylinder

c)

Beaker

d)

Stirring rod

11.

A student conducts an experiment by dropping several different types of balls from a defined height and measuring how each ball bounces. What is the independent variable?

a)

Height of ball

b)

Type of balls

c)

How high each ball bounces

d)

Number of balls dropped

12.

A dog chases a tennis ball 0.925 km. How far in meters did the dog chase the ball?

a)

9.25 m

b)

92.5 m

c)

925 m

d)

925,000 m

13.

If someone says that an object has a temperature of 300 K, what is its temperature in ºC?

a)

573ºC

b)

27 ºC

c)

1.10 ºC

d)

81900 ºC

14.

Mixing chemicals and saying it smells sweet is a

a)

Hypothesis

b)

Qualitative data

c)

Quantitative data

d)

Experiment

15.

When making a line graph, which of the following is not necessary for a proper line graph?

a)

Title

b)

Labeled axes

c)

Data points with connected line

d)

All of these are necessary for a proper line graph.

16.

What is the volume of a 60.0 g object with a density of 2.12 g/mL?

a)

127.2 mL

b)

57.9 mL

c)

28.3 mL

d)

0.04 mL

17.

What is 3,200,000 in scientific notation?

a)

3.2 x 105

b)

3.2 x 107

c)

3.2 x 106

d)

3.2 x 10-6

18.

A student conducts an experiment by dropping several different types of balls from a defined height and measuring how each ball bounces. What is the dependent variable?

a)

Height of ball

b)

Type of balls

c)

How high each ball bounces

d)

Number of balls dropped

19.

Sarah wants to see what type of liquid is best for plants. For a week, she waters four plants with different liquids: water, soda, milk, and protein shake. After this time Sarah measures the height of each plant and finds that the plant with water has grown 10 cm, the plant with soda grew 2 cm, the plant with milk died, and the plant with protein shake didn’t grow. Based on this information, what was Sarah’s hypothesis?

a)

Plants need protein to grow.

b)

Plants exposed to music grow better.

c)

Plants will grow different amounts when water with different liquids.

d)

Plants that are watered more often grow better.

20.

The independent variable on this graph

a)

Number of flies

b)

Number of groups

c)

Time in days

d)

Size of the containers

21.

A theory is accepted as the explanation of an observed phenomena until

a)

One study contradicts the theory

b)

Repeated observations conflict with the theory

c)

A new method is discovered

d)

A leading scientist declares that it is invalid

22.

Which of the following observations is quantitative?

a)

The liquid turns blue litmus paper red.

b)

The liquid boils at 100°C.

c)

The liquid tastes bitter.

d)

The liquid is cloudy.

23.

A statement that can be tested experimentally is a

a)

Variable

b)

Model

c)

Generalization

d)

Hypothesis

24.

On the graph, what is the dependent variable?

a)

Materials

b)

Density comparison

c)

Lead

d)

Density

25.

The SI base units for length and time are

a)

Centimeter and second

b)

Meter and hour

c)

Centimeter and hour

d)

Meter and second

26.

A change in the force of gravity on an object will affect its

a)

Mass

b)

Density

c)

Weight

d)

Kinetic energy

27.

The quantity of matter per unit volume is

a)

Mass

b)

Weight

c)

Inertia

d)

Density

28.

Express 0.0000032 in scientific notation.

a)

3.2 x 105

b)

0.32 x 107

c)

3.2 x 106

d)

3.2 x 10-6

29.

Calculate the number of liters in 435 mL.

a)

0.435 L

b)

4.35 L

c)

43.5 L

d)

4350 L

30.

The atomic notation/symbol for beryllium, 94Be, indicates that the

a)

Atomic number is 4

b)

Atomic number is 9

c)

Mass number is 4

d)

Atomic number is equal to 9 – 4

31.

The atomic number of an element is

a)

The mass of the element

b)

The number of protons in each atom of the element

c)

The number of neutrons in each atom of the element

d)

More than one of these is correct

32.

The isotope uranium-235 has 92 protons and 143 neutrons. Therefore, the mass number is

a)

92

b)

235

c)

143

d)

Impossible to figure out

33.

Sulfur has a charge of -2 and a mass number of 34. How many electrons will it have?

a)

34

b)

16

c)

18

d)

14

34.

In 1808, John Dalton established his atomic theory. Which of the following is not part of Dalton’s atomic theory?

a)

All matter is composed of atoms.

b)

An atom consists of a nucleus and a cloud of electrons.

c)

Atoms cannot be subdivided, created or destroyed.

d)

In chemical reactions, atoms are combined, separated, or rearranged.

35.

The atomic notation/symbol for uranium-235 should be written as

a)

U-235

b)

23592U

c)

92235U

d)

U

36.

Mass number is

a)

The atomic mass of an element

b)

The total number of electrons in an atom of an element

c)

The total number of protons in an atom of an element

d)

The total number of protons and neutrons in an atom of an element

37.

Sulfur has a charge of -2 and a mass number of 34. How many neutrons will it have?

a)

-2

b)

34

c)

16

d)

18

38.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different

a)

Masses

b)

Charges

c)

Numbers of neutrons

d)

Atomic numbers

39.

Nuclear fission is the _______________ of the nucleus while nuclear fusion is the ________________ of the nucleus.

a)

Splitting; combining

b)

Combining; splitting

c)

Splitting; reacting

d)

Reacting; combining

40.

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have different

a)

Chemical properties

b)

Number of neutrons

c)

Number of protons

d)

Number of electrons

41.

An aluminum isotope consists of 13 protons, 13 electrons, and 14 neutrons. Its mass number is

a)

13

b)

14

c)

27

d)

40

42.

If a particle has 16 protons and 18 electrons, what would be the overall charge of the particle?

a)

+2

b)

+16

c)

0

d)

-2

43.

In which type of reaction do large nuclei split apart and form smaller nuclei?

a)

Nuclear fission

b)

Nuclear fusion

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Combustion

44.

The atomic number of an element is defined by its number of

a)

Protons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Electrons

d)

Nuclei

45.

Which of the following equations correctly sets up to determine the wavelength of a radio wave that has a frequency of 3.75 x 107 Hz?

a)

3.0 x 108 = λ (3.75 x 107)

b)

3.75 x 107 = λ (3.0 x 108)

c)

E = (6.626 x 10-34) (3.75 x 107)

d)

3.75 x 107 = (6.626 x 10-34) f

46.

What is the difference between an emission spectrum and a continuous spectrum?

a)

An emission spectrum shows all of the wavelengths emitted by an atom of an element

b)

A continuous spectrum shows only specific wavelengths emitted by an atom of an element

c)

An emission spectrum shows only specific wavelengths emitted by an atom of an element

d)

More than one of these is correct

47.

The distance between two equivalent points on a wave is called

a)

Wavelength

b)

Crest

c)

Trough

d)

Frequency

48.

The height of a wave from the crest to the line of origin or the trough to the line of origin (#4 in the image) is called the

a)

Amplitude

b)

Crest

c)

Trough

d)

Frequency

49.

Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength of waves?

a)

As frequency increases, wavelength also increases.

b)

As frequency decreases, wavelength also decreases.

c)

As frequency increases, wavelength decreases.

d)

As frequency increases, wavelength does not change.

50.

What is the energy of light that has a frequency of 1.30 x 1014 Hz?

a)

4.33 x 105 J

b)

2.31 x 10-6 J

c)

5.10 x 10-48 J

d)

8.61 x 10-20 J

51.

A quantum of energy is the

a)

Frequency of electromagnetic energy given off by an atom

b)

Wavelength of electromagnetic energy given off by an atom

c)

Minimum quantity of energy that can be lost or gained by an atom

d)

Continuous spectrum of energy given off by an atom

52.

The _________ (#5 in the image) is above the line of origin while the _____ (#2 in the image) is below the line of origin.

a)

Trough, crest

b)

Crest, trough

c)

Wavelength, frequency

d)

Amplitude, wavelength

53.

The dual nature of light states that

a)

Light behaves only like a wave

b)

Light behaves only like a particle

c)

Light behaves has both a wave and a particle

d)

Light’s behavior cannot be known

54.

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the lowest frequency (hint: use the provided diagram)?

a)

X-rays

b)

Infrared light

c)

Ultraviolet light

d)

Microwaves

55.

Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for a fluorine atom, which has an atomic number of 9?

a)

1s22s7

b)

1s22s22p4

c)

1s22s22p5

d)

1s22s22p63s23p5

56.

Which element has the electron configuration of 1s22s22p3?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Magnesium

d)

Phosphorus

57.

How many electrons can a p orbital hold?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

6

d)

10

58.

Which of the following shows the correct noble gas configuration for manganese, which has an atomic number of 25?

a)

[Ar] 4s23d5

b)

[Kr] 4s23d5

c)

[Ne] 3s23p64s23d5

d)

1s22s22p63s23p64s23d5

59.

Which of the following lists the atomic orbitals in the correct order that they are filled, according to the Aufbau principle?

a)

1s 2s 2p 3s 4s 3p 3d 4p 5s

b)

1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 3d 4p 5s

c)

1s 2s 3s 3p 4s 4p 3d 4d

d)

1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 5s

60.

Which principle states that only two electrons can fill each orbital and each has to have an opposite spin?

a)

Pauli exclusion principle

b)

Aufbau principle

c)

Quantum effect

d)

Hund’s rule

61.

Which of the following does the angular momentum quantum number indicate?

a)

Shape of the orbital

b)

Energy level

c)

Orientation of the orbital

d)

Spin of the electron

62.

What is the lowest energy state of an atom called?

a)

The ground state

b)

The excited state

c)

The solid state

d)

The chaotic state

63.

According to the Bohr model of the atom, the single electron of a hydrogen atom circles the nucleus

a)

In specific, allowed orbits

b)

In one fixed orbit at all times

c)

At any of an infinite number of distances, depending on its energy

d)

Counterclockwise

64.

The orbital diagram for nitrogen is

a)
b)
c)
d)
65.

If electrons in an atom have the lowest possible energies, the atom is in the

a)

Ground state

b)

Inert state

c)

Excited state

d)

None of these

66.

Which of the following correctly describes the number of electrons each sub-orbital can hold?

a)

s = 2, p = 4, d = 6, and f = 8

b)

s = 1, p = 3, d = 5, and f = 7

c)

s = 2, p = 6, d = 10, and f = 14

d)

s = 1, p = 2, d = 3, and f = 4

67.

Choose the element with the electron configuration: 1s22s22p3.

a)

Oxygen

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Magnesium

d)

Phosphorus

68.

The wavelength of a wave is measured from

a)

Crest to crest

b)

Crest to tough

c)

Origin to crest

d)

Origin to trough

69.

Which of the following makes use of the photoelectric effect?

a)

Solar power cells

b)

Hydrogen fuel cells

c)

Alkaline batteries

d)

Diesel engines

70.

Which of the following electromagnetic waves has photons of the highest energy?

a)

Microwaves

b)

Infrared waves

c)

X-rays

d)

Ultraviolet waves

71.

Which of the following is the appropriate formula for the Fe+3 and S-2 ions?

a)

FeS

b)

Fe3S2

c)

Fe2S3

d)

S2Fe3

72.

What is the name for FeCl2?

a)

Iron chloride

b)

Iron (II) chloride

c)

Iron (I) chloride

d)

Iron dichloride

73.

The compound (NH4)3PO4 has NH4+ as its _____________ and PO4-3 has its ____________.

a)

Cation, anion

b)

Anion, cation

c)

Cation, cation

d)

Anion, anion

74.

The formula for calcium iodide is

a)

CaI

b)

CaI2

c)

Ca2I

d)

ICa2

75.

What is the name for CuCl2?

a)

Copper chloride

b)

Copper dichloride

c)

Copper (I) chloride

d)

Copper (II) chloride

76.

In the (NH4)3PO4, NH4+ is a __________________ and PO4-3 is a _____________________.

a)

Monoatomic ion, polyatomic ion

b)

Monoatomic ion, monoatomic ion

c)

Polyatomic ion, monoatomic ion

d)

Polyatomic ion, polyatomic ion

77.

Ionic compounds have all the following properties except

a)

Doesn’t dissolve well in water

b)

High melting and boiling points

c)

Good conductors

d)

Dissolves well in water

78.

The formula for Li+ and F- ions would be

a)

Li3F

b)

Li2F

c)

LiF

d)

LiF2

79.

An ionic compound will form between a

a)

Metal and nonmetal

b)

Nonmetal and nonmetal

c)

Metal and metal

d)

None of these

80.

The compound AlBr3 is called

a)

Aluminum bromine

b)

Aluminum bromide

c)

Aluminum (III) bromide

d)

Aluminum tribromide

81.

What is the formula for the compound dinitrogen tetraoxide?

a)

N2O3

b)

N2O4

c)

N3O2

d)

N3O4

82.

What is the correct name for the compound P2Cl4?

a)

Phosphorus chloride

b)

Phosphorus tetrachloride

c)

Diphosphorus chloride

d)

Diphosphorus tetrachloride

83.

A covalent bond is formed when two atoms

a)

Share one or more pairs of electrons with each other

b)

Gain electrons

c)

Gain and lose electrons

d)

More than one of these

84.

Which of the following are properties of most covalent compounds?

a)

Relatively low melting points

b)

Relatively high melting points

c)

High conductivity

d)

Dissolves in water

85.

What type of atoms are found in a covalent compound?

a)

Nonmetal and acid

b)

Metal and nonmetal

c)

Nonmetal and nonmetal

d)

Metal and acid

86.

What is the name of the compound HClO2?

a)

Hydrogen chlorine oxide

b)

Chlorous acid

c)

Hydrochloric acid

d)

Chorine hydroxide

87.

What is the name of H2Se?

a)

Hydrogen selenide

b)

Hydroselenic acid

c)

Selenic acid

d)

None of these

88.

What is the name of the compound SiCl4?

a)

Monosilicide tetrachloride

b)

Silicon tetrachloride

c)

Silicon monochloride

d)

Tetrasilicon monochloride

89.

The term acid usually refers to

a)

A solution of the acid compound in water

b)

Only the acid compound

c)

A compound containing hydrogen

d)

A compound containing hydrogen and oxygen

90.

Which of the following would be nitrogen monoxide?

a)

NO

b)

NO2

c)

N2O

d)

N2O3

91.

A chemical formula includes the symbols of the elements in the compound and subscripts that indicate

a)

Atomic mass of each element

b)

Number of atoms or ions of each element in the compound

c)

Overall mass of the element

d)

Charges on the elements or ions

92.

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl

c)

CaCl3

d)

CaCl2

93.

When writing the formula for a compound that contains a polyatomic ion,

a)

Write the anion’s formula first

b)

Use superscripts to show the number of polyatomic ions present

c)

Use parentheses if the number of polyatomic ions is greater than 1

d)

Always place the polyatomic ion in parentheses

94.

Which of the following is the correct formula for iron (III) sulfate?

a)

Fe3SO4

b)

Fe3(SO4)2

c)

Fe2(SO4)3

d)

3FeSO4

95.

Which of the following is the name for Ag2CO3?

a)

Silver carbonate

b)

Silver carbon oxide

c)

Silver (I) carbonate

d)

Carbonate silver

96.

What is the formula for silicon dioxide?

a)

SO2

b)

SiO2

c)

Si2O

d)

S2O

97.

Name the compound N2O2.

a)

Dinitrogen monoxide

b)

Dinitrogen dioxide

c)

Nitrogen (II) dioxide

d)

Dinitrogen bioxide

98.

What is the name for H2SO4?

a)

Persulfuric acid

b)

Sulfuric acid

c)

Sulfurous acid

d)

Hydrosulfuric acid

99.

Compared to solid ionic compounds, solid covalent compounds generally

a)

Have lower melting points

b)

Are more brittle

c)

Conduct electricity when dissolved in water

d)

More than one of these

100.

What is the correct formula for hydrobromic acid?

a)

HBrO4

b)

HBr2

c)

H(BrO4)2

d)

HBr

101.

If two covalently bonded atoms are identical and equally share their electrons, the bond is

a)

Nonpolar covalent

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

More than one of these

102.

In drawing a Lewis structure, the central atom is generally the

a)

Most massive atom

b)

Atom with the highest atomic number

c)

Atom with the fewest electrons

d)

Most unique atom

103.

A polar covalent is likely to form between two atoms that

a)

Are similar in electronegativity

b)

Are of similar size

c)

Differ in electronegatively

d)

Have the same number of electrons

104.

The Lewis structure of HCN contains

a)

One double bond and one single bond

b)

One triple bond and one single bond

c)

Two single bonds

d)

Two double bonds

105.

Hydrogen has an electronegativity of 2.1 while fluorine has one of 4. What sort of bond do they form?

a)

Mostly ionic

b)

Polar covalent

c)

Nonpolar covalent

d)

Cannot determine

106.

Which of the following may indicate that a chemical reaction has occurred?

a)

Release of energy as light

b)

A color change

c)

Gas bubble formation

d)

All of these

107.

Which of the following is a product in the reaction: iron + copper (II) sulfate → iron (II) sulfate + copper?

a)

Iron (II) sulfate

b)

Copper

c)

Iron

d)

More than one of these

108.

Which type of chemical reaction results in the formation of a single product?

a)

Combustion

b)

Synthesis

c)

Decomposition

d)

Double-displacement

109.

Which of the following represents a decomposition reaction?

a)

2 Sb (s) + 3 I2 (g) → 2 SbI3 (s)

b)

HgO (s) → 2 Hg (l) + O2 (g)

c)

FeS (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → H2S (g) + FeCl2 (aq)

d)

Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + H2 (g)

110.

Which of the following represents a single-replacement reaction?

a)

2 Sb (s) + 3 I2 (g) → 2 SbI3 (s)

b)

2 HgO (s) → 2 Hg (l) + O2 (g)

c)

FeS (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → H2S (g) + FeCl2 (aq)

d)

Zn (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + H2 (g)

111.

The reaction Pb(NO3)2 (aq) + 2 KI (aq) → PbI2 (s) + 2 KNO3 (aq) is a

a)

Double-displacement reaction

b)

Synthesis reaction

c)

Decomposition reaction

d)

Combustion reaction

112.

The reaction 2 C2H2 (g) + 5 O2 (g) →4 CO2 (g) + 2 H2O (l) is a

a)

Combustion reaction

b)

Synthesis reaction

c)

Decomposition reaction

d)

Double-displacement reaction

113.

An effective collision has

a)

Sufficient energy

b)

A favorable orientation

c)

Sufficient energy and a favorable orientation

d)

Collisions

114.

What factor(s) can influence the rate of the reaction?

a)

Surface area

b)

Temperature

c)

Concentration

d)

All of the above

115.

What impact does an increase in temperature generally have on the rate of a reaction?

a)

It increases it

b)

It has no impact

c)

There is no way to measure the change

d)

It decreases it

116.

Which of the following indicates that a chemical equation is balanced?

a)

The numbers of atoms of each element are the same on both sides of the equation

b)

All of the coefficients are the same

c)

All of the coefficients can be divided by two

d)

The sums of the coefficients on each side of the equation are equal

117.

To balance a chemical equation, you must

a)

Adjust the subscripts

b)

Adjust the number of products

c)

Adjust the number of reactants

d)

Adjust the coefficients

118.

Which of the following equations represents the balanced equation for the reaction of iron and oxygen?

a)

2 Fe + O2 → Fe2O3

b)

Fe + 3 O2 → Fe2O3

c)

4 Fe + 3 O2 → 2 Fe2O3

d)

3 Fe + 3 O2 → 2 Fe2O3

119.

Which equation is not balanced?

a)

2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O

b)

4 H2 + 2 O2 → 4 H2O

c)

H2 + H2 + O2 → H2O + H2O

d)

2 H2 + O2 → H2O

120.

Which coefficients correctly balance the following reaction?

__ KClO3 → __ KCl + __ O2

a)

1, 1, 1

b)

1, 1, 3

c)

2, 2, 3

d)

2, 1, 1

121.

The _____ symbol separates the reactants from the products and means “to yield.”

a)

+

b)

(s)

c)

→

d)

(g)

122.

What are the coefficients to balance the following reaction?

___ N2 + ___ H2 → ___ NH3

a)

1, 1, 2

b)

1, 3, 3

c)

3, 1, 2

d)

1, 3, 2

123.

When the equation, Fe + Cl2 → FeCl3, is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl2?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

124.

When the following reaction is balanced, what is the coefficient for HCl?

__ Mg + __ HCl → __ MgCl2 + __ H2

a)

6

b)

3

c)

1

d)

2

125.

Alice is asked to balance the equation: solid phosphorus combines with oxygen gas to form diphosphorus pentoxide. She has written the following skeletal equation:

__ P + __ O2 → __ P2O5

Which of the following should she do next to balance this equation?

a)

List the number of each element on the reactants and products side

b)

Nothing, the equation is already balanced

c)

Multiply everything by 2

d)

Change P to P2 in the reactants

126.

When the equation, Fe3O4 + Al → Al2O3 + Fe, is correctly balanced, what is the coefficient of Fe?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

6

d)

9

127.

Which of the following is the balanced equation for the reaction: Al + CuCl2 → Cu + AlCl3?

a)

3 Al + 2 CuCl2 → 2 Cu + 3 AlCl3

b)

2 Al + 3 CuCl2 → 3 Cu + 2 AlCl3

c)

Al + CuCl2 → Cu + AlCl3

d)

3 Al + CuCl2 → Cu + 3 AlCl3

128.

The active ingredient in an antacid tablet is calcium hydroxide. When calcium hydroxide enters the stomach, it reacts with hydrochloric acid to form calcium chloride and water. In this reaction, calcium hydroxide is a _________ and calcium chloride is a ______.

a)

Reactant, product

b)

Reactant, reactant

c)

Product, reactant

d)

Product, product

129.

The reaction represented by the equation, Mg (s) + 2 HCl (aq) → H2 (g) + MgCl2 (aq), is a

a)

Combustion reaction

b)

Decomposition reaction

c)

Single replacement reaction

d)

Double displacement reaction

130.

The equation AX → A + X is the general equation for a

a)

Synthesis reaction

b)

Decomposition reaction

c)

Combustion reaction

d)

Single replacement reaction

131.

A student is places 0.5 M HCl and a 5 g chunk of Mg in one beaker and 0.5 M HCl and 5 g powdered in another beaker. Which beaker would react the fastest and why?

a)

Beaker #1, it has more HCl

b)

Beaker #2, it has less HCl

c)

Beaker #2, it has more surface area for Mg

d)

Beaker #1, it has less surface area for Mg

132.

If a collision between two molecules is very gentle, the molecules are

a)

More likely to be favorably oriented

b)

Less likely to be favorably oriented

c)

More likely to react

d)

More likely to rebound without reacting

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