WorksheetsAP Biology Midterm Review-Cells, Bioener, Nerv, Imm, Cycle, End
Total questions: 123
Worksheet time: 3hrs 31mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The parathyroid gland is involved in regulating blood glucose levels of __.
a)
glucose
b)
iodine
c)
calcium
d)
cholesterol
2.
What is the female gland that secretes estrogen and progesterone?
a)
Testes
b)
Pancreas
c)
Thymus
d)
Ovaries
3.
What does the hormone melatonin do?
a)
increases metabolism
b)
decreases metabolism
c)
regulates sleep cycles
d)
makes your skin darker
4.
TSH, FSH, LH, ACTH are all examples of ___.
a)
steroid hormones
b)
peptide hormones
c)
amine hormones
d)
tropic hormones
5.
Produces insulin
a)
pancreas
b)
adrenal gland
c)
liver
d)
anterior pituitary
6.
Hormones that direct and control the activities of other hormones.
a)
somatomedins
b)
beta blockers
c)
growth hormones
d)
tropic hormones
7.
epinephrine and norepinephrine activate these receptors
a)
G protein
b)
tyrosine kinase
c)
ion channel
d)
intracellular
8.
Organ that secretes epinephrine
a)
thyroid
b)
pancreas
c)
adrenal gland
d)
anterior pituitary
9.
These hormones are synthesized from cholesterol.
a)
peptide
b)
steroid
c)
amine
10.
In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that
a)
oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon.
b)
spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is completed by the time a girl is born.
c)
oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth.
d)
cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis.
11.
At the end of a nonpregnant ovarian cycle, the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues is called
a)
ovulation
b)
menopause
c)
menstruation
d)
fertilization
12.
Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that
a)
they are approximately the same size.
b)
they both have the same number of chromosomes.
c)
they each have a flagellum that provides motility.
d)
they are formed before birth.
13.
In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are
a)
follicular -->luteal --> secretory.
b)
follicular --> ovulation --> luteal.
c)
proliferative --> luteal --> ovulation.
d)
menstrual --> proliferative --> secretory.
14.
For normal human fertilization to occur,
a)
only one sperm need penetrate one egg.
b)
secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must decrease.
c)
the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus.
d)
the uterus must be enlarged.
15.
Imagine that a woman is in the final week of her pregnancy. Her doctor gives her an injection of oxytocin. The likely result of this is that the pregnant woman would
a)
be prevented from lactation.
b)
stop secreting prostaglandins from the placenta.
c)
undergo vigorous contractions of her uterine muscles.
d)
undergo the loss of oxytocin receptors from her uterine smooth muscle cells.
16.
Fertilization normally
a)
merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell.
b)
is required for parthenogenesis.
c)
reinstates diploidy.
d)
follows gastrulation.
17.
What is the primary function of the light reactions of photosynthesis?
a)
To produce glucose
b)
To produce NADPH and ATP
c)
To use ATP
d)
To produce RuBP
18.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO2 + light + H2O --> O2 + glucose
b)
CO2 + glucose + H2O --> O2 + light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO2 + glucose
d)
CO2 + O2 + H2O --> Light+ glucose
19.
Where do the light-dependent reactions occur?
a)
thylakoid membrane
b)
stroma
c)
lumen
d)
mitochondria
20.
The monomer of a nucleic acid is
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Amino Acid
c)
Nucleotide
d)
Triglyceride (3 Fatty Acids and 1 Glycerol)
21.
What are the carbohydrates in the cell membrane for?
a)
to form channels and pumps
b)
to help cells identify one another
c)
to make the membrane strong
22.
True or false: Regulating what enters and leaves the cell helps the cell maintain homeostasis.
a)
True
b)
False
23.
The cell below is in a _________ solution.
a)
Hypotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Isotonic
24.
If a molecule passes through a protein, but goes down a gradient, it is called
a)
active transport
b)
endocytosis
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
exocytosis
25.
What are the reactants for cellular respiration?
a)
oxygen and lactic acid
b)
water and glucose
c)
carbon dioxide and water
d)
glucose and oxygen
26.
Where does glycolysis occur?
a)
mitochondrial matrix
b)
cytoplasm
c)
inner membrane of mitochondria
d)
outer membrane of mitochondria
27.
Identify the functional group:
a)
steroid
b)
phosphate
c)
carbonyl
d)
carboxyl
28.
Which macromolecule is shown?
a)
phospholipid
b)
protein
c)
steroid
d)
glucose (carbohydrate)
29.
Which of these is true about how photosynthesis and respiration are related
a)
photosynthesis stores energy, Respiration releases it
b)
respiration stores energy and photosynthesis releases energy
c)
photosynthesis and respiration are the same
d)
photosynthesis and respiration are not related
30.
The following molecule is a monomer of carbohydrates. What is it?
a)
nucleotide
b)
amino acid
c)
glucose
d)
fatty acid
31.
What is the name of this molecule?
a)
amino acid
b)
nucleotide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
triglyceride
32.
Which of the following is correct about water?
a)
it is a polar molecule and contains polar bonds
b)
it is a polar molecule and contains non-polar bonds
c)
it is a non-polar molecule and contains polar bonds
d)
it is a non-polar molecule and contains non-polar bonds
33.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
34.
The two kinds of cells are Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes. How are they different?
a)
Prokaryotes have a nucleus.
b)
Eukaryotes have a nucleus.
c)
Prokaryotes are plant cells.
d)
There is no difference.
35.
Which statement explains the effect of the inhibitor?
a)
The inhibitor changes the shape of the active site preventing the substrate from attaching.
b)
the inhibitor causes the substrate to attach to the active site
c)
the inhibitor has no effect on the enzyme
36.
Which line represents an enzyme-catalyzed reaction?
a)
Line 1
b)
Line 2
37.
When a molecule can occupy the same active site as the substrate, a situation called __________________ can result
a)
Competitive lnhibition
b)
Allosteric Regulation
c)
Non-Competitive Inhibition
d)
Feedback Inhibition
38.
Most enzymes have the ending:
a)
-ase
b)
-ose
c)
-ic acid
d)
-ate
39.
At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:
a)
Denaturation
b)
Decreased Kinetic Motion
c)
Increased H-Bonding
d)
Dissociation of Ionic Compounds
40.
Which of the following structure is where photosynthesis occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
chloroplast
c)
mitochondria
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
41.
A bacteria that has chlorophyll will be able to do
a)
photosynthesis
b)
cellular respiration
c)
osmosis
d)
activen transport
42.
Which of the following structure is where cellular respiration occurs in the cell?
a)
nucleus
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
43.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
44.
You might think of me as the trash collector, but recycler is maybe more accurate. What am I?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
lysosome
c)
vacuole
d)
ribosome
45.
Which way would the purple molecules move through the semi-permeable membrane?
a)
From the A side to the B-side
b)
From the B side to the A side
c)
none of the purple molecules would move
d)
they would move equally back and forth in a state of dynamic equilibrium
46.
When cells are placed in a __________ solution they begin to swell.
a)
Hypertonic
b)
Isotonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
Equalized
47.
The movement of molecules against a concentration gradient
a)
simple diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
active transport
d)
osmosis
48.
What energy production process is shown in the image?
a)
cellular respiration
b)
alcohol fermenation
c)
lactic acid fermenation
d)
citric acid cycle
49.
Attractions between water molecules due to polarity are called:
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
50.
The process/reaction used to link compounds/monomers together. Releases water.
a)
Dehydration
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Enzomatic
d)
Tetratonic
51.
The process used to split polymers; this is done by adding water
a)
Dehydration
b)
Hydrolysis
c)
Enzomatic
d)
Tetratonic
52.
G proteins are a family of proteins involved in transmitting chemical signals originating from outside a cell into the inside of the cell. G proteins function as molecular switches.
Which of the following best describes the role in which the G protein is most intimately involved in the process shown above?
Which of the following best describes the role in which the G protein is most intimately involved in the process shown above?
a)
Production of the ligand molecule.
b)
Reception of the signal.
c)
Transduction of the signal.
d)
Production of response to signal.
53.
Which of the following is not a lipid?
a)
triglyceride
b)
phospholipids
c)
steroids
d)
enzymes
54.
What are the properties of a signal molecule that is most likely to bind to a receptor that is on the outside of the cell membrane?
a)
small, nonpolar, hydrophobic
b)
large, polar, hydrophilic
c)
small, polar, hydrophilic
d)
large, nonpolar, hydrophobic
55.
Which of the following MOST accurately explains the proximity of the Golgi apparatus to the RER and the cell membrane?
a)
The Golgi apparatus needs to be close to teh RER so that it can modify the lipids that are produced by the RER before they will be exported from the cell. The Golgi will further modify the lipids and then create vesicles that will fuse with the cell membrane to efficiently excrete the products.
b)
The Golgi apparatus is close to the RER so that it can properly translate the proteins as directed by the DNA instructions received by the RER from the nucleus. The Golgi apparatus is close to the RER so translation can take place quickly. Once the proteins are produced, they can be sent out of the cell by fusing with the cell membrane.
c)
The Golgi apparatus is close to the cell membrane so it can fuse with the vesicles or imported materials. This allows the Golgi apparatus to quickly break down the imported materials so they can be sent to the RER for further processing. The RER will use the imported materials to make proteins for the cell.
d)
The Golgi apparatus needs to be close to the RER as it receives proteins that have been produced and modified by the RER that will be exported from the cell. Once the contents of the vesicles are received from the RER and move through the Golgi apparatus, they are then excreted from the Golgi apparatus via vesicles that will fuse with the cell membrane for export out of the cell. The closeness of these organelles is directly related to the needs of the cell to export material efficiently.
56.
The main structural component of the plasma membrane.
a)
cholesterol
b)
protein
c)
phospholipid
d)
nucleic acids
57.
Which four structures are found in all cells?
a)
DNA, ribosomes, cytosol, and a cell membrane
b)
nucleus, ribosomes, cytosol, and a cell membrane
c)
nucleus, ribosomes, cytosol, and mitochondria
d)
DNA, cell wall, cytosol, and a cell membrane
58.
Which organelles produce/synthesize proteins?
a)
ribosomes
b)
rough ER
c)
smooth ER
d)
nucleolus
59.
Which organelles folds proteins and packages them into vesicles to be shipped to other organelles to be processed?
a)
free ribosomes
b)
rough ER
c)
smooth ER
d)
golgi apparatus
60.
Which organelles modifies proteins and packages them into vesicles to be shipped out of the cell?
a)
free ribosomes
b)
rough ER
c)
smooth ER
d)
golgi apparatus
61.
Which of the following organelles is responsible for storing substances in plants and some protists?
a)
vacuoles
b)
vesicles
c)
ribosomes
d)
microtubules
62.
Which of the following does NOT describe an aquaporin?
a)
a transport protein
b)
amphipathic
c)
water travels through it
d)
it requires energy (ATP) to function
63.
Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a membrane
a)
glucose
b)
NaCl
c)
proteins
d)
water
64.
Which of the following is NOT a type of passive transport?
a)
diffusion
b)
facilitated diffusion
c)
osmosis
d)
endocytosis
65.
In an isotonic solution, the NET flow of water is
a)
into the cell.
b)
out of the cell.
c)
there is no net flow of water.
66.
A HYPERTONIC solution has a _____ concentration of solute than the interior of the cell and a cell will ______ when placed into this solution.
a)
lower; shrink
b)
lower; swell
c)
higher; shrink
d)
higher; swell
67.
What type of transport is this?
a)
Endocytosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Exocytosis
d)
Osmosis
68.
What is plasmolysis?
a)
Pulling away of the plant cell membrane as it loses water in a hypertonic solution.
b)
Pulling away of the animal cell membrane as it undergoes osmosis.
c)
An increase in turgor pressure as the cell undergoes osmosis.
d)
Contraction of the protoplast of a plant cell as a result of gaining water.
69.
When both inside and outside of a cell have the same concentration of water it is said that the cell has reached a state of ___________.
a)
osmosis
b)
equilibrium
c)
diffusion
d)
hypertonic
70.
Which molecule is responsible for carrying electrons to the Calvin Cycle during photosynthesis?
a)
NADPH
b)
NADH
c)
FADH2
d)
ATP
71.
During which phase of photosynthesis is O2 created?
a)
Light dependent reactions
b)
Calvin Cycle
c)
Citric Acid Cycle
d)
Glycolysis
72.
Why would a plant keep their stomata closed during hot days?
a)
Open stomata release too much CO2, starving the plants.
b)
Open stomata release water, causing the plant to dry out.
c)
Open stomata cause the plant to lose access to CO2 molecules
d)
Open stomata lead to a buildup of O2 molecules in the cells.
73.
Why does sprinting lead to a burn in the muscles?
a)
The lack of oxygen leads to lactic acid fermentation
b)
The lack of oxygen leads to alcohol fermenation
c)
The increased oxygen consumption speeds up cellular respiration, overheating the muscles
d)
The decreased oxygen production overwhelms the signal proteins in your lungs
74.
Which of the following correctly describes how enzymes work?
a)
they lower the energy of the reactants to increase the rxn rate
b)
they supply energy to the reaction to increase the rxn rate
c)
they lower the energy of the products to increase the rxn rate
d)
they lower the activation energy of the reaction to increase the rxn rate
75.
The monomer, building block, of proteins
a)
Amino Acid
b)
Fatty Acid
c)
Nucleotide
d)
monosaccharide
76.
Which property makes water molecules stick to other water molecules?
a)
adhesion
b)
cohesion
c)
capillary action
d)
polarity
77.
The basic unit of life is a(n) __________.
a)
atom
b)
cell
c)
organelle
d)
organism
78.
What is another name for B cells that produce antibodies?
a)
plasma cells
b)
memory cells
c)
natural killer cells
d)
macrophages
79.
These cells bind to antigen presenting cells signaling them to produce cytokines that stimulate B and T cells to divide
a)
helper T cell
b)
mast cell
c)
cytotoxic T cell
d)
plasma cells
80.
The primary purpose of vaccines is to __.
a)
induce inflammation
b)
activate the immune system to produce memory cells
c)
stimulate natural killer cells
d)
initiate the innate immune response
81.
A key part of the humoral immune response is
a)
the attack of cytotoxic T cells on infected host cells.
b)
the production of antibodies by plasma cells.
c)
perforation of infected host cells by perforin.
d)
the attack of phagocytes on living pathogens.
82.
The receptors on T cells and B cells bind to
a)
antibodies.
b)
antigens
c)
natural killer cells.
d)
immunoglobulins.
83.
Secondary immune responses upon a second exposure to a pathogen are due to the activation of
a)
memory cells.
b)
macrophages.
c)
stem cells.
d)
B cells.
84.
Antibodies are
a)
carbohydrates.
b)
amino acids.
c)
lipids.
d)
proteins.
85.
The activation of helper T cells is likely
a)
when an antigen is displayed by a dendritic cell.
b)
when a cytotoxic T cell releases cytokines.
c)
when natural killer (NK) cells come in contact with a tumor cell.
d)
) in the bone marrow during the self-tolerance test.
86.
Which of the following is not associated with humoral immunity?
a)
antibodies
b)
breast milk
c)
B cells
d)
cytotoxic T cells
87.
Passive immunity can be acquired through which of the following methods?
a)
vaccination
b)
infection
c)
mother's milk
d)
topical cream
88.
In order to activate the helper T cells, antigens need to be presented by which type of MHC receptors?
a)
MHC I
b)
MHC II
89.
The process of engulfing a bacterium or virus particle by a macrophage is known as
a)
Phagocytosis
b)
Pinocytosis
c)
T cell
d)
Dendritic cell
90.
Which of the following is part of innate immunity?
a)
Neutrophils
b)
Cell-Mediated Response
c)
Inflammation
d)
Humoral Response
91.
Neurons are cells of the nervous system that receive and transmit signals. Which part of a neuron receives incoming messages from other cells and carry information to the cell body?
a)
axon
b)
dendrites
c)
neurotransmitters
d)
nucleus
92.
Neurons are cells of the nervous system that receive and transmit signals. Which part of a neuron transmits signals from the cell body to other cells?
a)
axon
b)
dendrites
c)
neurotransmitters
d)
nucleus
93.
Which type of neuron receives signals/stimuli from the eyes, ears, nose, skin, or tongue and transmits this information to other neurons?
a)
sensory
b)
motor
c)
interneuron
d)
relay neuron
94.
Which type of neuron signals digestive glands to release enzymes, muscles to contract, or causes other actions in the body?
a)
sensory
b)
motor
c)
interneuron
d)
relay neuron
95.
Label the Neuron-What does the letter "C" represent?
a)
Cell Body
b)
Dendrite
c)
Axon Terminal
d)
Myelin Sheath
96.
Which term refers to the difference in electrical charges on either side of a cell membrane?
a)
membrane potential
b)
electricity
c)
signal transduction
d)
negativity
97.
How do cells maintain their membrane potential?
a)
By using sodium-potassium pumps to actively (with ATP) transport ions
b)
By using sodium-potassium pumps to passively (without ATP) transport ions
c)
simple diffusion
d)
osmosis
98.
What is a synapse?
a)
The space between the axon of one neuron and the cell that is receiving a signal
b)
a chemical signalling molecule
c)
a type of neuron
d)
a part of the axon
99.
Epinephrine (also known as adrenaline or adrenalin) is a hormone and a neurotransmitter. The model for the action of epinephrine is shown below.
Which of the following molecules act as a second messenger in the cascade by which epinephrine stimulates the activation of the enzyme glycogen phosphorylase?
a)
adenosine
b)
adenylyl cyclase
c)
citric acid
d)
cyclic amp
100.
Transmission through a neuron occurs in a predictable order. Which of the following sequences represents the conduction pathway through the motor neuron shown in the diagram above?
a)
1—3—4—5
b)
2—1—4—5
c)
5—3—1—2
d)
2—1—3—5
101.
Given the steps shown below, which of the following is the correct transmission sequence at a chemical synapse?
1. Neurotransmitter binds with receptor
2. Sodium ions rush into neuron’s cytoplasm
3. Action potential depolarizes the presynaptic membrane
4. Ion channel opens to allow particular ion to enter cell
5. Synaptic vesicles release neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft
a)
4-3-1-2-5
b)
2-3-5-4-1
c)
1-2-3-4-5
d)
3-2-5-1-4
102.
Acetylcholine, a common neurotransmitter, is synthesized in the pre-synaptic end of a neuron and released into the synaptic cleft as shown in the illustration above. What would be a likely result of an increase in the amount of acetylcholinesterase present in the synaptic cleft?
a)
More sodium would enter the sodium/potassium ion channels of the postsynaptic dendrite
b)
More potassium would enter sodium/potassium ion channels of the postsynaptic dendrite
c)
Fewer sodium/potassium ion channels would be opened in the postsynaptic dendrite
d)
Fewer vesicles in the pre-synaptic axon terminal would contain acetylcholine
103.
The diagram below graphs an action potential. Use the Roman Numerals to indicate your answer to the following questions.
A neuron that is not conducting an action potential would have a membrane potential that is most like the value at
a)
I and II
b)
I and III
c)
I and IV
d)
II and III
104.
What two things are found in the central nervous system?
a)
brain/spinal cord
b)
spinal cord/motor neurons
c)
motor/sensory neurons
d)
only brain
105.
How does mitosis in plant cells differ from mitosis in animal cells?
a)
animal cells form a cell plate
b)
plant cells form a cell plate
c)
plant cells go through the process in reverse
d)
plant cells go through two rounds of mitosis while animal cells just do one
106.
Which of the following shows the correct sequence of the cell cycle?
a)
Mitosis-> G1->S->G2->cytokinesis
b)
S->G1-> G2-> mitosis-> cytokinesis
c)
cytokinesis->mitosis->G1->S->G2
d)
G1->S->G2->mitosis->cytokinesis
107.
Why do cells go through cell division
a)
Growth
b)
Reproduction
c)
Repair
d)
All of the above
108.
Structure (b) is a ____.
a)
chromosome
b)
chromatid
c)
centromere
109.
The phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
110.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
111.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
112.
DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.
a)
G1
b)
S
c)
G2
d)
G0
113.
The chromosome of a bacterium...
a)
occurs in multiple pairs within the cell
b)
is wrapped around proteins
c)
has a circular shape
d)
is found within the nucleus
114.
The cell cyle is regulated by...
a)
cyclins
b)
CDK's
c)
hormones
d)
CDK's and cyclins
115.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
It divides the cell in half.
b)
It duplicates the DNA.
c)
It breaks down the nuclear membrane.
d)
It helps separate the chromosomes.
116.
Cells that are in a nondividing state are in which phase?
a)
G1
b)
G2
c)
S
d)
G0
117.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as testosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because __________.
a)
only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments
b)
most cells lack the Y chromosome required
c)
only target cells possess the cytosolic enzymes that transduce the testosterone
d)
only in target cells is testosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade leading to activated transcription factor
e)
intracellular receptors are present only in target cells
118.
The cellular response of a signal pathway that terminates at a transcription factor would be __________.
a)
the synthesis of mRNA
b)
the activation of an inactive enzyme
c)
alteration of the cytoskeleton
d)
a change in the chemical composition of the cytosolic environment
e)
the activation of a metabolic pathway
119.
The general name for an enzyme that transfers phosphate groups from ATP to a protein is __________.
a)
protein dehydrogenase
b)
protein kinase
c)
protein phosphatase
d)
peptidase
e)
protein cyclase
120.
Phosphorylation cascades involving a series of protein kinases are useful for cellular signal transduction because __________.
a)
they are species specific.
b)
the number of molecules used is small and fixed.
c)
they always lead to the same cellular response.
d)
they amplify the original signal manyfold.
e)
they counter the harmful effects of phosphatases.
121.
Receptors for signal molecules __________.
a)
all work via protein kinases
b)
are never found in the nucleus of a cell
c)
may be found embedded in the plasma membrane, or found within the cytoplasm or nucleus
d)
all work by opening ion channels
e)
are only found associated with the plasma membrane
122.
What is an organic compound that is made by glands in the body (pituitary, thyroid, etc) that is used in long distance communication between cells?
a)
Hormones
b)
Neurotransmitters
c)
Synapse
d)
Carbohydrates
123.
What type of transmembrane receptor is being shown?
a)
gated ion channel
b)
G-protein receptor
c)
tyrosine kinase receptor
100 %
