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SBI4U Exam Review

Total questions: 121

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Urine formation depends on the following functions.

a)

Filtration

b)

Reabsorbtion

c)

Secretion

d)

Excretion

e)

All of these are required

2.

T/F - The glomerulus can be considered a high-pressure filter.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Solutes and water move from the nephron back into the blood

a)

Filtration

b)

Reabsorbtion

c)

Secretion

d)

Excretion

4.

Reabsorbtion of water and solutes in the kidney is regulated by ___________________

a)

hormonal signals

b)

the nervous system

c)

urine feedback signals

5.

T/F - The rate of diffusion depends on the concentration difference, or concentration gradient, that exists between two areas or across a membrane. The larger the gradient,

the faster the rate of diffusion is.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

________________________________ means that some molecules can diffuse very rapidly across a membrane while other molecules are unable to transit the membrane without assistance.

a)

Selectively permeable

b)

Selectively permanent

c)

Selectively permethrin

d)

Selectively permeonable

7.

Two major factors, _________ and __________, determine the

ease with which a molecule or ion can move across a membrane.

a)

size and shape

b)

size and charge

c)

shape and charge

8.

Channel proteins form _______________________ pathways in the membrane through which water and certain ions can pass

a)

hydrophilic

b)

hydrophobic

9.

The property of a solution that has a lower solute concentration than another solution

a)

hypotonic

b)

hypertonic

c)

isotonic

10.

_______________ moves aggregate molecules into the cell.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

11.

A in the image

a)

simple diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion via channel protein

c)

facilitated diffusion via transport protein

d)

primary active transport

e)

secondary active transport

12.

B in the image

a)

simple diffusion

b)

facilitated diffusion via channel protein

c)

facilitated diffusion via transport protein

d)

primary active transport

e)

secondary active transport

13.
Which of the following is a lipid?
a)
cholesterol
b)
cellulose
c)
glucose
d)
protein
14.
Which of the following molecules make up the basic structure of a cell membrane?
a)
waxes
b)
steroids
c)
fatty acids
d)
phospholipids
15.
Saturated fats are __________ at room temperature.
a)
liquid
b)
gases
c)
plasma
d)
solid
16.
What creates a steroid?
a)
4-fused carbon rings
b)
3-fused hydrogen chains
c)
2-fused oxygen molecules
d)
1 carboxyl group
17.
A "kinky structure" due to the double bonds between carbon atoms creates a lipid known as what?
a)
saturated fat
b)
wax
c)
steroid
d)
unsaturated fat
18.
What is a monomer of a lipid?
a)
A glycerol head with two or three fatty acid tails.
b)
Two or three fatty acid tails.
c)
A five-sided carbon ring.
d)
A saturated or unsaturated tail.
19.

Fatty acids are long hydrocarbon chains containing a single __________________ at one end.

a)

carboxyl group

b)

hydroxyl

c)

carbonyl

d)

amino

20.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
21.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
22.
In the lac operon model the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
glucose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
23.
Most gene regulation happens at which step along the way?
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
signal transduction
d)
DNA replication
24.
What are the nucleotides made of?
a)
Sugar, Phosphate, nitrogen base
b)
Phosphate, Adenine, nitrogen base
c)
Thymine, Adenine, Cytomine
d)
Phosphate, Nitrogen, Adenine
25.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA? (This is the MONOMER of DNA.) 
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
26.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
27.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
28.
When DNA replication is complete, which is true about the products?
a)
Each one has two original strands
b)
Each one has two new strands
c)
Each one has one new strand and one original strand
d)
One has two new strands and the other with two original strands
29.
DNA makes a copy of itself in a process called ________________________________?
a)
translation
b)
replication
c)
translation
d)
division
30.
order of replication
a)
3, 2, 1, 4
b)
2, 1, 4, 3
c)
2, 3, 1, 4
d)
3, 4, 1, 2
31.

T/F - The genetic information in DNA codes specifically for the production of proteins and nothing else.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

T/F - For any given polypeptide chain it will always have an amino group at one end, called the amino terminus (A-terminus), and a carboxyl group at the other, called the carboxyl terminus (C-terminus).

a)

True

b)

False

33.

All copies of a particular polypeptide have the same sequence of amino acids, this sequence being coded for by a particular ______________.

a)

gene

b)

RNA

c)

amino sequence

d)

coding sequence

34.

describes the interactions that occur between polypeptide strands in proteins composed of two or more polypeptides

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

35.

describes the unique sequence of amino acids in

a polypeptide chain

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

36.

type of polypeptide secondary structure characterized

by a tight coil that is stabilized by hydrogen bonds

a)

alpha helix

b)

beta pleated sheet

c)

disulfide bridge

d)

hydrophobic and van der Waals interactions

e)

proline kink

37.

T/F - Chemical and physical environmental factors also help

to determine the final shape of the molecule.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

The entire polypeptide forms a three-dimensional structure

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

39.
What is the monomer of a protein?
a)
amino acid
b)
monosaccharide
c)
fatty acid
d)
nucleic acid
40.
Water-repelling
a)
hydrophobic
b)
myoglobin
c)
coagulation
d)
gluten
41.

The relationship between kidneys and blood pressure is

a)

an increase in fluid loss = a decrease in blood pressure

b)

an decrease in fluid loss = a decrease in blood pressure

c)

an increase in fluid loss = a increase in blood pressure

42.

Renin, a protein that is important in blood pressure regulation is released by the

a)

kidney

b)

heart

c)

liver

d)

bowl

43.
A mutation that does NOT alter the protein production is called a 
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
44.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)
deletion
b)
insertion
c)
silent
d)
transverse
45.
Would a mutation in the DNA of a skin cell be passed on to an organism's offspring?
a)
Yes, because any change to the DNA is passed on to the offspring
b)
Maybe. Sex cells only use half of the body's genetic code. It might get the copy of a gene that wasn't mutated.
c)
No. Only mutations that occur in the gametes (sex cells) are passed on to the offspring
d)
Without knowing the animal, it would be hard to tell whether or not the mutation would be passed on.
46.

Induced mutations are caused by

a)

chemical agents

b)

UV radiation

c)

X rays

d)

All of the other choices

47.

A _________________________ mutation that does not result in a change in the amino acid coded for and, therefore, does not cause any phenotypic change

a)

silent mutation

b)

missense mutation

c)

nonsense mutation

48.

A ________________ mutation arises when a change in the base

sequence of DNA alters a codon, leading to a different amino acid being placed in the protein sequence.

a)

nonsense

b)

missense

c)

silent

49.

One or two nucleotide insertions or deletions will results in a frameshift mutation however, a deletion or insertion of three nucleotides does not have this effect.

a)

True

b)

False

50.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
51.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
52.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
53.

The separation of the two single strands of DNA creates a ‘Y’ shape?

a)

enzyme

b)

unzip

c)

A replication fork

54.

A short piece of RNA ?

a)

unzip

b)

enzyme?

c)

a replication ‘fork’

d)

a primer

55.

1 on the diagram above

a)

single stranded binding proteins

b)

helicase

c)

primase

d)

ligase

e)

polymerase

56.

3 on the diagram above

a)

single stranded binding proteins

b)

helicase

c)

primase

d)

ligase

e)

polymerase

57.

5 on the diagram above

a)

polymerase

b)

helicase

c)

primase

d)

ligase

e)

gyrase

58.

7 on the diagram above

a)

okazaki fragment

b)

single stranded fragment

c)

primase

d)

ligase

e)

gyrase

59.

T/F - All homeostatic control systems have three functional components: a monitor, a coordinating centre, and a regulator.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

________________ feedback mechanisms trigger a response that reverses the changed condition.

a)

Negative

b)

Postive

c)

Neutral

d)

Analytical

61.

During lactation (milk production), the suckling by the baby stimulates the production of oxytocin, which in turn causes contraction of smooth muscle surrounding the milk duct, causing milk to flow. The flow of milk increases the suckling by the baby and more oxytocin is produced.

a)

This is an example of a negative feedback system

b)

This is an example of a postive feedback system

c)

This is an example of a neither a negative or a positive feedback system

62.
The term for maintaining internal temperature is: 
a)
Thermoregulation
b)
Thermometer
c)
Homeothermal
d)
Homeostasis
63.

Which of the following statements about "ectotherms" is INCORRECT.

a)

Include invertebrates, and most fish, amphibians, and reptiles.

b)

Depend on air temperature to regulate metabolic rates; therefore, activity is partially regulated by the environment.

c)

May have large fluctuations in body temp.

d)

Relative even temperature throughout the body.

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

64.

Which of the following are pros to being an ecotherm?

a)

increased habitat diversity

b)

less vulnerable to temp changes

c)

increased bacterial protection

d)

less food required

e)

can afford long period of time with out food

65.

The cortical regions at the back of the brain, housing the visual cortex

a)

Temporal Lobe

b)

Occipital Lobe

c)

Frontal Lobe

d)

Parietal Lobe

66.

How do the parts of the brain communicate?

a)

snapchat

b)

molecular transference

c)

cells

d)

neurons

67.

What makes up the central nervous system?

a)

brain and spinal chord

b)

lungs and heart

c)

arms and legs

d)

eyes and ears

68.

Lying towards the back and top of the brain; involved in touch sensation and in perceiving spatial relationships

a)

Parietal Lobe

b)

Frontal Lobe

c)

Occipital Lobe

d)

Temporal Lobe

69.

Front of the brain; especially involved in movement and thinking

a)

Occipital Lobe

b)

Frontal Lobe

c)

Parietal Lobe

d)

Temporal Lobe

70.

The brain stem structure that controls breathing and heart rate

a)

Amygdala

b)

Thalamus

c)

Pons

d)

Medulla

71.

If this is damaged one may experience memory, understanding and language problems

a)

Occipital Lobe

b)

Frontal Lobe

c)

Parietal Lobe

d)

Temporal Lobe

72.

The band of nerve cells that connects the two cerebral hemispheres

a)

motor cortex

b)

somatosensory cortex

c)

corpus collosum

d)

medulla

73.

The protective layer around the brain

a)

blood brain barrier

b)

meniges

c)

cerebral spinal fluid

d)

reticular formation

74.

Functions of the Cerebellum?

a)

posture, balance

b)

coordination, speech

c)

smooth and balanced muscular activity

d)

All of the above

75.
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Occipital Lobe
c)
Medulla
d)
Parietal Lobe
76.

This system control the voluntary movement of skeletal muscle, bones and skin.

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

c)

motor

d)

peripheral

77.

Sensory nerves are located in this subsystem of the PNS

a)

somatic

b)

autonomic

c)

motor

d)

cortical

78.

Controls involuntary actions under normal conditions.

a)

parasympathetic

b)

sympathetic

79.

Controls involuntary actions under stressed conditions.

a)

parasympathetic

b)

sympathetic

80.

The nerve cells in your body are called neurons. From the picture which part of the neuron is most likely responsible for carrying signals between the dendrite and axon terminal?

a)

soma

b)

axon

c)

Node of Ranvier

d)

Schwann cell

81.
This releases neurotransmitters which are sent into the synaptic cleft for receptors on the dendrite to taste
a)
axon
b)
axon terminal
c)
gene
d)
neuron
82.
This insulating material forms a layer, around the axon of a neuron.  It enables electrical signals to travel down the axon at higher speeds.
a)
neuron
b)
myelin sheath
c)
dendrite
d)
neurotransmitter
83.
What is structure labeled C in the picture?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Cell Body
d)
Axon Terminal
84.
What is structure labeled B in the picture?
a)
Dendrite
b)
Axon
c)
Cell Body
d)
Axon Terminal
85.

These neurons are considered to be efferent in location.

a)

motor

b)

sensory

c)

interneuron

86.

A type of Metabolism that builds up molecules into bigger things is

a)

catabolism

b)

macrolism

c)

biolism

d)

anabolism

87.

Anything added to a system that speeds up or starts a reaction

a)

chemical

b)

reactant

c)

option

d)

Catalyst

88.

In the body, catalysts are called

a)

reactants

b)

macronutrients

c)

enzymes

d)

ribosomes

89.

Glucose

a)

C6H12O6

b)

CHO

c)

C6H6O6

d)

C12H12O12

90.

The process by which glucose broken down to into smaller molecules

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

Metabolism

c)

Cellular Respiration

d)

Glycolisis

91.
What type of reaction is this?
a)
Endothermic
b)
Exothermic
92.
In an exothermic reaction the products have
a)
more energy than the reactants
b)
the same energy as the reactants
c)
less energy than the reactants
d)
no energy
93.

Which of the following is the correct structure of ATP?

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.
Which is not part of the net products of Glycolysis?
a)
2 ATP
b)
2 NADH
c)
2 Pyruvate
d)
2 CO2
95.
Enzymes are considered to be 
a)
Lipids
b)
Carbohydrate
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
96.
Where do substrates bind on an enzyme?
a)
voltage-gated channels
b)
surface receptor
c)
calcium channels
d)
active site
97.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
98.
The current model of enzyme action is referred to as the...
a)
Induced Fit Model
b)
Lock & Key Model
c)
Singer-Nicolson Model
d)
Davson-Danielli Model
99.
A molecule binds to an enzyme and decreases the ability of the active site to bind to the substrate. This is called:
a)
Allosteric Activation
b)
Allosteric Inhibition
c)
Competitive Activation
d)
Competitive Inhibition
100.
The "regenerator" of the Krebs Cycle is:
a)
Oxaloacetate
b)
Acetyl-CoA
c)
Citrate
d)
α-Ketoglutarate
101.
How many FADH2 molecules are produced by 1 turn of the Krebs Cycle?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
102.
The inner most interior of the mitochondrion is called the:
a)
Cristae
b)
Matrix
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Carbuncles
103.
How many H+ are pumped out of the matrix from 1 NADH?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
104.
H+ come back into the matrix because of:
a)
Magic
b)
Facilitated Diffusion
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
105.
The "Final Electron Acceptor" of the ETC is
a)
Oxygen
b)
Nitrogen
c)
CO2
d)
H2O
106.

A in the picture can be labelled as the

a)

presynaptic neuron

b)

post synaptic neuron

107.

This is full of acetycholine

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

108.

Number 8 on the diagram

a)

neurotransmitter uptake pump

b)

calcium channel uptake pump

c)

synaptic vesicle uptake pump

d)

autoreceptor

109.

The correct order for the synaptic transmission process

(NT = neurotransmitter)

A) ion channel opens

B) ion channel closes

C) NT binds to the receptor

D) action potential arrives

E) vesicle fuses with plasma membrane

F) NT is released into the synaptic cleft

a)

D,E,F,C,A,B

b)

A,D,E,B,C,F

c)

D,E,F,A,C,B

d)

A,D,E,B,F,C

e)

C,A,B,F,D,E

110.

The two types of nuerotransmitters are classified according to

a)

how they enter or leave the nerve cell

b)

how fast they are taken into the postsynapthic neuron

c)

how the change the electrical nature of the membrane

111.

These neurotransmitters make the membrane more permeable to K ions and make the membrane potential more negative.

a)

excitatory

b)

inhibitory

c)

excitonitory

d)

inhibovatory

112.

Which of the following statements about the "information displayed in this image" is INCORRECT

a)

A and B would be considered excitatory neurotransmitters.

b)

C would be considered an inhibitory neurotransmitters.

c)

The dashed line indicates the threshold of membrane potential that needs to be reached in order for the nerve impulse to propogate

d)

The yellow circle is showing that A and B sent their impulse at the same time meeting the threshold

e)

None of the other 4 statements are INCORRECT.

113.

The resting potential of a human neuron is usually

a)

+70 mV

b)

0 mV

c)

-70 mV

d)

-55 mV

114.

What is represented by E?

a)

Neurotransmitter

b)

Receptor

c)

Plasma membrane

d)

Vesicle

e)

Synapse

115.

This image is attempting to illustrate

a)

temporal summation

b)

spatial summation

c)

temperature summation

d)

sporadic summation

116.

Which ion is found in a higher concentration inside a neuron than outside?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

117.

Which ion is found in a higher concentration outside a neuron than inside?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

118.
During repolarization, which ion(s)moves outside of neuron?
a)
sodium
b)
potassium
c)
sodium and potassium
119.
What causes depolarization of the neuron?
a)
sodium going into neuron
b)
sodium going out of neuron
c)
potassium going into neuron
d)
potassium going out of neuron
120.
What number on the graph represents the Depolarization phase?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
121.
nerve impulse
a)
action potential
b)
resting potential
c)
membrane potential
d)
synapse