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WorksheetsAztec biology 1st sem review
Total questions: 81
Worksheet time: 3hrs 9mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
4B. Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?
a)
The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell
b)
The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink
c)
The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell
d)
The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment
2.
4B. Which group of organelles is directly responsible for the production of new molecules within a cell?
a)
Ribosomes, the endoplasmic reticulum, and Golgi apparatuses
b)
Golgi apparatuses, lysosomes, and the plasma membrane
c)
The endoplasmic reticulum,plastids, and vacuoles
d)
The nucleolus, vacuoles, and ribosomes
3.
4B. The cellular process known as the sodium-potassium pump was discovered in the 1950s by Jens Christian Skou, a Danish scientist. This process is a form of active transport that moves three sodium ions to the outside of a cell for every two potassium ions that it moves into the cell. Which of these best explains why energy is needed for active transport?
a)
Ions are negatively charged.
b)
Ions are attached to large proteins.
c)
Ions are trapped inside the plasma membrane.
d)
Ions are moved against the concentration gradient.
4.
4B. Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place in the mitochondria?
a)
Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules.
b)
Water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place.
c)
Oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions.
d)
The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP.
5.
4B. Which cellular process takes place in the ribosomes that are bound to the endoplasmic reticulum?
a)
The breakdown of waste material
b)
The conversion of radiant energy to glucose
c)
The synthesis of new proteins
d)
The replication of nucleic acids
6.
4B. In the early 1900s a scientist hypothesized a link between DNA and the production of proteins in the cytoplasm. However, the fact that DNA could not be found outside the nucleus led scientists to believe that another substance was also involved in the synthesis of protein in the cytoplasm. In the 1940s scientists performed an experiment that ultimately identified the site of protein synthesis. They also identified the molecule responsible for transporting information from the nucleus to the site of protein synthesis. What was this newly identified molecule?
a)
A gene
b)
mRNA
c)
ATP
d)
Thymine
7.
9A. Carbohydrates are more easily metabolized than lipids. However, on a gram-for-gram basis lipids provide cells with more --
a)
nitrogen
b)
proteins
c)
structure
d)
energy
8.
9A. Which of the following biomolecules typically contain both nitrogen and phosphate?
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
pro
pro
c)
Nucleic acid
d)
Carbohydrate
9.
9A. Proteins and polysaccharides are polymers. These polymers are formed by dehydration synthesis. Which statement correctly identifies a difference in the structure of proteins and polysaccharides?
a)
Only polysaccharides are comprised of repeating units of cytosine, adenine, guanine and thymine.
b)
Only proteins are formed from amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
c)
Only polyssacharides can be folded and twisted to very specific shapes.
d)
Only proteins can be large molecules with thousands of subunits.
10.
9A. The complex carbohydrates pictured below are made by linking molecules of glucose.
In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely-
In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely-
a)
contain different chemical elements
b)
form different proteins
c)
carry different nucleotides
d)
perform different functions
11.
9A. Four different nucleotides are used as building blocks of DNA. Which of the following can be used to distinguish one nucleotide from another?
a)
The nitrogenous base
b)
The shape of the deoxyribose sugar
c)
The length of the phosphate group
d)
The type of fatty acid
12.
6A. A segment of DNA is represented in the illustration. How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?
a)
As a sequence of nucleotides
b)
In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome
c)
In the ratio of adenines to thymines
d)
As a pattern of phosphates and sugars
13.
6A. A student builds a model of a DNA strand. Which of the models of a DNA strand shows bases that are complementary to the ones on the student's DNA model?
a)
CTACCGAC
b)
GUCGGUAG
c)
GTCGGAAG
d)
GTCGGTAG
14.
6B. Organisms can be classified based on homology, which is shared characteristics inherited from a common ancestor. In the past, homologies were based on studies of anatomical structures and patterns of embryonic development. In more recent years, the use of molecular biology techniques has allowed homologies to be compared at the level of nucleotide sequences. Nucleotide sequence comparisons are possible because all organisms share which of the following?
a)
DNA bases
b)
Cellular organelles
c)
Division of the nuclear chromosomes
d)
Types of proteins needed for cellular functions
15.
6B. In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormone. Which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?
a)
Human cells are eukaryotic and E. coli cells are prokaryotic
b)
All living organisms share the same genome
c)
The genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks
d)
The human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. coli
16.
6A. Each strand of a DNA molecule contains nitrogenous bases that pair with other nitrogenous bases in very specific ways. A diagram of a section of DNA is shown.
Which DNA strand is complementary to the one shown above?
Which DNA strand is complementary to the one shown above?
a)
5' A G U G C U G C G C G U A 3'
b)
5' T G T A G C T G C G C G T 3'
c)
5' A C A T C G A C G C G C A 3'
d)
5' T C G C G C A G C T A C A 3'
17.
6A. Nitrogenous bases are located on both strands of the DNA double helix. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?
a)
The number of adenines and cytosines determines the type of RNA that will be produced.
b)
The order of nitrogenous bases determines the order of amino acids in the proteins synthesized.
c)
The amount of thymine and guanine in the DNA molecules determines the length of the genes.
d)
The type of hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases determines which amino acid will be added to the peptide chain.
18.
6B. The fact that a strain of yeast with a certain defective gene can use the human version of the gene to repair itself is evidence that yeast and humans-
a)
depend on the same food supply
b)
share a genetic code
c)
both have eukaryotic cells
d)
have identical genomes
19.
6A. How does DNA in cells determine an organism's complex traits?
a)
DNA contains codes for proteins, which are necessary for the growth and functioning of an organism.
b)
DNA separates into long single strands that make up each part of an organism.
c)
DNA produces the energy an organism needs in order to grow.
d)
DNA folds into the nucleus of each of the cells of an organism.
20.
6A. Characteristics such as a widow's peak or attached earlobes are determined by the genetic code. Which components of DNA are referred to as the genetic code?
a)
phosphate groups
b)
nitrogenous bases
c)
deoxyribose sugars
d)
hydrogen bonds
21.
6A. The sequence of nitrogenous bases in DNA varies widely. The sequence of the bases in DNA is most important for which of the following?
a)
Providing the instructions for the traits of an organism
b)
Preventing mutations from ccuring during DNA replication
c)
Allowing the DNA to have the shape necessary for replication
d)
Helping form the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA molecules
22.
6A. In 1952 Rosalind Franklin took the x-ray photograph shown below, which gave the world its first look at DNA. By studying this photograph, scientists gained knowledge about the --
a)
role of DNA in protein synthesis
b)
mutation of nucleotide sequences in DNA
c)
sequence of DNA that makes up the human genome
d)
double-helix structure of DNA
23.
6B. Four different types of cell are shown below. Which characteristic is shared by all four cells?
a)
A mechanism for transforming sunlight into energy
b)
Self-locomotion
c)
Membrane-bound organelles that transport substances
d)
Genetic material composed of DNA
24.
9A. The differences between two molecules include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identity of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These two molecules are -
a)
proteins
b)
lipids
c)
nucleic acids
d)
complex carbohydrates
25.
9A. Four different nucleotides are used as building blocks of DNA. Which of the following can be used to distinguish one nucleotide from another?
a)
The nitrogenous base
b)
The shape of the deoxyribose sugar
c)
The length of the phosphate group
d)
The type of fatty acid
26.
9A. Carbohydrates are more easily metabolized than lipids. However, on a gram-for-gram basis lipids provide cells with more --
a)
nitrogen
b)
proteins
c)
structure
d)
energy
27.
9A. Which of the following biomolecules typically contain both nitrogen and phosphate?
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
pro
pro
c)
Nucleic acid
d)
Carbohydrate
28.
9A. Proteins and polysaccharides are polymers. These polymers are formed by dehydration synthesis. Which statement correctly identifies a difference in the structure of proteins and polysaccharides?
a)
Only polysaccharides are comprised of repeating units of cytosine, adenine, guanine and thymine.
b)
Only proteins are formed from amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
c)
Only polyssacharides can be folded and twisted to very specific shapes.
d)
Only proteins can be large molecules with thousands of subunits.
29.
6A. A segment of DNA is represented in the illustration. How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?
a)
As a sequence of nucleotides
b)
In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome
c)
In the ratio of adenines to thymines
d)
As a pattern of phosphates and sugars
30.
6A. A student builds a model of a DNA strand. Which of the models of a DNA strand shows bases that are complementary to the ones on the student's DNA model?
a)
CTACCGAC
b)
GUCGGUAG
c)
GTCGGAAG
d)
GTCGGTAG
31.
6E. A segment of DNA produces methionine, histidine, apartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the synthesis of the segment as shown.
New DNA strand: 3'-TACAGGGTGCTACCCACT-5'
Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?
New DNA strand: 3'-TACAGGGTGCTACCCACT-5'
Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?
a)
Methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
b)
Methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
c)
Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine
d)
Methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine
32.
6E. In the 1960s the molecular biologist George Streisinger developed the strand-slippage hypothesis. Streisinger noticed that mutations occurred in areas of DNA that contained many repeated sequences. When a strand-slippage error occurs, an insertion mutation can result. How does the insertion mutation affect the DNA?
a)
Nitrogenous bases are added.
b)
Nitrogenous bases are exchanged.
c)
Nitrogenous bases are damaged.
d)
Nitrogenous bases are deleted.
33.
6E. The table shows a DNA sequence and three types of mutations that can change the DNA sequence.
Which mutation will cause translation to stop?
Which mutation will cause translation to stop?
a)
Mutations 1 and 3 only
b)
Mutation 1 only
c)
Mutation 2 only
d)
Mutations 1, 2, and 3
34.
6E. The survival of a species depends on its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. A species must be capable of surviving and reproducing despite changes to food sources, climate, or threats from predators. Which statement correctly describes a way that mutations increase the likelihood that a species will survive in a changing environment?
a)
Mutations are a source of variation in the species.
b)
Mutations are the cause of disease in the species.
c)
Mutations are not harmful when they occur in somatic cells of the species.
d)
Mutations are always passed on to subsequent generations of the species.
35.
6A. Each strand of a DNA molecule contains nitrogenous bases that pair with other nitrogenous bases in very specific ways. A diagram of a section of DNA is shown.
Which DNA strand is complementary to the one shown above?
Which DNA strand is complementary to the one shown above?
a)
5' A G U G C U G C G C G U A 3'
b)
5' T G T A G C T G C G C G T 3'
c)
5' A C A T C G A C G C G C A 3'
d)
5' T C G C G C A G C T A C A 3'
36.
6A. A model of a DNA molecule is shown in the picture. The arrow indicates-
a)
the bond between adjacent phosphate and deoxyribose molecules
b)
the junction of introns and exons in the sense strand of DNA
c)
the hydrogen bond between complementary nucleotides
d)
the junction of a codon and a DNA triplet
37.
6E. A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to which of the following?
a)
The siblings of the organism
b)
The offspring of the organism
c)
The other organissm living nearby
d)
The mating partner of the organism
38.
6E. Sickle-shaped red blood cells result from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. This mutation results in sickle-cell anemia. A partial sequence of bases from a normal hemoglobin gene and a sequence that results in sickle-cell anemia are shown below. What type of mutation is depicted in this sequence?
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Deletion
d)
Frameshift
39.
6C. Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled below. What is the purpose of this cellular process?
a)
Preserving genetic information for future generations
b)
Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template
c)
Transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell
d)
Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence
40.
6D. At birth Himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. But when parts of their bodies reach temperatures below 35⁰C, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?
a)
Poor blood circulation
b)
Infection caused by cold temperatures
c)
Gene expression that is regulated by temperature
d)
A trait that is both sex-linked and hormone-dependent
41.
6C. The initial steps in gene expression are modeled below. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands.
Which process and product are represented in Diagram 2?
Which process and product are represented in Diagram 2?
a)
Process: transcription; product: mRNA
b)
Process: translation; product: protein
c)
Process: replication; product: tRNA
d)
Process: recombination; product: polymerase
42.
6D. Human bone, muscle, and nerve cells contain the same number of chromosomes with the same complement of genes. What enables these cells to perform specialized activities?
a)
The ability of some cells to remove unnecessary DNA sequences
b)
The regulation of gene expression within each cell type
c)
The mutation of genes within each cell type
d)
The use of different methods of cell division
43.
6C. Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequence 5'AUGGUUAAACGACAAUCC3'?
a)
Val, Lys, Phe, Gly, Ser
b)
Met, Asp, Phe, Ala, Arg
c)
Met, Val, Lys, Arg, Gln, Ser
d)
Ile, Gln Lys, Asp, Gly, Leu, Ser
44.
6D. In 1917 the biologist Thomas Hunt Morgan conducted studies in which he kept some caterpillars in the dark and placed some others under red, green, or blue lights. Exposure to red light produced butterflies with brightly colored wings. Exposure to green light resulted in dark-colored wings. Exposure to blue light or no light in pale-colored wings. What was the most likely conclusion of Morgan's research?
a)
The pigment in butterfly wings absorbs light from the environment.
b)
The phenotypic expression of wing shape depends on color pigmentation in butterflies.
c)
The genes regulating wing color in butterflies are influenced by environmental factors.
d)
Caterpillars exposed to red and green light are healthier than caterpillars exposed to no light or blue light.
45.
6B. The fact that a strain of yeast with a certain defective gene can use the human version of the gene to repair itself is evidence that yeast and humans-
a)
depend on the same food supply
b)
share a genetic code
c)
both have eukaryotic cells
d)
have identical genomes
46.
6C. A section of a nucleic acid is shown in the diagram. The process represented in the diagram produces a molecule that is complementary to the template strand of DNA. What types of molecule is produced?
a)
New DNA
b)
Polypeptide
c)
Messenger RNA
d)
Carbohydrate
47.
5C. As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they-
a)
contain a lipid bilayer
b)
can clump together
c)
metabolize sugars rapidly
d)
have specific genes activated
48.
5C. Cell differentiation is critical during embryonic development. The process of cell differentiation results in the production of many types of cells, including germ, somatic, and stem cells. Cell differentiation is most directly regulated by-
a)
ATP
b)
DNA
c)
lipids
d)
sugars
49.
6E. A codon chart is shown below. Which of these changes to the DNA triplet 3' GCT 5' will affect the protein produced?
a)
GTT
b)
TCT
c)
TCC
d)
GCA
50.
6E. A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to which of the following?
a)
The siblings of the organism
b)
The offspring of the organism
c)
The other organissm living nearby
d)
The mating partner of the organism
51.
5C. Researchers Robert Briggs and Thomas King used ultraviolet radiation to destroy the nuclear DNA of frog eggs. Nuclei from adult skin cells and from tadpole-gut epithelial cells were cultured and then injected into eggs that had their nuclei destroyed. The results were tadpoles. Which conclusion is supported by the data from this investigation?
a)
The DNA information for development was silenced in differentiated cells.
b)
The transplanted DNA functioned as the original nuclear DNA of the egg cell would have.
c)
The DNA from the skin cells and epithelial cell was not transcribed.
d)
The transplanted DNA mutated during culturing.
52.
6E. Early-onset Alzheimer's disease affects people under the age of 65. Less than five percent of people who are diagnosed with Alzheimers's disease have this type. Many cases of early-onset Alzheimer's disease are inherited, a type known as familial Alzheimer's disease (FAD). Which statement is best supported by this information?
a)
FAD is the result of a genetic change in one or more chromosomes.
b)
Natural selection will continue to reduce the incidence of FAD.
c)
FAD affects only the genes of middle-aged people.
d)
Deletion of one amino acid causes FAD.
53.
5A. The model represents the change in the DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle. Which part of the model represents the S phase?
a)
I
b)
II
c)
III
d)
IV
54.
5A. Scientists can bioengineer skin in a laboratory to treat severe burns and other types of skin injuries. This bioengineered tissue is grown from living cells. The cellular process that enables the cells to grow and develop into tissue is-
a)
conjugation
b)
meiosis
c)
budding
d)
mitosis
55.
5D. Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of-
a)
tumors
b)
allergies
c)
hemophilia
d)
cardiovascular disease
56.
5D. Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?
a)
ATP production is inhibited
b)
Cell division is unregulated
c)
Somatic cell growth is inhibited
d)
Antibody activity is unregulated
57.
5A. Cells pass through a G2 checkpoint before entering mitosis. Ideally, if DNA damage is detected, the cells do not enter mitosis until the damage is repaired. Why is DNA damage repaired before cells enter mitosis?
a)
So that another round of DNA synthesis does not have to take place
b)
So that the chromosomes can align at the metaphase plate during mitosis
c)
So that the cytoplasm can be divided equally between the two daughter cells
d)
So that healthy daughter cells are produced, allowing the organism to continue growing
58.
5A. The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome.
Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?
Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?
a)
Cell 1
b)
Cell 2
c)
Cell 3
d)
Cell 4
59.
5D. The diagram below represents the cell cycle. When cells leave the cell cycle, they exit during G1 phase and then enter G0 phase, a resting period. Most normal cells can leave G0 phase and reenter the cell cycle at G1 phase before entering S phase. Cancer cells are different because they cannot enter G0 phase and are likely to do which of the following?
a)
Fail to complete S phase
b)
Mutate during G1 phase
c)
Repeat the cell cycle continuously
d)
Die after completing mitosis
60.
5A. Which of these must occur during S phase of the cell cycle so that two daughter cells can be produced during M phase?
a)
The DNA must be replicated.
b)
The chromosomes must be joined.
c)
The cytoplasm must be separated.
d)
The cell membrane must be expanded.
61.
5A. Checkpoints occur between the stages of the cell cycle. If a cell does not meet certain criteria at the end of a stage, it will not move to the next stage. Which of these occurs just before the cell enters the G2 stage of the cell cycle?
a)
The nuclear membrane disintegrates.
b)
DNA replicates.
c)
Centrioles form.
d)
The nucleolus divides.
62.
5A. Telophase is a stage of a cellular process that begins after the chromosome have moved to opposite poles of the cell. During which cellular process does telophase occur?
a)
Translation
b)
Interphase
c)
Transcription
d)
Mitosis
63.
5D. Atherosclerosis is a disease that obstructs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen supply to target organs. A major component of atherosclerosis is the excessive reproduction of smooth muscle cells of the blood vessels. Certain drugs may have the potential to reverse or prevent the unregulated reproduction of the diseased blood-vessel cells. Which of these processes is the most likely target of these drugs?
a)
Cell division
b)
Erythroblast differentiation
c)
DNA transcription
d)
Cellular respiration
64.
10B. Structures represented in the illustration below are found in the lower epidermis of a plant leaf. The illustration at right shows the response to a certain environmental condition. The response represented in the illustration would most likely be caused by-
a)
a reduced supply of oxygen
b)
long periods of rainfall
c)
high concentrations of glucose
d)
little available water
65.
10B. The internal transport of water and minerals in plants requires that two systems work together. Which diagram correctly describes how the two systems accomplish this?
a)
F
b)
G
c)
H
d)
J
66.
10B. the diagram shows the reproductive system of a plant. Which of the following best describes the interaction that occurs between a plant's reproductive part during self-fertilization?
a)
Pollen is released from anther and is transferred to the stigma. A pollen tube forms and grows through the style. The pollen tube reached the filament, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
b)
Pollen moves from the ovule up through the style and is released from the stigma. The pollen is transferred to the anther, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
c)
Pollen is released from the anther and is transferred to the stigma. A pollen tube forms and grws through the style. The pollen tube reaches an ovule within the ovary, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
d)
Pollen is released from the stigma and is transferred to the anther. A pollen tube grows down from the anther through the filament and fuses with the ovule, where the sperm fertilizes the egg.
67.
5B. Most plants have hair-like cells called trichomes that project from the surface and help the plants in many ways. In some plants trichomes secrete toxic substances that most likely perform which function?
a)
Absorb carbon dioxide
b)
Protect against herbivorous insects
c)
Reflect light off leaves
d)
Reduce water loss from evaporation
68.
10B. Some students are instructed to put a celery stalk in a red dye solution for a lab activity. First the students carefully cut the bottom of the stalk with a scalpel. Then they put the stalk in the beaker with the solution and place the beaker on a shelf in the lab room. The next day they check the stalk and make observations. The students cut across the celery stalk and use a hand lens to see that the small tube openings along the edge of the celery stalk are also red. The cross section is shown below. How do the plant systems work together to make this movement of liquid possible?
a)
The roots absorb water and minerals and move them up to the stem, while the stem moves food produced in the leaves down to the roots in tiny tubes.
b)
The roots anchor the plant in the soil, and the stem holds the leaves up.
c)
The roots absorb their own water and minerals, while the stem absorbs its water and minerals through the leaves.
d)
The roots lose water vapor to the soil, and the stem loses water vapor through the leaves.
69.
10B. The outermost layer of plant stems in dictoyledons consists of epidermal cells and guard cells that surround openings called stomata. The epidermal cells are usually covered with a waterproof layer that provides protection from injury and water loss. The stomata allow gas exchange. The epidermal cells and stomata have functions similar to those of which two human body systems?
a)
Skeletal and respiratory
b)
Cardiovascualar and skeletal
c)
Integumentary and respiratory
d)
Cardiovasular and integumentary
70.
10B. An animal can wound a tree by scratching away the bark. The tree can respond to the wound in many ways. Usually sap quickly covers the wound, and then the tree covers the wound with new growth. The diagram shows a cross section of a tree with a healed wound.
a)
Cellular reproduction
b)
Photosynthesis
c)
Water intake
d)
Carbohydrate storage
71.
10B. Leaves are part of a plant's shoot system. The xylem tissue in leaves transports-
a)
the bacteria needed for nitrogen fixation in root nodules
b)
the wax required to coat the surface of actively growing tissue
c)
the water and minerals that are absorbed by the roots
d)
the oxygen that regulates the rate of carbohydrate production
72.
10B. Plant hormones serve as chemical messengers between cells and tissues. Auxin is a plant hormone that causes the cells on the shady side of a plant shoot to elongate. The response enabled by auxin is known as -
a)
geotropism
b)
transpiration
c)
phototropism
d)
photosynthesis
73.
10B. Copper is a micronutrient that can be found in soil. Copper is important for reproductive growth in plants and plays an indirect role in chlorophyll production. Which statement correctly describes the interaction that occurs between the root and the shoot systems of plants to allow reproduction to occur?
a)
Copper is produced in the roots when copper-containing compounds are hydrolyzed.
b)
Copper that is absorbed by the roots is transported to reproductive tissues by the shoot system.
c)
The shoot system stores copper for later use by the roots and the reproductive structures.
d)
The shoot system transports copper to the roots after it is taken in through stomata in the leaves.
74.
10B. Cytokinins are a class of plant hormones that help regulate growth by promoting cell division. Cytokinins are produced mainly in meristematic tissue, where most plant growth occurs. Which system carries cytokinins produced in the roots to the rest of the plant?
a)
Vascular system
b)
Dermal system
c)
Reproductive system
d)
None of these
75.
10B. Several structures work together to allow flowering plants to reproduce. The diagram shows a typical flower.
Which of the following correctly identifies the function of each structure or group of structures in the reproduction of the plant?
Which of the following correctly identifies the function of each structure or group of structures in the reproduction of the plant?
a)
X-pollen production
Y-pollen transfer
Z-production of eggs
Y-pollen transfer
Z-production of eggs
b)
X-attraction of pollinators
Y-production of male sex cells
Z-egg production and embryo development
Y-production of male sex cells
Z-egg production and embryo development
c)
X-protection for embryo
Y-supply nourishment to embryo
Z-place of embryonic development
Y-supply nourishment to embryo
Z-place of embryonic development
d)
X-photosynthesis
Y-production of cells that protect internal organs
Z-production of egg and sperm
Y-production of cells that protect internal organs
Z-production of egg and sperm
76.
10B. Plants called sundews have rounded green leaves with many hair-like structures. The ends of these structures contain enzymes in a sticky liquid that looks like nectar or moisture, as shown in the picture. The hairs do not react to dust or nonliving material but will bend inward when insects get caught in the sticky liquid. Sundews digest trapped insects over a period of a few days.
Based on this information, what functions do the specialized leaves of sundews perform?
Based on this information, what functions do the specialized leaves of sundews perform?
a)
Provide water to the plant and perform photosynthesis
b)
Respond to stimuli and anchor the plant
c)
Provide nutrients to the plant and respond to stimuli
d)
Release pollen to insects and perform photosynthesis
77.
9B. Diatoms are one of the most common types of phytoplankton in marine habitats. Like plants, diatoms contain chlorophyll and produce glucose from which of the following?
a)
O2 and ATP
b)
CO2 and O2
c)
ATP and H2O
d)
CO2 and H2O
78.
9B. Most plants take in more carbon dioxide as light increases. They give off carbon dioxide if light intensity is too low. The graph shows a plant's carbon dioxide levels at different light intensities. At point X, the rate of which process is equal to the rate of photosynthesis?
a)
Cellular respiration
b)
Transpiration
c)
Growth
d)
Reproduction
79.
4B. Which of these statements best explains the process of energy conversion that takes place in the mitochondria?
a)
Energy is required for carbon dioxide molecules to form six-carbon sugar molecules.
b)
Water molecules and radiant energy are necessary for anaerobic respiration to take place.
c)
Oxygen molecules release energy in the form of heat during combustion reactions.
d)
The energy in the bonds of glucose molecules is transferred to the phosphate bonds in ATP.
80.
9B. Which of the following correctly describes how a diagram of cellular respiration would differ from a diagram of photosynthesis?
a)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show electromagnetic waves as the final product.
b)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show glucose as the main source of energy.
c)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show energy stored in large protein molecules.
d)
The cellular-respiration diagram would show water as the main source of chemical energy.
81.
9B. Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?
a)
The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.
b)
The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.
c)
The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.
d)
The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.
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