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Worksheets

A&P 1st Semester Final Exam Review

Total questions: 167

Worksheet time: 1hrs 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

T/F: In anatomical position, the person is standing erect with arms at the sides and palms dorsal.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

T/F: The ventral cavity consists of the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities

a)

False

b)

True

3.

T/F: The bone of the upper arm is deep to the muscles that surrounded and cover it

a)

True

b)

False

4.

T/F: The diaphragm divides the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

T/F: Proximal and distal are opposite directional terms in humans

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Which of the following describes anatomy?

a)

investigating human structure via dissections and other methods

b)

examining the physiology of life

c)

using devices to investigate parameters such as heart rate and blood pressure

d)

studying the usual manner in which an organism responds to painful stimuli

7.

The lungs are located in the:

a)

thoracic cavity

b)

mediastinum

c)

cranial cavity

d)

abdominal cavity

8.

The stomach lies in the:

a)

dorsal cavity

b)

pelvic cavity

c)

abdominal cavity

d)

mediastinum

9.

A plane through the body that divides the body into right and left sides is called:

a)

Transverse

b)

Sagittal

c)

Frontal

d)

Coronal

10.

The dorsal cavity contains all of the following except the:

a)

spinal column

b)

thyroid gland

c)

spinalcord

d)

brain

11.

A plane through the body that divides the body into anterior and posterior portions is:

a)

Transverse

b)

Coronal

c)

Median

d)

Sagittal

12.

The plane that divides the individual into upper and lower parts is the:

a)

frontal plane

b)

saggital plane

c)

transverse plane

d)

superficial plane

13.

Negative feedback control systems:

a)

Oppose a change.

b)

Have no effect on the deviation set point.

c)

Accelerate a change.

14.

Positive feedback control systems:

a)

accelerate a change

b)

oppose a change

c)

have no effect on the deviation from set point.

15.

Shivering to raise your body temperature back to normal would be an example of:

a)

The body trying to maintain homeostasis

b)

A positive and negative feedback mechanism

c)

None of the above

d)

All of the above

16.

Popliteal refers to the:

a)

calf

b)

cheek

c)

area behind the knees

d)

ankle

17.

The ventral body cavity contains the:

a)

brain and spinal cord

b)

thoracic and abdominalpelvis cavity

c)

heart and lungs

d)

digestive and reproductive organs

18.

Axilla is a term referring to which body region?

a)

Anterior elbow

b)

Groin

c)

Armpit

d)

posterior knee

19.

Matching: The great toe is _____ to the little toe.

a)

posterior

b)

medial

c)

lateral

d)

proximal

e)

distal

20.

Matching: The skin is _____ to the muscles beneath it.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

e)

superficial

21.

Matching: The vertebrae are located on the _____ aspect of the body.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

e)

medial

22.

Matching: The hand is _____ to the shoulder.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

e)

superficial

23.

Matching: The abdomen is _____ to the head.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

e)

medial

24.

Matching: The lungs are _____ to the intestines.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

c)

anterior

d)

posterior

e)

medial

25.

Matching: The nose is located on the _____ surface of the head.

a)

anterior

b)

posterior

c)

medial

d)

lateral

e)

proximal

26.

Matching: The knee is _____ to the ankle.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

e)

superficial

27.

Matching: The ear is on the _____ aspect of the head.

a)

medial

b)

lateral

c)

proximal

d)

distal

e)

superficial

28.

Matching: thigh

a)

coxal

b)

cutaneous

c)

digital

d)

femoral

e)

lumbar

29.

Matching: arm

a)

abdominal

b)

brachial

c)

cervical

d)

coxal

e)

cutaneous

30.

Matching: anterior torso

a)

abdominal

b)

brachial

c)

cervical

d)

coxal

e)

cutaneous

31.

Matching: lower back between ribs and pelvis

a)

coxal

b)

cutaneous

c)

digital

d)

femoral

e)

lumbar

32.

Matching: fingers and toes

a)

coxal

b)

cutaneous

c)

digital

d)

femoral

e)

lumbar

33.

Matching: hip

a)

abdominal

b)

brachial

c)

cervical

d)

coxal

e)

cutaneous

34.

Matching: skin

a)

abdominal

b)

brachial

c)

cervical

d)

coxal

e)

cutaneous

35.

Matching: neck

a)

abdominal

b)

brachial

c)

cervical

d)

coxal

e)

cutaneous

36.

The study of tissues is called:

a)

anatomy

b)

cytology

c)

physiology

d)

histology

37.

Blood is a member of which basic tissue type?

a)

muscle

b)

epithelial

c)

nervous

d)

connective

38.

Which tissue lines body cavities and protects body surfaces?

a)

connective

b)

muscle

c)

epithelial

d)

nervous

39.

One of the characteristics of which type of epithelial tissue is that of being able to readily diffuse material through it, such as occurs in blood vessels?

a)

stratified squamous

b)

simple squamous

c)

simple columnar

d)

stratified columnar

40.

Goblet cells, cilia, and microvilli are modifications of which type of epithelial tissue?

a)

squamous

b)

cuboidal

c)

columnar

d)

transitional

41.

How many layers make up pseudostratified epithelium?

a)

only two

b)

more than one

c)

only one

d)

only three

42.

The type of tissue referred to as loose connective tissue is

a)

cartilage

b)

reticular

c)

adipose

d)

areolar

43.

Cartilage is a form of

a)

connective tissue

b)

muscle tissue

c)

osseous tissue

d)

epithelial tissue

44.

The most prevalent type of cartilage is

a)

hyaline cartilage

b)

elastic cartilage

c)

fibrous cartilage

d)

your mom

45.

Cilia are found on which types of cells lining the trachea?

a)

simple columnar epithelium

b)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

c)

simple cuboidal epithelium

d)

stratified cuboidal epithelium

46.

Microvilli assists epithelial tissue in

a)

absorbing nutrients

b)

protecting the underlying tissue

c)

releasing substances from glands

d)

all of the above functions are assisted by microvilli

47.

Which of the following would be found as skin covering?

a)

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

b)

stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

c)

stratified squamous (keratinized) epithelium

d)

pseudostratified squamous (keratinized) epithelium

48.

The pericardium is an example of a:

a)

cutaneous membrane.

b)

serous membrane.

c)

mucous membrane.

d)

cuboidal membrane.

49.

Microvilli are found on which types of cells in the lining of the intestine?

a)

Pseudostratified epithelium

b)

Simple columnar epithelium

c)

Stratified cuboidal epithelium

d)

Simple cuboidal epithelium

50.

Which type of cartilage covers the ends of bones?

a)

fibrocartilage

b)

hyaline cartilage

c)

reticular cartilage

d)

elastic cartilage

51.

Which type of epithelial tissue lines the tubules in the kidneys?

a)

transitional

b)

squamous

c)

columnar

d)

cuboidal

52.

Which type of tissue is used for support and protection of the body?

a)

elastic cartilage

b)

blood

c)

bone

d)

areolar

53.

The term used to describe the skin and its appendages is the:

a)

Integument

b)

Integumentary System

c)

Dermis

d)

Epidermis

54.

The superficial outer layer of the epidermis the the stratum:

a)

Spinosum

b)

Basale

c)

Corneum

d)

Granulosum

55.

The subcutaneous layer:

a)

is the layer of skin where the nails are produced

b)

is the layer of skin where hair is produced

c)

connects the dermis and the epidermis

d)

connects the dermis to underlying tissues

56.

Smooth muscles that produce goose pimples when they contract are the:

a)

medullary muscles

b)

cuticle muscles

c)

papillary muscles

d)

arrector pili muscles

57.

Prolonged exposure to the sun causes melanocytes to:

a)

decrease melanin production

b)

rupture and release their contents

c)

increase in number

d)

increase melanin production

58.

The hair follicle is found in the:

a)

subcutaneous layer

b)

epidermis

c)

hypodermis

d)

dermis

59.

The type of gland associated with blackheads is:

a)

apocrine

b)

eccrine

c)

ceruminous

d)

sebaceous

60.

The most numerous, important, and widespread sweat glands in the body are:

a)

sebaceous

b)

eccrine

c)

apocrine

d)

ceruminous

61.

Sebum:

a)

consists of dead cells from hair follicles

b)

lubricates hair and skin

c)

is produced by sweat glands

d)

is responsible for body odors

62.

The type of gland that produces the waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:

a)

eccrine

b)

sebaceous

c)

apocrine

d)

ceruminous

63.

The conversion of water from a liquid state into a gaseous state happens with which form of body heat loss?

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Evaporation

d)

Radiation

64.

The body compensates for the increase in the core body temperature caused by exercise by:

a)

decreasing the blood flow to the skin

b)

increasing the blood flow to the core

c)

vasoconstriction of the blood vessels in the skin

d)

increasing the blood flow to the skin

65.

In the skin, the dermis:

a)

in connective tissue and the epidermis is epithelial tissue

b)

is epithelial tissue and the epidermis is connective tissue

c)

and epidermis are both epithelial tissue

d)

and epidermis are both connective tissue

66.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skin?

a)

regulation of body temperature

b)

synthesis of Vitamin E

c)

sensations such as touch, pressure, vibration, tickle, heat, cold, and pain

d)

protection from physical, chemical, and biological harm

67.

Which of the following is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

a)

Epidermis

b)

Dermis

c)

Hair

d)

Nails

68.

Which of the following epidermal layers covers the surface of the body and is composed of layers of dead stratified squamous cells filled with keratin?

a)

Statum Corneum

b)

Stratum Spinosum

c)

Stratum Basale

d)

Stratum Granulosum

69.

Which of the following epidermal layers supplies cells for the upper layers of the skin?

a)

stratum basale

b)

stratum corneum

c)

stratum spinosum

d)

stratum granulosum

70.

Melanocytes

a)

produce melanin, a brown/black pigment that absorbes UV-light

b)

produce pheromones for chemical communication

c)

lubricate the epidermis and ahir

d)

provide protection and a waterproofing sealant

71.

Which of the following skin glands accounts for why boys tend to stink more after they go through puberty?

a)

sebaceous glands

b)

eccrine glands

c)

ceruminous glands

d)

apocrine glands

72.

In what area of the body would you expect to find an especially thick stratum corneum?

a)

Back of the hand

b)

Thigh

c)

Abdomen

d)

Sole of the foot

73.

Bone formation is carried out by cells called what?

a)

osteoblasts

b)

osteocytes

c)

osteoclasts

d)

chondrocytes

74.

Bone resorption (breaking down bones) is carried out by cells called what?

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoclasts

c)

osteoblasts

d)

chondrocytes

75.

The lengthening of long bones is primarily carried out by which part of the bone?

a)

diaphysis

b)

epiphysis

c)

diaphyseal plate

d)

epiphyseal plate

76.

Which bone is part of the axial skeleton?

a)

rib

b)

humerus

c)

femur

d)

scapula

77.

Which bone is part of the appendicular skeleton?

a)

ulna

b)

vertebral column

c)

mandible

d)

frontal

78.

Which INFERIOR part of the sternum must you be careful not to break off when performing CPR?

a)

manubrium

b)

body

c)

xiphoid process

d)

sternal notch

79.

Mr. Luthy is experiencing excruciating pain originating from his lower back. The vertebrae in this region are called

a)

thoracic vertebrae

b)

cervical vertebrae

c)

sacral vertebrae

d)

lumbar vertebrae

80.

The C1 vertebra is also known as the

a)

atlas.

b)

axis.

c)

dens.

d)

tailbone.

81.

The average adult skeleton is composed of how many bones?

a)

80

b)

206

c)

260

d)

126

82.

A fracture in the shaft of a bone is a break in the

a)

periosteum.

b)

epiphysis.

c)

diaphysis.

d)

endosteum.

83.

Which of the following is NOT a primary function performed by bones?

a)

mineral storage

b)

protection

c)

hormonal production

d)

hematopoiesis

84.

Hematopoiesis is carried out in the

a)

osteoclasts.

b)

osteocytes.

c)

yellow bone marrow.

d)

red bone marrow.

85.

In endochondral ossification of a long bone, the primary ossification center is located where?

a)

at the epiphyseal plate

b)

in the medullary cavity

c)

in the epiphysis

d)

in the diaphysis

86.

The level of calcium increasing in the bone and decreasing in the blood would be indicative of an increase in the activity of

a)

osteoclasts.

b)

osteoblasts.

c)

chondrocytes.

d)

osteocytes.

87.

The level of calcium decreasing in the bone and increasing in the blood would be indicative of an increase in the activity of

a)

osteoclasts.

b)

osteoblasts.

c)

chondrocytes.

d)

osteocytes.

88.

How many thoracic vertebrae does the average person have?

a)

7

b)

12

c)

5

d)

3-5

89.

The formation of blood cells is called

a)

epiphysis.

b)

diaphysis.

c)

hematopoiesis.

d)

diapedesis.

90.

Matching: Ends of long bones

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

epiphyses

d)

diaphysis

e)

medullary cavity

91.

Matching: Covers joint surfaces

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

epiphyses

d)

medullary cavity

e)

articular cartilage

92.

Matching: Part of long bone that tendons attach to

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

diaphysis

d)

meduallary cavity

e)

articular cartilage

93.

Matching: Inner lining of medullary cavity

a)

diaphysis

b)

medullary cavity

c)

endosteum

d)

articular cartilage

e)

epiphyses

94.

Matching: Contains yellow marrow

a)

periosteum

b)

diaphysis

c)

epiphyses

d)

medullary cavity

e)

articular cartilage

95.

Matching: Central shaft of long bones

a)

periosteum

b)

endosteum

c)

diaphysis

d)

medullary cavity

e)

articular cartilage

96.

Matching: Occurs primarily in the skull bones

a)

endosteum

b)

epiphysis

c)

intramembranous ossification

d)

medullary cavity

e)

periosteum

97.

Matching: Produces most of the skeletal system

a)

articular cartilage

b)

diaphysis

c)

endochondral ossification

d)

endosteum

e)

epiphyses

98.

There are more than 600 muscles in the body

a)

True

b)

False

99.

If one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles contrasts, it causes a different movement that if both of them contract

a)

True

b)

False

100.

If a muscle causes the knee to bend, the insertion point is above the knee and the origin point is below the knee

a)

True

b)

False

101.

As resistance increases, the number of motor units needed to overcome that resistance has to increase

a)

True

b)

False

102.

The connective tissue sheath that envelops bundles of muscle fibers is the:

a)

epimysium

b)

endomysium

c)

perisosteum

d)

perimysium

103.

The covering of individual muscle fibers is the:

a)

periosteum

b)

epimysium

c)

endomysium

d)

perimysium

104.

Muscles may be named according to:

a)

points of attachment

b)

function

c)

direction of fibers

d)

all of the above

105.

A muscle that assists with flexion of the elbow is the:

a)

biceps brachii

b)

triceps brachii

c)

biceps femoris

d)

rectus femoris

106.

The posterior arm muscle that extends the forearm is the:

a)

biceps brachii

b)

supinator

c)

brachialis

d)

triceps brachii

107.

Muscles located on the lower leg move the:

a)

thigh

b)

hip

c)

knee

d)

foot

108.

The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called

a)

sarcolemma

b)

myofibril

c)

sarcoplasm

d)

sarcomere

109.

The protein molecule that has heads jutting out for cross-bridging is:

a)

actin

b)

troponin

c)

myosin

d)

tropomyosin

110.

The neurotransmitter(s) secreted from the synaptic bulb is/are:

a)

dopamine

b)

norepinephrine

c)

acetylcholine

d)

Could be any of the above

111.

The ion necessary for cross-bridging is:

a)

iron

b)

sodium

c)

potassium

d)

calcium

112.

Which of the following is not associated with the thin myofilament

a)

troponin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

actin

d)

myosin

113.

The myofilament that can be described as a globular protein strung together like beads to form two intertwined strands is:

a)

troponin

b)

actin

c)

myosin

d)

tropomyosin

114.

The myofilament that can be described as bundled golf clubs with their heads sticking out from the bundle is:

a)

troponin

b)

actin

c)

myosin

d)

tropomyosin

115.

After it is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, the calcium combines with which protein

a)

troponin

b)

actin

c)

myosin

d)

tropomyosin

116.

Muscle contractions will continue as long as:

a)

the calcium ions are attached to the troponin

b)

there is acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction

c)

there is ATP in the muscle cell

d)

t-tubules are transmitting impulses

117.

A muscle is attached to the femur and the tibia. When the muscle contracts, it causes flexion of the knee. That would mean that the:

a)

tibia attachment is the origin

b)

femur attachment is the insertion

c)

tibia attachment is the insertion

d)

tibia attachment is the origin/femur attachment is the insertion

118.

Another name for a skeletal muscle cell us a:

a)

muscle fiber

b)

fascicle

c)

aponeurosis

d)

fascia

119.

A contraction in which the tension within the muscle remains the same but the length of the muscle changes is called a(n): (i.e. the joint angle changes)

a)

tonic contraction

b)

isotonic contraction

c)

isometric contraction

d)

tetanic contraction

120.

Which of the following terms describe an isometric contraction

a)

the joint angle decreases

b)

the joint angle stays the same

c)

the joint angle increases

d)

The joint angle increases/the joint angle decreases

121.

Where is acetylcholine stored before an action potential starts the chain of events for muscle contraction

a)

in the muscle fiber

b)

in the vesicles of the synaptic bulb

c)

in the synaptic cleft

d)

in the t-tubules

122.

Acetylcholine crosses the synaptic cleft and binds to what type of channels in the motor end plate

a)

Ca+

b)

K+

c)

Na+

d)

Both Ca+ and K+

123.

The sodium-potassium pump actively pumps three potassium ions out of the neuron and two sodium ions into the neuron.

a)

True

b)

False

124.

The difference in electrical charge between the inside and outside of a membrane is called the membrane potential.

a)

True

b)

False

125.

In depolarization, the membrane potential moves toward zero, whereas in hyperpolarization, the membrane potential moves away from zero.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

The dorsal root ganglion consists of cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward the central nervous system is called a(n):

a)

motor neuron

b)

bipolar neuron

c)

interneuron

d)

sensory neuron

128.

In the PNS, the myelin sheath is formed by:

a)

neuron cell bodies

b)

Nissl bodies

c)

Schwann cells

d)

nodes of ranvier

129.

A neuron that has only one axon but several dendrites is classified as a:

a)

unipolar neuron

b)

multipolar neuron

c)

bipolar neuron

d)

multidendritic neuron

130.

Gray matter in the brain and spinal cord consists primarily of:

a)

neruoglia

b)

cell bodies

c)

nerve fibers

d)

axons

131.

The white matter of the nervous system is made up of:

a)

myelinated fibers.

b)

nuclei.

c)

unmyelinated fibers.

d)

ganglia.

132.

When current leaps across an insulating myelin sheath from node to node, the type of impulse conduction is called:

a)

refraction

b)

saltatory conduction

c)

diffusion

d)

repolarization

133.

Neurotransmitters are released in a synapse and bind to:

a)

receptors in the plasma membrane of the presynaptic terminals

b)

receptors in the plasma membrane of the postsynaptic neuron

c)

the base of the axon terminal

d)

the synaptic cleft

134.

In a three-neuron reflex arc, the afferent neurons synapse with the:

a)

efferent neuron

b)

interneuron

c)

contralateral neuron

d)

ipsilateral neuron

135.

The main divisions of the central nervous system are the:

a)

brain, spinal cord, and autonomic nerves

b)

brain and spinal cord

c)

brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves

136.

Meningitis refers to inflammation of the:

a)

meninges

b)

spinal cord

c)

brain

137.

There are ventricles in the brain

a)

5

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

138.

If the ventral nerve root of a spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:

a)

sensory perception related to that pathway

b)

willed movement related to that pathway

c)

reflex activity only, related to that pathway

d)

both reflex activity and sensation related to that pathway

139.

If the dorsal root ganglia of the spinal nerve were destroyed, a person would lose:

a)

reflex activity only, related to that pathway

b)

both reflex activity and senation related to that pathway

c)

sensory perception related to that pathway

d)

willed movement related to the pathway

140.

Sensory neurons are usually:

a)

multipolar

b)

unipolar

c)

bipolar

141.

The value at resting membrane potential is

a)

-70mV

b)

-55mV

c)

+30mV

d)

-90mV

142.

The value at threshold potential is

a)

+30mV

b)

-55mV

c)

-70mV

d)

-90mV

143.

Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the

a)

cell bodies

b)

dorsal root ganglion

c)

synaptic cleft

d)

ventricles

144.

When the sodium channels have closed and the potassium channels are open during an action potential, the net charge reaches -90mV. During this brief period, the cells is

a)

at resting membrane potential

b)

unpolarized

c)

depolarized

d)

hyperpolarized

145.

The outermost layer of the cerebrum which consists of mostly neuron cell bodies and unmyelinated axons is the

a)

white matter.

b)

cerebral cortex.

c)

cerebellum.

d)

longitudinal fissure.

146.

Which of the following is NOT part of the brain stem?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Pons

147.

Which part of the brainstem helps regulate rate and depth of breathing?

a)

Thalamus

b)

Medulla Oblongata

c)

Midbrain

d)

Pons

148.

This structure acts as a gateway for sensory impulses heading to the cerebral cortex.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Cerebellum

149.

This structure helps maintain homeostasis by regulating visceral activities such as body temperature.

a)

Hypothalamus

b)

Thalamus

c)

Amygdala

d)

Cerebellum

150.

A group of people are working on clues to complete an escape room. Some are completing their tasks quickly, while others are struggling. Which part of the brain are they using to try to solve their problems?

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

e)

Cerebellum

151.

A person who has damage to this part of the brain would have trouble seeing. It could cause them to become blind or have blind spots. It could also cause them to not be able to recognize words or colors.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

e)

Cerebellum

152.

A person who has damage to this part of the brain could have trouble using words to express thoughts and feelings.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

e)

Cerebellum

153.

When you are in Mrs. Moore's class and she is speaking in Spanish, you are using this part of the brain to try to interpret what you are hearing.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

e)

Cerebellum

154.

In class, we did an experiment where we lifted someone who was blindfolded "up to the ceiling." We were trying to trick this part of the brain that is responsible for integrating sensory information concerning the position of body parts and coordinating muscle activities to maintain balance and posture.

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Parietal lobe

c)

Temporal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

e)

Cerebellum

155.

A child was frightened by a large dog. The pupils of the child's eyes became dilated, and the heart and respiratory rates increased. These symptoms were caused by:

a)

stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system.

b)

stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system.

c)

stimulation of both the parasympathetic and the sympathetic nervous systems.

d)

None of the above would account for the symptoms.

156.

All of the following are examples of parasympathetic stimulation except:

a)

contraction of the urinary bladder.

b)

relaxation of the sphincters of the digestive tract.

c)

increased salivation.

d)

increased heart rate.

157.

A neuron that transmits a nerve impulse toward a muscle or gland (effector) is called a(n)

a)

motor neuron.

b)

sensory neuron.

c)

interneuron.

d)

bipolar neuron.

158.

The part of the nervous system consisting of nerves branching off of the brain and spinal cord is the

a)

Autonomic Nervous System

b)

Central Nervous System

c)

Somatic Nervous System

d)

Peripheral Nervous System

159.

A junction, or connection, between two neurons is called a(n)

a)

membrane potential.

b)

synapse.

c)

action potential.

d)

stimulus.

160.

A synaptic knob would be located on a(n)

a)

cell body.

b)

axon.

c)

dendrite.

d)

all of the above.

161.

Which of the following transmits an action potential toward a synapse?

a)

Presynaptic cell

b)

Postsynaptic cell

c)

Neurotransmitter

d)

Synaptic Cleft

162.

Which of the following transmits an action potential away from a synapse?

a)

Presynaptic cell

b)

Postsynaptic cell

c)

Neurotransmitter

d)

Synaptic cleft

163.

A chemical messenger released by the axon terminal to cross the synaptic cleft is a(n)

a)

neuron.

b)

synapse.

c)

neurotransmitter.

d)

action potential.

164.

When is a cell membrane considered "polarized?"

a)

When the sodium and potassium channels open and the polarity of the membrane moves closer to 0mV.

b)

When the sodium and potassium channels close and the polarity of the membrane moves closer to 0mV.

c)

When the sodium/potassium pump closes and sodium and potassium stop diffusing across the membrane.

d)

When sodium and potassium ions are pumped across the cell membrane and the polarity of the membrane moves toward -70mV.

165.

The electrical impulse that travels down the membrane of a neuron is called a(n)

a)

action potential.

b)

depolarized impulse.

c)

resting membrane potential.

d)

threshold potential.

166.

The control centers for non vital reflexes such as coughing, sneezing, swallowing, and vomiting are found in the

a)

thalamus.

b)

midbrain.

c)

pons.

d)

medulla oblongata.

167.

The role of the choroid plexus is to

a)

act as a relay center for signals entering the brain.

b)

secrete cerebrospinal fluid.

c)

form the blood/brain barrier.

d)

activate a sympathetic response to a dangerous situation.