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Biology Milestone Review

Total questions: 165

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

controls the activities of the cell, contains the Deoxyribonucleic Acid

a)

ribosomes

b)

nucleus

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

chloroplasts

2.

synthesize/makes proteins

a)

nucleus

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

ribosomes

d)

vacuoles

3.

synthesizes and makes lipids, detoxifies the cell

a)

smooth ER

b)

Rough ER

c)

ribosomes

d)

golgi body

4.

covered in ribosomes, site of protein synthesis

a)

smooth ER

b)

rough ER

c)

vacuoles

d)

lysosomes

5.

found in plants, used for photosynthesis, contains chlorophyll

a)

ribosomes

b)

vacuoles

c)

chloroplasts

d)

cytoplasm

6.

site of cellular respiration, converts sugar in the presence of oxygen

a)

mitochondria

b)

lysosomes

c)

cell membrane

d)

chloroplasts

7.

modifies, packages, sorts, and ships lipids and proteins out of the cell

a)

cell wall

b)

lysosomes

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi body

8.

protects the cell and provides the cell with a rigid structure, made of carbs

a)

golgi body

b)

cell wall

c)

cytoplasm

d)

cell membrane

9.

in plants the cell wall is made of...

a)

cellulose

b)

chitin

c)

peptidoglycan

d)

enzymes

10.

in fungi the cell wall is made of...

a)

cellulose

b)

chitin

c)

peptidoglycan

d)

lipids

11.

in eubacteria the cell wall is made of...

a)

cellulose

b)

chitin

c)

peptidoglycan

d)

sugar

12.

Which of the statements is true?

a)

Eubacteria have a cell wall made out of chitin, and archaebacteria have a cell wall made out of peptidoglycan.

b)

Eubacteria have a cell wall made out of peptidoglycan, and archabacteria do not have a cell wall.

c)

Eubacteria has a cell wall made out of peptidogylcan, and archaebacteria have a cell wall, but it is not made out of peptidoglycan.

d)

Eubacteria have a cell wall made out of cellulose, and archaebacteria have a cell wall made out of chitin.

13.

stores water, waste, and nutrients in the cell (animals have several small ones and plants have one very large one)

a)

golgi body

b)

cytoplasm

c)

vacuole

d)

lysosome

14.

protects the cell wall with a phospholipid bilayer, controls what enters and leaves the cell

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

cytoplasm

d)

lysosomes

15.

a vesicle that contains digestive enzymes to break down worn out cell parts (garbage disposals)

a)

cell membrane

b)

golgi body

c)

lysosomes

d)

cytoplasm

16.

lysosomes enzymes are made from ___ and lysosomes vesicles are made from the ___

a)

golgi body, ribosomes

b)

ribosomes, golgi body

c)

chitin, chlorophyll

d)

lipids, ribosome

17.

gel-like structure that holds all of the organelles into place (allows for chemical reactions to take place due to it being an aqueous solution)

a)

lysosome

b)

cell membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

vacuole

18.

a solution in which water is the primary solvent

a)

aqua solution

b)

aqueous solution

c)

osmosis solvent

d)

hydro solvent

19.

maintaining a constant and balanced internal environment

a)

homeostasis

b)

hemoglobin level

c)

metabolism

d)

none of these

20.

single-celled organisms that lack a nucleus, do not have any membrane-bound organelles

a)

eukaryotes

b)

prokaryotes

21.

single and multi-celled organisms that have a true nucleus, they do have membrane-bound organelles

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

22.

how genetic material is passed on into future generations

a)

gamete reproduction

b)

genetic continuity

c)

law of independent assortment

d)

law of segregation

23.

What is true about asexual reproduction?

a)

genetic continuity will result in genetic sameness

b)

the parent will pass on an identical copy of genetic material

c)

genetic continuity will result in organisms passing on half of their genetic material

24.

What is true about sexual reproduction?

a)

genetic continuity will result in genetic sameness

b)

genetic continuity will result in genetic variability

c)

organisms pass on half of their genetic material to the next generation

d)

organisms pass on all of their genetic material to the next generation

25.

what cells undergo mitosis?

a)

somatic diploid cells

b)

gamete haploid cells

c)

gamete diploid cells

d)

somatic haploid cells

26.

What is the result of mitosis?

a)

2 identical diploid cells

b)

2 different haploid cells

c)

1 identical diploid cell

d)

1 different haploid cell

27.

what cells undergo meiosis?

a)

haploid gamete cells

b)

diploid gamete cells

c)

haploid somatic cells

d)

diploid somatic cells

28.

what is the product of meiosis?

a)

4 different haploid cells

b)

4 identical haploid cells

c)

2 identical diploid cells

d)

2 different diploid cells

29.

in multicellular organisms, mitosis is used for...

a)

reproduction

b)

growth

c)

repair

d)

growth and repair

30.

select which processes happen in prophase

a)

chromosomes condense and become visible

b)

the nucleolus disappears

c)

the nuclear membrane disappears

d)

the spindles form

e)

the nuclear membrane forms

31.

during cytokinesis in plant cells, a ___ forms which will eventually become the cell wall

a)

cleavage furrow

b)

cell plate

c)

plate furrow

d)

wall plate

32.

the process by which gametes are formed that contain half the number of chromosomes (haploid)

a)

mitosis

b)

binary fission

c)

meiosis

d)

cytokinesis

33.

the original parent cell in meiosis is ___

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

34.

What happens during Prophase I in meiosis?

a)

homologous chromosomes line up next to each other forming a tetrad

b)

crossing over occurs

c)

chromosomes line up in the center of the cell

d)

homologous chromosomes split into homologous chromatids

35.

a type of asexual reproduction used by archae and bacteria, by separation of the body into two new bodies (organism duplicates its genetic material and then does cytokinesis)

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

binary fission

d)

nucleic fission

36.

Which is correct about binary fission?

a)

results in two genetically different cells

b)

results in two genetically same cells

c)

results in one genetically different cell

d)

results in four genetically same cells

37.

proteins that speed up the rate of reaction by lowering the activation energy (the energy needed to start a reaction)

a)

enzymes

b)

lipids

c)

amino acids

d)

phospholipids

38.

Which statements are true regarding enzymes?

a)

can be reused

b)

binds to a specific substrate

c)

can be affected by pH and temperature

d)

enzymes can only be used once

39.

What are the major biological macromolecules?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

e)

DNA

40.

what is true about lipids?

a)

provide long term energy and insulation

b)

provides quick energy

c)

made up of hydrocarbon bonds (carbon and hydrogen)

d)

made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

41.

What are the monomers for lipids?

a)

fatty acids

b)

glycerol

c)

monosaccharides

d)

glucose

42.

Which is true about carbohydrates?

a)

provides quick energy and is the first energy choice for most organisms

b)

provides long term energy

c)

easy to break down

d)

made of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

e)

made of carbon and hydrogen

43.

What is the monomer of carbs?

a)

glycerol and fatty acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleotides

44.

Which is true about proteins?

a)

provide and build structures within the cell

b)

help speed up chemical reactions in the form of enzymes

c)

help repair the cell

d)

help regulate cellular processes including cell division

e)

stores genetic material for the organism

45.

Which is true about proteins?

a)

made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen

b)

made up of carbon and hydrogen

c)

made up of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen

d)

made up of carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen

46.

What is the monomer of proteins?

a)

gylcerol and fatty acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

amino acids

d)

nucleotide

47.

What is true about nucleic acids?

a)

stores genetic material for the organism, code us used to make proteins

b)

made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorous

c)

monomer is nucleotides

d)

made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and phosphorous

48.

transport that does not require energy and moved from high concentration to low

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

diffusion

49.

Which are types of passive transport?

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

endocytosis

e)

exocytosis

50.

movement of materials across the membrane from an area of high concentration to low concentration

a)

osmosis

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

diffusion

d)

endocytosis

e)

exocytosis

51.

diffusion of water

a)

facilitates diffusion

b)

hydro diffusion

c)

endocytosis

d)

osmosis

52.

solution with a higher solute concentration than the cell (water moves out of the cell, the cell shrivels)

a)

hypertonic

b)

isotonic

c)

hypotonic

53.

solution with a lower solute concentration than the cell (water will move into the cell, an animal cell will burst, but a plant cell will be protected by its cell wall)

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

54.

solution with an equal solute concentration as the cell (no water movement)

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

55.

diffusion with the help of membrane proteins

a)

osmosis

b)

heightened diffusion

c)

amino acid diffusion

d)

facilitated diffusion

56.

transport that requires the input of energy, lower to higher concentration

a)

passive transport

b)

active transport

57.

movement of large amounts of material into the cell by the folding of the membrane (pinocytosis is liquids, phagocytosis is solids)

a)

exocytosis

b)

endocytosis

c)

facilitated diffusion

d)

diffusion

58.

movement of large amounts of material outside of the cell

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

diffusion

d)

facilitated diffusion

59.

ATP is made up out of...

a)

adenine

b)

ribose

c)

three phosphate groups

d)

a phosphate

60.

energy is released by...

a)

breaking the bond between the last two phosphate groups in ATP (turns into ADP)

b)

breaking the bond between the first two phosphate groups in ATP (turns into ADP)

c)

breaking the bond between the adenine and ribose

d)

all of these

61.

6CO2 + 6H2O = C6H12O6 + 6O2

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

62.

occurs in the grana (thylakoid membrane), water is spit, oxygen is released, energy molecules needed for the other cycle are produced (NADPH)

a)

Calvin Cycle

b)

light independent reactions

c)

light dependent reactions

d)

glycolysis

63.

occurs in the stroma (the space surrounding the thylakoids), carbon dioxide combines with hydrogen molecules to make sugar

a)

light dependent reactions

b)

Calvin cycle

c)

kreb's cycle

d)

ETC

64.

what energy molecule is created by the light reaction?

a)

NADPH

b)

NADP+

c)

ATP

d)

ADP

65.

C6H12O6 + 6O2 = 6CO2 + 6H2O + ATP

a)

Photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

66.

___ respiration requires oxygen (36 ATP are produced)

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

67.

___ respiration does not require oxygen (only 2 ATP are produced)

a)

aerobic

b)

anaerobic

68.

occurs in the cytoplasm, sugar is split into pyruvic acid, 2 ATP are used and 4 ATP are produced

a)

Krebs Cycle

b)

Glycolysis

c)

Electron Transport Chain

d)

Krebs Cycle

69.

occurs in the mitochondria, high energy molecules NADH and FADH2 are produced, carbon dioxide is released, 2 ATP are made

a)

Glycolysis

b)

Krebs Cycle

c)

ETC

d)

Light independent reaction

70.

occurs in the mitochondria, 32 ATP are made, water is released

a)

glycolysis

b)

krebs cycle

c)

ETC

d)

light dependent reaction

71.

adenine pairs with...

a)

thymine

b)

cytosine

c)

guanine

d)

uracil

72.

guanine pairs with...

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

cytosine

d)

uracil

73.

the process where DNA makes a copy of itself by unzipping and then bringing in new nucleotides to pair with the parent strands; each new strand contains one of the original parent strands and a new strand

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

DNA Synthesis

c)

RNA synthesis

74.

central dogma of biology

a)

DNA, amino acids, protein, mRNA

b)

DNA, mRNA, amino acids, protein

c)

mRNA, DNA, amino acids, protein

d)

protein, amino acids, mRNA, DNA

75.

the process of making mRNA from DNA, mRNA leaves the nucleus and looks for a ribosome in the cytoplasm or on the ER

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

protein synthesisi

d)

codon synthesis

76.

carries the message from the nucleus to the ribosome

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

77.

makes up the structure of the ribosome, helps stitch the amino acids

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

78.

brings amino acids to the ribosome for making proteins

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

DNA

79.

the process of making proteins using the instructions from the mRNA (occurs on the ribosome)

a)

transcription

b)

DNA synthesis

c)

protein synthesis

d)

translation

80.

What is the mRNA strand for this strand of DNA:

TAC ACG ACT

a)

UAC ACG ACU

b)

GUA CGU AGU

c)

AUG UGC UGA

d)

none of these

81.

what is the tRNA strand for this strand of mRNA:

AUG UGC UGA

a)

UAC ACG ACU

b)

TAC ACG ACT

c)

AGU CGU GUA

d)

TCA GCA CAT

82.

How many amino acids can be coded via translation?

a)

64

b)

21

c)

20

d)

62

83.

how many codons can code for specific amino acids?

a)

20

b)

24

c)

60

d)

64

84.

the failure of chromosomes to separate during meiosis I and/or meiosis II

a)

trisomy

b)

nondisjunction

c)

point mutation

d)

deletion

85.

nondisjunction can result in...

a)

trisomy

b)

monosomy

c)

crossing over

d)

mutations

e)

bisomy

86.

a condition in which an individual has three copies of a chromosome instead of two

a)

bisomy

b)

trisomy

c)

monosomy

d)

tredsomy

87.

a condition in which an indifferent chromosome has one copy of a chromosome instead of two

a)

nondisjunction

b)

bisomy

c)

trisomy

d)

monosomy

88.

during prophase I of meiosis I leads to the exchange of genetic information between non-sister chromatids of homologous pairs of chromosomes. This exchange of genetic information leads to an increase in genetic variation

a)

nondisjunction

b)

mutations

c)

DNA synthesis

d)

crossing over

89.

the random change in the DNA sequence of an organism or viruses

a)

nondisjunction

b)

substitution

c)

postzygotic mutation

d)

mutation

90.

a mutation in which a base is added to a DNA sequence

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

d)

postzygotic

91.

a mutation in which a base is deleted from a DNA sequence

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

substituion

d)

postzygotic

92.

a mutation in which a base is substituted in a DNA sequence

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

substitution

d)

postzygotic

93.

only DNA mutations that occur in ___ cells can be passed onto the next generation

a)

somatic

b)

homologous

c)

mutated

d)

gamete

94.

mutations that occur after the egg has been fertilized, occur due to environmental factors

a)

insertion

b)

deletion

c)

biotechnology

d)

postzygotic

95.

Environmental factors that can cause mutations in organisms include:

a)

radiation

b)

chemicals

c)

viruses

d)

bacteria

e)

vaccines

96.

viruses naturally change the DNA of the host organism to get the host to make more copies of the virus

a)

true

b)

false

97.

technology that utilizes biological systems, living organisms or parts of this to develop or create different products

a)

DNA technology

b)

mutation technology

c)

biotechnology

d)

mendelian technology

98.

the father of genetics

a)

Aristotle

b)

Carrolus Linnaeus

c)

Gregor Mendel

d)

Charles Darwin

99.

the trait that hides the recessive trait

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

homozygous

d)

heterozygous

100.

the trait that is hidden

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

heterozygous

d)

homozygous

101.

alternate forms of a gene

a)

traits

b)

phenotypes

c)

alleles

d)

independent assortment

102.

two of the same alleles for a trait (RR or rr)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

103.

one of each allele for a trait (Rr)

a)

homozygous

b)

heterozygous

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

104.

a cross showing one possible trait

a)

dihybrid cross

b)

punnett square

c)

monohybrid cross

d)

genotype

105.

a cross showing two possible traits

a)

monohybrid cross

b)

dihybrid cross

c)

punnett square

d)

genotype

106.

Brown eyes are dominant (B) over blue eyes (b). A blue-eyed man marries a heterozygous brown-eyed woman. What are the correct percentages for the chances of having a blue and brown eyed baby?

a)

25% blue eyes and 75% brown eyes

b)

50% blue eyes and 25% brown eyes

c)

50% brown eyes and 50% blue eyes

d)

25% brown eyes and 75% blue eyes

107.

When both parents are heterozygous for a trait, what is the ratio for a dihybrid cross?

a)

4:3:3:8

b)

9:3:4:9

c)

3:3:1:9

d)

9:3:3:1

108.

the dominant allele will prevent the recessive allele from being expressed (This also means that the dominant allele will mask the effects of the recessive allele)

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

109.

gene pairs separate when gametes (sex cells) are formed, so each gamete only has one of each pair

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

110.

A white poppy flower reproduces with a red poppy flower. The red flower passes on one dominant allele for red coloration. The white flower passes on one recessive allele for white coloration. What law does this demonstrate?

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

111.

different pairs of genes separate independently of each other when gametes are formed

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

112.

One baby rabbit receives the genotype bbgg, giving it white fur and red eyes. Alternatively, another baby rabbit receives the genotype Bbgg, giving it black fur and red eyes. This arrangement of inherited traits proves what?

a)

law of dominance

b)

law of segregation

c)

law of independent assortment

113.

Based on the 9:3:3:1 ratio, which is correct?

a)

9: dominant

3: dominant/recessive

3: recessive/dominant

1: recessive/recessive

b)

9: dominant/recessive

3: recessive/dominant

3: dominant/dominant

1: recessive/dominant

c)

9: dominant/dominant

3: recessive/dominant

3: recessive/dominant

1: dominant/recessive

d)

9: dominant/dominant

3: dominant/recessive

3: dominant/recessive

1: recessive/recessive

114.

whenever there are two dominant alleles, both dominant alleles will show up at the same time. Examples of this would be the mating of a white and black pitbull and all of their offspring are spotted black and white

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

dominance

c)

codominance

d)

segregation

115.

whenever there is a dominant and a recessive allele or two dominant alleles, the alleles will blend together. An example of this would be the mating of a white and black pitbull and all of their offspring are gray

a)

codominance

b)

dominance

c)

independent assortment

d)

incomplete dominance

116.

disadvantages of sexual reproduction

a)

needs time and energy to find a partner

b)

takes much longer to reproduce

c)

does not produce many offspring

d)

lacks genetic variation

117.

advantages of sexual reproduction

a)

only one parent needed

b)

faster reproduction rate

c)

produces a lot of offspring in a short amount a time

d)

provides genetic variation

118.

disadvantages of asexual reproduction

a)

more than one parent needed

b)

lacks genetic variation

c)

takes much longer to reproduce

d)

takes time and energy

119.

advantages of asexual reproduction

a)

one parent needed

b)

faster reproduction rate

c)

produces a lot of offspring in a short amount of time

d)

provides genetic variation

120.

A theory that states that all eukaryotic organisms derived from a large anaerobic prokaryotic cell that consumed an aerobic prokaryotic cell, however the prokaryotic cell that was consumed survived and reproduced inside of the host cell. This is how scientists explain the introduction of various organelles inside of eukaryotic cells. Each organelle, according to the endosymbiotic theory, were once free-living prokaryotes/bacteria.

a)

Symbiotic Theory

b)

Classification Theory

c)

Eukaryotic Theorty

d)

Endosymbiotic Theory

121.

the strongest evidence for the endosymbiotic theory includes which organelles?

a)

mitochondria and ribosomes

b)

golgi body and nucleus

c)

nucleus and mitochondria

d)

mitochondria and chloroplasts

122.

Classify the organism.

Prokaryote, cell wall made out of peptidoglycan, unicellular, autotroph/heterotroph

a)

eubacteria

b)

archaebacteria

c)

protista

d)

plantae

123.

Classify the organism.

prokaryote, cell walls without peptidoglycan, unicellular, autotroph or heterotroph

a)

eubacteria

b)

archaebacteria

c)

protista

d)

fungi

124.

classify the organism.

eukaroyte, cells walls made out of cellulose, most unicellular some multicellular, autotroph or heterotroph

a)

eubacteria

b)

protista

c)

fungi

d)

plantae

125.

classify the organism.

eukaryote, cell wall made of chitin, most multicellular some uni, heterotroph

a)

eubacteria

b)

protista

c)

archaebacteria

d)

fungi

126.

classify the organism.

eukaryote, cell wall made of cellulose, most multicellular some uni, autotroph

a)

protista

b)

fungi

c)

plantae

d)

eubacteria

127.

classify the organism.

eukaryote, no cell wall, multicellular, heterotroph

a)

plantae

b)

protista

c)

fungi

d)

animalia

128.

ALL LIVING THINGS...

a)

are made of cells

b)

reproduce

c)

are based on DNA

d)

grow and develop

e)

obtain and use energy

129.

ALL LIVING THINGS...

a)

respond to their environment

b)

maintain homeostasis

c)

change over time

d)

decompose

130.

first classified organisms into plants and animals

a)

Aristotle

b)

Linnaeus

c)

Galileo

d)

Watson

131.

a type of diagram that shows hypothetical relationships between groups of organisms

a)

phylogenetic tree

b)

cladogram

c)

dichotomous key

d)

none of these

132.

a diagram that represents evolutionary relationships among organisms.

a)

cladogram

b)

phylogenetic tree

c)

dichotomous key

d)

none of these

133.

What is this?

a)

cladogram

b)

phylogenetic tree

c)

dichotomous key

d)

none of these

134.

What is this?

a)

dichotomous key

b)

phylogenetic tree

c)

cladogram

d)

none of these

135.

the active replication stage of the virus in which the virus is using the host cell’s DNA and ribosome to make copies of viral particles to spread the infection

a)

lysogenetic cycle

b)

lytic cycle

136.

the dormant stage of the virus in which the virus injects its genetic material into the host cell’s DNA. It permanently becomes a part of the host cell’s DNA sequence

a)

lytic cycle

b)

lysogenic cycle

137.

Based on the current characteristics of life, are viruses living?

a)

yes

b)

no

138.

Which list of the levels of organization is in order?

a)

organism, community, population, ecosystem, biosphere

b)

organism, population, ecosystem, community, biosphere

c)

organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

d)

organism, community, ecosystem, population, biosphere

139.

a group of the same species

a)

community

b)

ecosystem

c)

population

d)

biosphere

140.

the many populations within an ecosystem (only living things)

a)

population

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

biosphere

141.

all of the living and nonliving things in an area

a)

population

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

biosphere

142.

all of the ecosystems on Earth

a)

population

b)

community

c)

ecosystem

d)

biosphere

143.

under ideal conditions, the population will increase indefinitely

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

144.

when resources become limited, the population growth slows down and stabilizes

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

145.

___ is cycled through both photosynthesis and cellular respiration

a)

nitrogen

b)

hydrogen

c)

phosphorous

d)

carbon

146.

___ is cycled through nitrogen fixation and denitrification done by soil bacteria

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

hydrogen

d)

phosphorous

147.

succession that occurs in a community where life did not previously exist, no soil

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

148.

the first organism to move into a community

a)

autotrophs

b)

lichens

c)

pioneer species

d)

population species

149.

succession that occurs when the dominant plant life of a community is removed, soil is already there

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

150.

the final, stable community that occurs after succession (takes over 100 years to establish)

a)

pioneer species

b)

climax community

c)

renewable community

d)

permanent species

151.

plant response to light

a)

geotropism

b)

thigmotropism

c)

positive tropism

d)

phototropism

152.

plant response to gravity

a)

phototropism

b)

geotropism

c)

thigmotropism

d)

negative tropism

153.

plant response to touch

a)

phototropism

b)

geotropism

c)

thigmotropism

d)

positive tropism

154.

plant response in direction of the stimulus is to ___ whereas plant response in the direction away from the stimulus is to ___

a)

positive tropism; negative tropism

b)

negative tropism; positive tropism

155.

the idea that traits acquired during life would be passed to the next generation, established by John Baptiste Lamark, proven untrue

a)

inheritance of DNA

b)

inheritance of acquired characteristics

c)

natural selection

d)

inheritance of variation

156.

where unrelated species develop similar adaptations to allow them to survive in similar environments

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

157.

where one or more species evolves from a single species

a)

convergent evolution

b)

divergent evolution

158.

speciation occurs rapidly in short bursts, with long periods of stability in between

a)

gradualsim

b)

punctuated equilibrium

159.

structures that no longer have a function in modern day organisms

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

160.

structures that are built the same but are used differently

a)

vestigial

b)

homologous

c)

analogous

161.

features that are similar in function but not in structure

a)

vestigial

b)

homologous

c)

analogous

162.

variation in the relative frequency of different genotypes in a small population, owing to the chance disappearance of particular genes as individuals die or do not reproduce.

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

genetic drift

c)

speciation

d)

punctuated equilibrium

163.

selection against one extreme for the other extreme

a)

directional

b)

stabilizing

c)

disruptive

164.

selection against both extreme but for a moderate version of both

a)

directional

b)

stabilizing

c)

disruptive

165.

selection for both extremes but against the moderate trait

a)

directional

b)

stabilizing

c)

disruptive