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Worksheets

U6 APB Review

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 4hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
2.

What is the term for making an RNA copy of DNA?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Folding

d)

Coding

3.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
4.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

5.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
6.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
7.
In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until 
a)
the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.
b)
several transcription factors have bound to the promoter.
c)
the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.
d)
the DNA introns are removed from the template.
8.

Which of the following best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?

a)

it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor

b)

it sets the reading frame of the mRNA

c)

it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding

d)

it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene

9.

RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?

a)

5' to 3'

b)

3' to 5' along the template strand

c)

3' to 5' along nontemplate (coding) strand

d)

5' to 3' along the template strand

10.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
11.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
12.

The parts of a gene that do not code for amino acids in a protein are called

a)

introns

b)

exons

c)

codons

d)

anticodons

13.

The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves

a)

cutting introns out and splicing exons together

b)

adding the 5' cap

c)

adding the 3' poly A tail

d)

all of these are correct

14.

What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?

a)

to add modified guanine to the 3' end of the mRNA

b)

to indicate the site of translational termination

c)

to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA

d)

to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes

15.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
16.

Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes?

a)

elongation of the polypeptide

b)

base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA

c)

binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits

d)

the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5' cap

17.

What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?

a)

It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER

b)

Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi

c)

Its signal sequence must be cleaved off

d)

Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane

18.

What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence 5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'

a)

met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser

b)

met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu

c)

met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu

d)

met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu

19.
Translation occurs:
a)
Outside of the Nucleus
b)
Inside of the Nucleus
20.
Translation is performed by:
a)
Ribosomes 
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Golgi Bodies
d)
Endoplasmic Reticulum 
21.
Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation? 
a)
A copy of chromosomal DNA is created 
b)
Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein 
c)
A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
d)
Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm 
22.
Smaller segments of RNA nucleotides that transport amino acids to the ribosomes.
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
23.

What is the correct description of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

many linear pieces of DNA in the cytoplasm

b)

many linear pieces of DNA in the nucleus

c)

one circular piece of DNA in the cytoplasm

d)

many circular pieces of DNA in the nucleus

24.

Which process is shown?

a)

diffusion

b)

respiration

c)

recombination

d)

translation

25.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
26.

Which site of the ribosome receives incoming tRNA during translation?

a)

A site

b)

P site

c)

E site

d)

C site

27.
Which molecule can we find the promoter and terminator in?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
polypeptide chain
28.
A small molecule that binds to the repressor protein and makes it inactive is a/an ________.
a)
corepressor
b)
inducer
c)
promoter
d)
operator
29.

What does the inducer molecule do in an inducible operon?

a)

It binds to the repressor protein allowing transcription to occur

b)

It binds to the promoter allowing transcription to occur

c)

It binds to the operator and stops transcription

d)

It binds to the repressor and stops transcription

30.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the _________.
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
31.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
32.
What is the name of the binding site of RNA polymerase in eukaryotes?
a)
operator
b)
operon
c)
inducer
d)
promoter
33.
What does the repressor protein do?
a)
Allows RNA polymerase to read the gene
b)
Prevents RNA polymerase from reading the gene
c)
Reads the gene
d)
Translates the gene
34.
Which type of operon is shown in the image?
a)
inducible operon
b)
repressible operon
c)
positive control operon
d)
can't determine this from the image
35.

Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?

a)

prokaryotes (bacteria)

b)

eukaryotes (plants and animals)

c)

animals only

d)

viruses

36.

What is an operon?

a)

A part of the promoter region of a gene

b)

A part of RNA polymerase

c)

A unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task

d)

A protein needed for DNA replication

37.

In a repressible operon, what turns on transcription?

a)

the presence of the corepressor

b)

the absence of the corepressor

c)

the presence of RNA polymerase

d)

the absence of RNA polymerase

38.
In the lac operon, the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
galactose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
d)
glucose is absent in the cell
39.

What type of operon is the lac (lactose) operon?

a)

inducible

b)

repressible

c)

positive control

d)

promotable

40.

What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?

a)

inducible

b)

repressible

c)

positive control

d)

repressible

41.
T1 - ____ is the activation of a gene that results in transcription.
a)
Gene expression
b)
Gene technology
c)
Eukaryotic expression
d)
Prokaryotic expression
42.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the regulatory region for transcription are called ____________.
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
43.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely differently?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

44.

All of the following are true about histone acetylation EXCEPT

a)

takes place on the histone

b)

enzymes add an acetyl group

c)

when it occurs, transcription is more likely to occur

d)

chromatin becomes more tightly packed

45.
Inheritance of traits by mechanisms not directly involving nucleotide sequence is called
a)
epigenetic inheritance
b)
differential gene expression
c)
chromosomal inheritance
d)
gene regulation
46.

A distal control region that activators bind to is bent to contact mediator proteins and form the transcription initiation complex

a)

enhancers

b)

promoters

c)

repressors

d)

transcription factors

47.
Alternative RNA splicing ____.
a)
is a mechanism for increasing the rate of translation
b)
can allow the production of proteins of different sizes and functions from a single mRNA
c)
can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs
d)
increases the rate of transcription
48.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
49.
The most important sequence in promoter for RNA polymerase II is 
a)
-10 sequence 
b)
-35 sequence
c)
TATA box
d)
Spacer sequence
50.
What enzyme transcribes eukaryotic mRNA?
a)
RNA Polymerase
b)
RNA Polymerase I
c)
RNA Polymerase II
d)
RNA Polymerase III
51.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
52.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
53.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
54.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
55.
Inducible negative control is when when the gene is transcribed by the ____ of a specific molecule
a)
presence
b)
absence
56.
Repressible negative control is when when the gene is transcribed by the ____ of a specific molecule
a)
presence
b)
absence
57.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
58.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
59.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
60.
The most important sequence in promoter for RNA polymerase II is 
a)
-10 sequence 
b)
-35 sequence
c)
TATA box
d)
Spacer sequence
61.
What enzyme transcribes eukaryotic mRNA?
a)
RNA Polymerase
b)
RNA Polymerase I
c)
RNA Polymerase II
d)
RNA Polymerase III
62.
What do promoter elements bind to to regulate eukaryotic transcription?
a)
Transcription Factors
b)
RNA Polymerase II
c)
Sigma
d)
mRNA
63.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
64.
Which pre-mRNA processing step is important for initiating translation?
a)
poly-A tail
b)
RNA editing
c)
splicing
d)
7-methylguanosine cap
65.
Increases gene transcription
a)
methylation
b)
transcriptase
c)
helicase
d)
DNA acetylation
66.
Protein molecules around which DNA is tightly coiled in chromatin
a)
Histones
b)
Whey
c)
Casein
d)
Hemoglobin
67.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
68.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
69.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
70.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
71.
A cellular organelle that breaks down proteins marked with ubiquitin is a(n)
a)
proteosome
b)
mitochondria
c)
roughER
d)
golgi apparatus
72.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
73.
tRNA is involved in
a)
carrying amino acids 
b)
carrying ribosomes
c)
carrying glucose
d)
carrying lipids
74.
A distal control region that activators bind to are bent to contact mediator proteins and form the transcription initiation complex
a)
enhancers
b)
promoters
c)
repressors
d)
transcription factors
75.
Carries the genetic code to the ribosome
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
DNA
76.
A mutation that does NOT alter the protein production is called a 
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
77.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTATCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Deletion
b)
Substitution
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
78.
In eukaryotes, proteins that help the RNA polymerase bind to the promoter for transcription
a)
transcription factors
b)
topoisomerase
c)
regulatory genes
d)
activators
79.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
80.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
81.
_______ is to transcription as ________ is to translation.
a)
mRNA / Amino Acid Chain
b)
Amino Acid Chain / mRNA
c)
Ribosome / Nucleus
d)
mRNA / tRNA
82.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
83.
What does the inducer molecule do in an inducable operon?
a)
it binds to the repressor protein allowing transcription to occur
b)
it binds to the promoter allowing transcription to occur
c)
it binds to the operator and stops transcription
d)
it binds to the repressor and stops transcription
84.
In the lac operon, the genes within the operon will be expressed if:
a)
lactose is absent in the cell
b)
galactose is present in the cell
c)
lactose is present in the cell
d)
glucose is absent in the cell
85.
What type of operon is the lac (lactose) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible
86.
Transcription begins at sequences called
a)
Start Codons
b)
Promoters
c)
Origins
d)
Introns
87.
Translation is a process in eurkaryotic cells takes place in the:
a)
Cytoplasm
b)
Nucleus
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Golgi Bodies
88.
When the Ribosome reaches ________________ the process of translation stops
a)
Stop Codon
b)
Okazaki Fragment
c)
Terminator
d)
taq Polymerase
89.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
90.
The process by which a cell becomes specialized for a specific structure or function.
a)
cell multiplication
b)
cell division
c)
mitosis
d)
cell differentiation
91.
Which process is happening in this picture?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
92.
Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?
a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
93.
Genetic variation can arise from a random change in the DNA of a gene.  The change is called a(n)
a)
mutation
b)
gene flow
c)
gene pool
d)
allele
94.
Which sections of mRNA are cut out and discarded before the mRNA leaves the nucleus?
a)
Exons
b)
Introns
c)
Genes
d)
Amino acids
95.
What makes up a spliceosome and what does a spliceosome do?
a)
proteins & snRNPs, cuts out DNA pieces
b)
proteins & snRNPs, cuts out exons & reconnects introns
c)
proteins & snRNPs, cuts out introns & reconnects exons
d)
many nucleosomes, cuts the cheese
96.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
97.
Translation happens in the
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
98.

Which of the following polypeptides is coded for by the mRNA sequence 5' AUGGUUAAA 3'?

a)

Val, Lys, Phe, Gly

b)

Met, Asp, Phe

c)

Met, Val, Phe

d)

Ile, Gln, Leu, Ser

99.
What type of frameshift mutation happens when the mRNA codes for a stop too soon?
a)
Extensive Missense
b)
Immediate Nonsense
c)
Limited Effect
d)
Silent
100.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
alternative splicing
d)
snRPs
101.
What are 2  ways gene expression is controlled in prokaryotes?
a)
Through inducible and repressible operons
b)
Through introns and exons
c)
Through methylation and acetylation
d)
Through enhancers and distal control elements
102.
During DNA methylation
a)
mRNA molecules are prohibited from being translated
b)
a methyl cap is added to the 5' end to prevent DNA degredation
c)
transcription factor proteins recruit RNA polymerase initiating transcription
d)
chromatin becomes more tightly packed
103.
What are the components of a nucleotide?
a)
nitrogen base, phosphate group, and sugar
b)
sugar, purine, and pyrimidine
c)
nitrogen base and a phosphate group
d)
DNA, phosphate group, monosaccharide
104.

DNA consists of two strands of nucleotides held together by ____ bonds between complimentary bases.

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Ionic

d)

Hydrophobic

105.
Cytosine makes up 42% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism. Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?
a)
8%
b)
16%
c)
42%
d)
58%
106.

This enzyme is capable of breaking Hydrogen bonds found between the bases of DNA

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

DNA Helicase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Exonuclease

107.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
108.

This enzyme helps helicase unzip DNA by relieving supercoiling

a)

Topoisomerase

b)

Exonuclease

c)

DNA Primase

d)

DNA Polymerase

109.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
110.

Operons are only found in

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

111.

Transcribes genes.

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

112.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)
RNA to DNA to protein
b)
DNA to RNA to protein
c)
protein to DNA to RNA
d)
RNA to protein to DNA
113.
What is the term for making an RNA copy of DNA?
a)
Transription
b)
Translation
c)
Folding
d)
Coding
114.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
115.

How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though they look and perform completely different?

a)

The two different cells become mutated

b)

The proteins expressed in each cell are different

c)

They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.

d)

The genome of the different cells changes

116.

In eukaryotes, DNA is tightly coiled around ____ in chromatin

a)

Histones

b)

Whey

c)

Casein

d)

Hemoglobin

117.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
118.

In eukaryotic cells, transcription cannot begin until

a)

the two DNA strands have completely separated and exposed the promoter.

b)

transcription factors have bound to the promoter.

c)

the 5' caps are removed from the mRNA.

d)

the DNA introns are removed from the template.

119.
Which of the follwoing best describes the significance of the TATA box in eukaryotic promoters?
a)
it is the recognition site for a specific transcription factor
b)
it sets the reading frame of the mRNA
c)
it is the recognition site for ribosomal binding
d)
it signals the end of the nucleotide sequence of the gene
120.
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?
a)
5' to 3' 
b)
3' to 5' along the template strand
c)
3' to 5' along nontemplate(coding) strand
d)
5' to 3' along the template strand
121.
A chemical modification of DNA that does not affect the nucleotide sequence of a gene but makes that gene less likely to be expressed.
a)
methylation
b)
acetylation
c)
transcription
d)
translation
122.
Which of the following is an example of post-transcriptional control of gene expression?
a)
the addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA
b)
the binding of transcription factors to a promoter
c)
the removal of introns and splicing together of exons
d)
gene amplification contributing to cancer
123.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
124.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
125.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
126.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
127.
Which of the following events in translation is the first to occur in eukaryotes?
a)
elongation of the polypeptide
b)
base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c)
binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d)
the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5'cap
128.
What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?
a)
it must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER
b)
its signal sequence must target it to the ER, after which it goes to the Golgi
c)
Its signal sequence must be cleaved off
d)
Its signal sequence must target it to the plasma membrane
129.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
130.
Translation occurs:
a)
Outside of the Nucleus
b)
Inside of the Nucleus
131.
Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation? 
a)
A copy of chromosomal DNA is created 
b)
Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein 
c)
A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
d)
Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm 
132.

What is the correct description of eukaryotic chromosomes?

a)

many linear pieces of DNA in the cytoplasm

b)

many linear pieces of DNA in the nucleus

c)

one circular piece of DNA in the cytoplasm

d)

many circular pieces of DNA in the nucleus

133.
The anticodon is located on 
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
rRNA
134.

Group of structural and regulating genes that function as a single unit.

a)

operon

b)

promoter

c)

activator

d)

inducer

135.

In an operon, a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase binds prior to transcription.

a)

operator

b)

promoter

c)

initiator

d)

repressor

136.

In an operon, the sequence of DNA that serves as a binding site for a repressor, and thereby regulates the expression of structural genes.

a)

promoter

b)

inducer

c)

operator

d)

repressor

137.

In an operon, protein molecule that binds to an operator, preventing transcription of structural genes.

a)

operator

b)

inducer

c)

promoter

d)

repressor

138.

Gene that codes for an enzyme in a metabolic pathway.

a)

regulator gene

b)

structural gene

c)

operon

d)

intron

139.

In an operon, a gene that codes for a protein that regulates the expression of other genes.

a)

structural gene

b)

regulator gene

c)

intron

d)

exon

140.

Operon that is normally active because the repressor is normally inactive.

a)

Intron

b)

Exon

c)

repressible operon

d)

expressible operon

141.

Molecule that binds to a repressor, allowing the repressor to bind to an operator in a repressible operon.

a)

inducer

b)

corepressor

c)

intron

d)

exon

142.

Molecule that brings about activity of an operon by joining with a repressor and preventing it from binding with the operator.

a)

promoter

b)

operator

c)

inducer

d)

intron

143.

In a catabolic pathway, an operon causes transcription of the genes controlling a group of enzymes.

a)

inducible operon

b)

repressible operon

c)

intron

d)

exon

144.

An inheritance pattern in which a nuclear gene has been modified but the changed expression of the gene is not permanent over many generations.

a)

dominance

b)

recessiveness

c)

polygenic

d)

epigenetic inheritance

145.

In eukaryotes , protein required for the initiation of transcription by RNA polymerase.

a)

promoter

b)

transcription activator

c)

transcription factors

146.

Altered gene whose sequence of bases differs from the previous sequence.

a)

exon

b)

intron

c)

mutation

d)

transcription error

147.

Mutation that arises as a result of anomalies in normal biological processes, such as mistakes made during DNA replication.

a)

Induced mutation

b)

spontaneous mutation

148.

Environmental agent that causes mutations leading to the development of cancer.

a)

carcinogens

b)

activators

c)

mutagens

149.

Change of one base only in the sequence of bases in a gene.

a)

substitution

b)

point mutation

c)

frameshift mutation

d)

deletion

150.

Insertion or deletion of at least one base so that the reading frame of the corresponding mRNA changes.

a)

substitution

b)

point mutation

c)

deletion

d)

frameshift mutation

151.
In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria & mice, Griffith found that 
a)
the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells.
b)
heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.
c)
some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.
d)
the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia.
152.
The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis 
a)
progresses away from the replication fork.
b)
occurs in the 3' to 5' direction.
c)
produces Okazaki fragments
d)
depends on the action of DNA polymerase
153.
E. coli cells grown on N-15 medium are transferred to N-14 medium and allowed to grow for 2 more generations.  DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged.  What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?
a)
one high-density and one low-density band
b)
One intermediate-density band
c)
one high-density and one intermediate-density band
d)
one low-density and one intermediate-density band
154.
Which of the following mutations would be MOST likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?
a)
a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene.
b)
a single nucleotide deletion in the middle of an intron.
c)
a single nucleotide deletion near the end of a coding sequence.
d)
a single nucleotide insertion downstream of, and close to, the start of the coding sequence.
155.
What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?
a)
DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides to the 3' end of the preexisting strand.
b)
Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
c)
The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
d)
DNA ligase works only in the 3' to 5' direction
156.
Seals the Okazaki fragments together
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
ligase
c)
helicase
d)
primase
157.

How do the leading and the lagging strands differ?

a)

The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

b)

The leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand.

c)

The leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized continuously.

d)

The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5? end.

158.
Which enzyme is needed to start DNA replication?
a)
DNA Polymerase
b)
Topoisomerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
159.
What is meant by the description "antiparallel" regarding the strands that make up DNA?
a)
The twisting nature of DNA creates nonparallel strands.
b)
One strand is positively charged and the other is negatively charged.
c)
The 5' to 3' direction of one strand runs counter to the 5' to 3' direction of the other strand.
d)
Base pairings create unequal spacing between the two DNA strands
160.
What is meant that DNA replication follows a “semi-conservative” model?
a)
After DNA replication, each strand contains one side that is a parental strand and the other side is a daughter strand.
b)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains only parental DNA while the other contains only daughter DNA.
c)
None of these identify the “semi-conservative” model.
d)
After DNA replication, one completed strand contains a mixture of both parental DNA and daughter DNA dispersed throughout the strand.
161.
Suppose a double-stranded DNA molecule was shown to have 15% adenine bases. What would be the expected percentage of guanine bases in that molecule?
a)
15%
b)
35%
c)
85%
d)
Not enough information
162.

Which process is responsible for the removal of introns and joining of exons in a pre-mRNA molecule?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

RNA processing

d)

DNA replication

163.

What is the role of ribosomes in protein synthesis?

a)

They replicate DNA.

b)

They synthesize lipids.

c)

They modify proteins.

d)

They facilitate the assembly of amino acids into protein chains.

164.

Which of the following best describes the function of messenger RNA (mRNA) in the cell?

a)

Carries amino acids to the ribosome

b)

Forms the structure of ribosomes

c)

Transfers genetic information from DNA to the ribosome

d)

Acts as a catalyst in biochemical reactions

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