Free Printable Anatomy Semester 1 Final Review

1.

The neurotransmitter released by nerve cells to cause muscle contraction is

a)

acetylcholinesterase

b)

polymerase

c)

acetylcholine

d)

ATPase

2.

An involuntary “muscle contraction” of muscles that are normally under voluntary control is known as

a)

Tic

b)

Twitch

c)

Spasm

d)

Cramp

3.

The contractile unit of muscle which contains thick and thin filaments is called a

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Sarcolema

c)

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Sarcoplasm

4.

During anaerobic respiration, muscles “burn” due to

a)

Lactic Acid

b)

Thermogenesis

c)

ATP production

d)

Friction

5.

What ions are released from the SR to cause a muscle to contract?

a)

Sodium

b)

Calcium

c)

Potassium

d)

Fluorine

6.

Which connective tissue surrounds the bundles (fascicles) of 10-100 muscle cells

a)

Epimysium

b)

Perimysium

c)

Endomysium

d)

Superficial fascia

7.

After an action potential runs across the sarcolemma it will then travel down the

a)

Sarcoplasm

b)

T-Tubule

c)

Actin

d)

Sarcoplasmic Reticulum

8.

The thin filament is made up of the following protein(s):

a)

Troponin, Actin & Myosin

b)

Troponin, Actin & Titin

c)

Troponin, Actin & Tropomyosin

d)

Myosin

9.

What separates each Sarcomere?

a)

Z-Discs

b)

H-zone

c)

M-Line

d)

I band

10.

What is the 3rd step in the contraction cycle?

a)

myosin and actin detach

b)

power stroke

c)

ATP hydrolysis

d)

cross-bridge formation

11.

What is the 1st step in the contraction cycle?

a)

myosin and actin detach

b)

power stroke

c)

ATP hydrolysis

d)

cross-bridge formation

12.

What is the 4th step in the contraction cycle?

a)

myosin and actin detach

b)

power stroke

c)

ATP hydrolysis

d)

cross-bridge formation

13.

What is the 2nd step in the contraction cycle?

a)

myosin and actin detach

b)

power stroke

c)

ATP hydrolysis

d)

cross-bridge formation

14.

Which of these is a cause for rigor mortis?

a)

Decrease in Ca+2 levels

b)

ACh overproduction

c)

Crossbridges cannot detach from actin

d)

Acetylcholinesterase breaking down Ach

15.

What is the muscle cell membrane called?

a)

sarcoplasm

b)

sarcolemma

c)

sarcomere

d)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

16.

What is a power stroke?

a)

Myosin heads attach to actin and pull

b)

ATP binds to myosin head, and detaches from actin

c)

Muscle action potential decreases

d)

Muscular rigidity that begins 3-4 hours after death

17.

Anabolic Steroids have what negative effect on males?

a)

Mutated genes

b)

Slowing of reflexes

c)

Facial hair and voice deepening

d)

Atrophy of testicles and baldness

18.

Muscle growth is a result of

a)

cell division

b)

cellular enlargement

c)

Both

d)

Neither

19.

Which of the following are structural proteins (choose all that apply)

a)

myosin

b)

titin

c)

actin

d)

nebulin

20.

Which of the following are regulatory proteins

a)

myosin

b)

titin

c)

troponin

d)

myomesin

21.

Botulinum toxin is

a)

keeps contractions from occurring

b)

can be found in improperly canned food

c)

both

d)

neither

22.

Muscle fatigue is cause by

a)

insufficient glycogen

b)

buildup of lactic acid

c)

Insufficient release of Ach

d)

All of the above

23.

When a muscle shortens to produce force and movement

a)

A. Isotonic contraction

b)

B. Eccentric contraction

c)

C. Concentric contraction

d)

D. Both A and B

e)

E. Both A and C

24.

When a muscle lengthens while maintaining force and movement

a)

A. Isotonic contraction

b)

B. Eccentric contraction

c)

C. Concentric contraction

d)

D. Both A and B

e)

E. Both A and C

25.

Striated, involuntary, and autorhythmic describes which type of muscle

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

26.

Which of the following is/are involuntary?

a)

A. Skeletal

b)

B. Cardiac

c)

C. Smooth

d)

D. A and B

e)

E. B and C

27.

Which of the following is/are voluntary?

a)

A. Skeletal

b)

B. Cardiac

c)

C. Smooth

d)

D. A and B

e)

E. B and C

28.

The ability to be stretched without damaging the tissue

a)

Excitability

b)

Conductivity

c)

Contractility

d)

Extensibility

e)

Elasticity

29.

The ability to shorten and generate force

a)

Excitability

b)

Elasticity

c)

Extensibility

d)

Conductivity

e)

Contractility

30.

The functions of muscle tissue (choose all that apply)

a)

produce body movement

b)

stabilize body positions

c)

regulate organ volumes

d)

produce heat

e)

produce hormones

31.

Sarcoplasmic hypertrophy

a)

Leads to large, functional muscle

b)

Leads to small, functional muscle

c)

Leads to large, non-functional muscle

d)

Leads to small, non-functional muscle

32.

Myofibrillar hypertrophy

a)

Leads to large, functional muscle

b)

Leads to small, functional muscle

c)

Leads to large, non-functional muscle

d)

Leads to small, non-functional muscle

33.

Characteristics of Exercise Induced Muscle Damage include

a)

A. torn sarcoplasm

b)

B. damaged myofibrils

c)

C. disrupted z discs

d)

D. A and B

e)

E. B and C

34.

Which band contains only thin filaments?

a)

A band

b)

I band

c)

Z discs

d)

H zone

35.

If working out for more than 30 seconds, the main source of ATP will be

a)

Creatine Phosphate

b)

Anaerobic Cell Respiration

c)

Aerobic Cell Respiration

36.

The source(s) of oxygen in the muscle is/are:

a)

A. myoglobin

b)

B. blood stream

c)

C. aerobic cell respiration

d)

d. A and B

e)

E. B and C

37.

A painful, involuntary contraction of a single muscle

a)

tremor

b)

tic

c)

muscle tone

d)

spasm

e)

cramp

38.

Rhythmic, involuntary contraction of opposing muscle groups

a)

tremor

b)

tic

c)

muscle tone

d)

cramp

39.

Involuntary twitching of muscles normally under voluntary control

a)

tremor

b)

tic

c)

muscle tone

d)

spasm

e)

cramp

40.

The following are major steps in the process of Endochondral Ossification

1. Blood vessels invade the perichondrium.

2. 2⁰ ossification center form & epiphysis fill with spongy bone

3. Chondrocytes enlarge and matrix begins to calcify.

4. Osteoblasts form spongy bone within the center shaft at the primary ossification center.

5. Osteoclasts break down some spongy bone to create a marrow cavity.

The correct order for the above events is

a)

1, 3, 5, 4, 2

b)

3, 1, 5, 4, 2

c)

3, 1, 4, 5, 2

d)

2, 3, 1, 5, 4

e)

1, 5, 3, 4, 2

41.

The vertebral column contains __________ cervical vertebrae.

a)

4

b)

5

c)

7

d)

12

42.

Mature bone cells are termed

a)

chondrocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteons

d)

osteocytes

e)

osteoclasts

43.

Exaggerated lumbar curvature of the spine…

a)

Lordosis

b)

Kyphosis

c)

Scoliosis

d)

Lumbardosis

44.

A childhood disorder involving the softening and weakening of bones…

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Rickets

c)

Gout

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

45.

An autoimmune disease where the immune system attacks its own joints often leading to deformities…

a)

Osteoporosis

b)

Rickets

c)

Gout

d)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

46.

Location(s) of apocrine glands

a)

on hair follicles

b)

ears

c)

pubic/axillary hair follicle

d)

arms/legs/face

47.

Function(s) of sebaceous glands

a)

oil secretions

b)

sweat

c)

protection

48.

Function(s) of eccrine glands

a)

oil secretions

b)

sweat

c)

protection

49.

Locations(s) of ceruminous glands

a)

on hair follicles

b)

ears

c)

arm pit

d)

arms/legs

50.

Describe what degree of burn corresponds to: Nerves are destroyed

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree

c)

3rd degree

51.

Describe what degree of burn corresponds to: severe pain

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree

c)

3rd degree

52.

Describe what degree of burn corresponds to: grafting is necessary

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree

c)

3rd degree

53.

Describe what degree of burn corresponds to: no pain

a)

1st degree

b)

2nd degree

c)

3rd degree

54.

Which protein waterproofs the hair?

a)

Collagen

b)

Elastin

c)

Keratin

d)

Carotene

55.

The structure partly responsible for “goosebumps” is known as the …

a)

Sebaceous Gland

b)

Arrector Pili muscle

c)

Cappilary

d)

Collagen

56.

Skin color is due to

a)

Keratin, Melanin

b)

Carotene, Melanin, and Hemoglobin

c)

Melanin, Carotene

d)

Keratin, Melanin , and Hemoglobin

57.

What occurs in the: Proliferative Phase

a)

Clotting

b)

Tissue formation complete

c)

Formation of scar tissue by fibroblasts

d)

White blood cells arrive

e)

Scab falls off

58.

What occurs in the Maturation Phase

a)

Clotting

b)

Tissue formation complete

c)

Formation of scar tissue by fibroblasts

d)

White blood cells arrive

e)

Scab falls off

59.

What occurs in the Inflammatory Phase

a)

Clotting

b)

Tissue formation complete

c)

Regrowth of epithelial cells

d)

White blood cells arrive

e)

Scab falls off

60.

What occurs in the Migratory Phase

a)

Regrowth of epithelial cells

b)

Formation of scar tissue by fibroblasts

c)

Clotting

d)

Scab falls off

61.

A type of intercellular connection in which the outermost portions of the two cell membranes have a tight seal

together is termed a(n)

a)

tight junction

b)

gap junction

c)

intermediate junction

d)

desmosome

e)

none of the above

62.

Functions of connective tissue include

a)

establishing a structural framework for the body

b)

transporting fluids and dissolved materials.

c)

providing protection for delicate organs

d)

storing energy reserves

e)

all of the above

63.

The neuron is made up of all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

cell body

b)

dendrites

c)

a synapse

d)

an axon

e)

nucleus

64.

Ligaments attach

a)

Muscle to Bone

b)

Muscle to Muscle

c)

Bone to Bone

d)

Tendons to Muscle

65.

Examples of fibrous connective tissue include

a)

tendons

b)

ligaments

c)

salivary glands

d)

respiratory passages

66.

Which of the following is the correct order of Tissue Repair

a)

Organization restores blood supply, Inflammation & clotting and Regeneration and fibrosis effect permanent repair

b)

Regeneration and fibrosis effect permanent repair, Inflammation & clotting, & Organization restores blood supply

c)

Inflammation & clotting, Organization restores blood supply & Regeneration and fibrosis effect permanent repair

d)

Inflammation & clotting, Regeneration and fibrosis effect permanent repair & Organization restores blood supply

67.

Which of the following is a type of secretion in which some cytoplasm is lost with the product & is found in the mammary glands?

a)

holocrine

b)

merocrine

c)

apocrine

d)

mucous

68.

The study of tissue is called

a)

Exocrine

b)

Neurons

c)

Pathologist

d)

Histology

69.

Secretions onto body surfaces are characteristic of __________ glands

a)

exocrine

b)

endoderm

c)

matrix

d)

neurons

70.

Unspecialized epithelial cells which act as a source for mitosis are called __________ cells

a)

matrix

b)

endoderm

c)

stem

d)

neurons

71.

The combination of fibers and ground substance in supporting connective tissues is known as

a)

neruons

b)

matrix

c)

endoderm

d)

mesoderm

72.

__________ are cells that are modified to transmit signals from one place to another

a)

matrix

b)

neurons

c)

exocrine

d)

stem

73.

The ___________ is the germ layer that differentiates into the GI track, bladder & respiratory tract

a)

endoderm

b)

mesoderm

c)

stem

d)

matrix

74.

The ___________ is the germ layer that differentiates into muscle tissue & connective tissue

a)

mesoderm

b)

endoderm

c)

matrix

d)

stem

75.

A person who studies diseased tissues and performs autopsies is a(an)

a)

histology

b)

pathologist

c)

endocrinologist

d)

stem

76.

Proximal:

a)

Antecubital

b)

Carpal

77.

Toe Nails

b)

Calcaneal

78.

Lateral :

a)

Coxal

b)

Umbilical

79.

Superior:

a)

Mental

b)

Nasal

80.

Distal:

a)

Tarsal

b)

Patellar

81.

The ______ plane divides anterior & posterior

a)

Sagittal

b)

Midsaggital

c)

Transverse

d)

Coronal

82.

The ______ plane divides superior & inferior

a)

Sagittal

b)

Midsaggital

c)

Transverse

d)

Coronal

83.

The _____ plane divides the body = right & left

a)

Sagittal

b)

Midsaggital

c)

Transverse

d)

Coronal

84.

Gastrocnemius

a)

A

b)

BD

c)

AD

d)

E

85.

biceps brachaii

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

sartorius

a)

AB

b)

BC

c)

AD

d)

BE

87.

rectus abdominus

a)

BE

b)

BD

c)

BC

d)

AE

88.

vastus medialis

a)

AB

b)

AC

c)

AD

d)

AE

89.

rectus femoris

a)

A

b)

BD

c)

AC

d)

AB

90.

pectoralis major

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

91.

anterior deltoid

a)

AB

b)

BE

c)

D

d)

BD

92.

External Oblique

a)

A

b)

BD

c)

E

d)

C

93.

vastus lateralis

a)

AC

b)

E

c)

AB

d)

BC

94.

gastrocnemius

a)

AE

b)

AB

c)

AC

d)

AD

95.

soleus

a)

A

b)

B

c)

c

d)

D

96.

gluteus maximus

a)

AD

b)

AC

c)

AB

d)

AE

97.

triceps brachaii

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

98.

trapezius

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

99.

gluteus medius

a)

AD

b)

AC

c)

AB

d)

AE

100.

deltoid

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

101.

infraspinatus

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

e

102.

latissimus dorsi

a)

a

b)

ab

c)

ac

d)

ad

103.

Cartilaginous joints include

a)

a

b)

b

c)

d

d)

ab

104.

synovial joints include

a)

ab

b)

c

c)

ad

d)

ac

105.

fibrous joints include

a)

e

b)

ac

c)

ab

d)

ad

Anatomy Semester 1 Final Review

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 56mins

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