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CMA urinary testing

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The student presented at her doctor’s office with complaints of dysuria, urinary frequency, and lower abdominal discomfort. Upon examination, the doctor discovered that the student’s hygiene was inadequate. Which organism most likely caused the student’s symptoms?

a)

E. coli

b)

Clostridium difficile

c)

Staphylococcus

d)

Streptococcus

2.

The Bowman's capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, and loop of Henle are all parts of a:

a)

bladder

b)

nephron

c)

pelvis

d)

ureter

3.

Which structure is a hollow muscular sac?

a)

Bladder

b)

kidney

c)

ureter

d)

urethra

4.

The functional unit of the kidney is the:

a)

aldosterone

b)

bladder

c)

nephron

d)

renin

5.

The medical term for excessive urination is:

a)

incontinence

b)

nocturia

c)

oliguria

d)

polyuria

6.

Urine leaves the kidney by way of the:

a)

nephron

b)

urethra

c)

ureter

d)

bladder

7.

The patient in chronic renal failure is treated with hemodialysis. What renal function does hemodialysis replace?

a)

filtration

b)

hormone control

c)

nervous system

d)

peristalsis

8.

Dehydration has a direct effect on

urine formation. The proximal convoluted tubules are responsible for

correcting the water imbalance found with dehydration. What is this process

called?

a)

diffusion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

9.

Mr. Burns had a stroke and has been urinating involuntarily. What is this condition called?

a)

cystitis

b)

glomerulonephritis

c)

incontinence

d)

pyuria

10.

Jeremy is on the cross country team at school. He notices that after practice his urine is dark amber-colored and he is voiding very small amounts. Jeremy is experiencing:

a)

cystitis

b)

dehydration

c)

enuresis

d)

polyuria

11.

Jack takes his blood pressure medicine every morning. After taking his medicine, he experiences urinary frequency. What type of blood pressure medicine is Jack taking?

a)

ADH

b)

Antibiotic

c)

Diuretic

d)

Renin

12.

Jessica is experiencing hematuria. Which process of urine formation has been ineffective?

a)

Reabsorption

b)

Secretion

c)

Excretion

d)

Filtration

13.

Excessive substances in urinary

filtrate, such as sodium and potassium, lead to their elimination. Which

process of elimination is this urinary system function?

a)

diffusion

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

14.

Mr. Gavin has had polyuria for several weeks. When he went to the doctor, his urinalysis was normal. Further studies revealed that Mr. Gavin had a disorder that affected the release of ADH. Which function of the urinary system was affected?

a)

elmination

b)

filtration

c)

reabsorption

d)

secretion

15.

The patient sustained an electric shock when he accidentally touched live wires while cleaning up the yard following a severe storm. The shock affected his urinary function and resulted in oliguria and uremia. How will the patient’s symptoms be treated if he develops anuria?

a)

antibiotics

b)

catheterization

c)

hemodialysis

d)

lithotripsy

16.

Dialysis involves the use of a device that rids the blood of harmful wastes by passing the blood through:

a)

a biological sponge

b)

a semipermeable membrane

c)

an electrolyte gel

d)

chemcial neutralizer in a filter system

17.

If kidney stones get too large, they can cause severe flank pain and hydronephrosis because they block the:

a)

bladder

b)

nephron

c)

ureter

d)

urethra

18.

What is the term for a mid-stream urine collection test?

a)

Mid catch

b)

Clean catch

c)

Clean stream

d)

Urinalysis

19.

A guaiac or hemoccult test is used for which type of specimen?

a)

Urine

b)

Blood

c)

Stool

d)

Sputum

20.

An infection acquired while in the hospital is called:

a)

Nosocomial

b)

Nosocort

c)

Staph.

d)

HIPAA

21.

A hemoglobin A1C tests the glucose dating back:

a)

3 weeks

b)

3 days

c)

3 months

d)

3 hours

22.

A sputum specimen should be collected:

a)

Late at night

b)

Early in the morning

c)

Early in the afternoon

d)

Prior to eating

23.

It is acceptable to store patient specimens in the same refrigerator as patient food, as long as it's properly labeled.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

The following are enemies of specimen collection EXCEPT:

a)

Time

b)

Dessication (Drying out)

c)

Temperature

d)

Transportation

25.

All specimens must be transported in a ____________:

a)

Yellow caution bag

b)

Red bag

c)

Red bag with biohazard label on it

d)

any bag is ok

26.

A C&S test means:

a)

Culture and Sensitivity

b)

Culture and Swab

c)

Complete and Sensitivity

27.

What test would we order in order to know which antibiotic would kill the identified bacteria?

a)

Stool culture

b)

C & S

c)

Hemoccult

28.
if a serum sample isn't separated from the formed elements within 2 hours from the time of collection, which of the following may occur?
a)
the specimen will show a false lowered glucose and a falsely elevated potassium
b)
the specimen will show a falsely elevated glucose and a falsely lowered potassium
c)
the specimen will show a falsely lowered glucose and a falsely lowered potassium
d)
the specimen will show a falsely elevated glucose and a falsely elevated potassium
29.
The nurse delivers an ammonia level to the laboratory that was drawn by the physician 45 minutes ago. the phlebotomist should
a)
put the specimen in an ice slurry and deliver to chemistry for immediate testing
b)
reject the specimen because it must be kept on a slurry of ice and delivered immediately to the lab
c)
accept the specimen as is and deliver to chemistry for immediate testing
d)
tell the nurse to check the nursing station's lab manual for specimen requirements
30.
The phlebotomist is centrifuging and processing the samples collected in the morning sweep. which of the following tubes does not require the serum to be transferred to another labeled tube within 2 hours to avoid falsely increased or decreased lab values? 
a)
sodium citrate tube
b)
EDTA tube
c)
serum separator tube
d)
plain red top tube
31.
Which of the following tests may be altered if the specimen is allowed to remain open to the air and evaporation occurs?
a)
ABGs
b)
alcohol
c)
ammonia
d)
all of the above
32.
The phlebotomist is responsible for controlling variables that occur at the preanalytical stage so that samples of the highest integrity are presented for testing. which of the following conditions can degrade the sample quality?
a)
balancing of specimens during centrifugation
b)
fluctuations in temp. while in cold storage
c)
diurnal variation of the analyte being tested
d)
12 hourbasal fasting state
33.
In general any factor that can be measured or counted that affects the outcome of results and therefore patient care is known as
a)
variable
b)
preanalytical factor
c)
postanalytical factor
d)
delta check
34.
Which of the following does not affect the patients perception of the phlebotomist?
a)
professionalism in appearance and action
b)
certification as a phlebotomist
c)
skill in performing venipuncture
d)
all of the above affect patient perception
35.
the patient just informs the phlebotomist that their coming from their early morning workout at the gym. the phlebotomist checks the requisition to see if there are any tests that may be affected by exercise. which of the following test results may not be affected by short term exercise?
a)
creatine kinase
b)
white blood cells
c)
sex hormones
d)
fatty acids
36.
When should the phlebotomist wash his or her hands?
a)
when entering patients room
b)
when leaving patients room
c)
when entering and leaving patients room
d)
when all patients have been drawn on each floor
37.

Which of the following assists the physician in making a diagnosis?

a)

Health history

b)

Physical examination

c)

Laboratory tests

d)

Diagnostic tests

e)

All of the above

38.

What temperature is usually required for storing testing materials and performing laboratory tests?

a)

Body temperature

b)

Room temperature

c)

A very cold temperature

d)

A temperature between 100° F and 104° F

39.

Which of the following is not found in a laboratory directory?

a)

Names and CPT codes of the tests performed by the laboratory

b)

Patient preparation required for laboratory tests

c)

Amount and type of specimen required by the laboratory

d)

Instructions for testing specimens

e)

Handling and storage of laboratory specimens

40.

The purpose of patient preparation for a laboratory test is to

a)

reduce patient discomfort during specimen collection.

b)

provide a specimen that yields accurate test results.

c)

ensure that the test results fall within the normal range.

d)

ensure that the patient receives the proper treatment.

41.

A patient who is fasting (in preparation for a laboratory test) is allowed to consume

a)

baked chicken

b)

water

c)

diet soda

d)

orange juice

e)

none of the above

42.

What is the term for a substance that is being identified or measured in a laboratory test?

a)

Standard

b)

Analyte

c)

Calibration

d)

Control

43.

All of the following are an example of a CLIA-waived test except

a)

fecal occult blood testing.

b)

urine pregnancy testing.

c)

blood glucose determination.

d)

microscopic analysis of urine sediment.

44.

Which of the following is a violation of laboratory safety precautions?

a)

Disposing of broken glassware in a puncture-resistant container

b)

Talking in the laboratory

c)

Opening a centrifuge before it comes to a complete stop

d)

Recapping reagent bottles immediately after use

45.

What is the term for a test result that indicates whether a substance is present in the specimen being tested and provides an approximate indication of the amount of the substance present?

a)

Quantitative test result

b)

Positive test result

c)

Negative test result

d)

Qualitative test result

46.

The study of blood and the blood-forming tissues is known as

a)

hematology

b)

immunology and blood banking

c)

clinical chemistry

d)

cytology

e)

histology

47.

Detection of abnormal cells is known as

a)

hematology

b)

immunology and blood banking

c)

clinical chemistry

d)

cytology

e)

histology

48.

Which of the following laboratory tests requires fasting?

a)

OGTT

b)

Comprehensive metabolic profile

c)

Triglycerides

d)

All of the above

49.

Antibiotics taken by the patient before the collection of a throat specimen for culture may result in

a)

a false-negative report.

b)

overgrowth of the specimen with extraneous microorganisms.

c)

a false-positive report.

d)

an allergic reaction.

50.

Inflammation of the bladder:

a)

Hydronephrosis

b)

Acute glomerulonephritis

c)

Renal colic

d)

Cystitis

51.

Urine backs up into the kidneys causing swelling of the renal pelvis and calyces:

a)

Hydronephrosis

b)

Pyelonephritis

c)

Overflow incontinence

d)

Acute glomerulonephritis

52.

An abrupt reduction in kidney function:

a)

Chronic renal failure

b)

Acute renal failure

c)

Proteinuria

53.

Scanty urine production:

a)

Urgency

b)

Oliguria

c)

Sterility

d)

Fistula

54.

Radiograph that shows the size, shape, and location of the kidneys:

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

KUB

d)

CXRAY

55.

Most effective form of male contraception:

a)

Circumcision

b)

Vasectomy

c)

Orchidectomy

d)

ESWL

56.

Visual exam of the urinary bladder:

a)

Laparoscopy

b)

Cystoscopy

c)

Hysteroscopy

d)

Hysterectomy

57.

Need to void immediately:

a)

Incontinence

b)

Urgency

c)

Azotemia

d)

Anorchism

58.

Kidney:

a)

Cyst/o

b)

Nephr/o, ren/o

c)

lith/o

d)

vesic/o

59.

This type of medication helps promote and increase the excretion of urine:

a)

Antispasmodic

b)

Diuretics

c)

Androgen

60.

Lith/o

a)

bladder

b)

kidney

c)

stone

61.

Abnormal passage from a hollow organ to the surface or from one organ to another:

a)

Enuresis

b)

Fistula

c)

Dysuria

d)

Hesitancy

62.

Absence of urine production:

a)

Dysuria

b)

Anuria

c)

Azotemia

d)

Bladder neck obstruction

63.

The kidneys can have a direct affect on blood pressure.

a)

True

b)

False

64.
It is the goal of which agency to ensure that employers provide safe work environments for employees?
a)
Joint Commission
b)
HIPAA
c)
OSHA
d)
CLIA
65.
Which of the following is a suffix?
a)
-rrhea
b)
pre-
c)
cardi/o
d)
hyper-
66.
involuntary discharge of urine
a)
anuria
b)
nocturia
c)
diuresis
d)
enuresis
67.
absence of urine formation
a)
anuria
b)
nocturia
c)
diuresis
d)
enuresis
68.
inflammation of the urethra
a)
ureteritis
b)
urethritis
c)
ureteroplasty
d)
urethrosis
69.
increased urine output
a)
anuria
b)
nocturia
c)
diuresis
d)
enuresis
70.
increased urine output
a)
anuria
b)
nocturia
c)
diuresis
d)
enuresis
71.
Urine is really just waste that comes out of our: 
a)
blood
b)
GI tract
c)
stool
d)
serous fluid
72.
All of the following are key organs in the urinary system except: 
a)
kidney
b)
bladder
c)
urethra
d)
appendix
73.

How is the female urethra different from the male urethra?

a)

It is longer

b)

It is wider

c)

It is shorter

d)

It is more narrow

74.

What structure in the kidneys filters the blood?

a)

Ureters

b)

Nephrons

c)

Bladder

d)

Urethra

75.

What is 95% of urine composition?

a)

Water

b)

Acids

c)

Urea

d)

Hormones

76.

UTIs are most common in

a)

men

b)

women

77.

What does a KUB help identify?

a)

UTI

b)

Nephrolithiasis

c)

ESRD

d)

UA

78.

What is another word for stone?

a)

Calculus

b)

Geometry

c)

Algebra

d)

Calcium

79.
A CMA is instructing a patient of the collection of a clean-catch urine.  What instructions should the CMA give patient?
a)
Void into clean container then transfer to sterile container
b)
void into sterile container directly after cleaning the perineum
c)
void into a container from home and bring into the office
d)
void a small amount of urine into the toilet then void the next portion in a sterile container
80.
A CMA is instructing a pt about collecting stool for a fecal occult test.  Which statement should the CMA make about the pt's medications?
a)
Discontinue all medications 72 hours before test
b)
take all your current medications as prescribed
c)
discontinue any NSAIDs a week before the test
d)
Take 500 mg of Vitamin C supplement daily.
81.
A CMA is preparing to perform a rapid strep test.  Which of the following should actions should the medical assistant take?
a)
Bring the reagents and devices to room temperature
b)
Leave the swab in the solution for 5 minutes.
c)
Express the liquid from the swab with gloved fingers
d)
Place the tip of the reagent bottle into the tube before dispensing.
82.
A medical assistant reviews the results of a urine pregnancy test and sees that a line did not appear in the control area.  This indicates what?
a)
The pregnancy test is positive
b)
The pregnancy test is not valid
c)
The pregnancy test specimen is not concentrated
d)
The pregnancy test is negative

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