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Chemistry Exam Review

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 2hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is true for all chemical reactions?

a)

The total mass of the reactants increases.

b)

The total mass of the products is greater than the mass of the reactants.

c)

The total mass of the products is less than the total mass of the reactants.

d)

The total mass of the reactants equals the total mass of the products.

2.

According to the law of conservation of mass, mass is neither created nor destroyed during a chemical reaction. On the basis of this law, what mass of water was produced in this reaction?

a)

76.5 g

b)

18.0 g

c)

3.50 g

d)

22.0 g

3.

Which of the following is a chemical property?

a)

Boils at 56ºC

b)

Soluble in water

c)

Has a density of 2.9 g/cm³

d)

Reacts with acid to produce hydrogen gas

4.

Which of the following changes is a physical change of matter?

a)

water evaporating

b)

paper burning

c)

a nail rusting

d)

an egg frying

5.

Which of the following changes is a chemical change of matter?

a)

ice melting to form water

b)

vinegar combining with baking soda to produce carbon dioxide

c)

water boiling to form water vapor

d)

liquid silica solidifying to form glass

6.

A physical blend of two or more components, or parts is known as a(n):

a)

element

b)

compound

c)

mixture

d)

allotrope

7.

Which statement best describes an element?

a)

any combination of two or more atoms of different types

b)

a pure substance made up of only one kind of atom

c)

a substance containing only carbon atoms

d)

any kind of crystal

8.

Which of the following is NOT a physical property of water?

a)

Ice melts at 0°C.

b)

Water boils at 100°C.

c)

Water reacts violently with pure sodium.

d)

Water is a liquid at room temperature.

9.

Which of these measurements has been expressed to three significant figures?

a)

0.052 g

b)

0.202 g

c)

3.065 g

d)

500 g

10.

The diameter of a carbon atom is 0.000 000 000 154 m. What is this number expressed in scientific notation?

a)

1.54 x 10¹² m

b)

1.54 x 10⁻¹² m

c)

1.54 x 10¹⁰ m

d)

1.54 x 10⁻¹⁰ m

11.

The number 3440 converted to scientific notation:

a)

344

b)

3.44 x 10³

c)

3.44 x 10⁻³

d)

0.344 x 10¹

12.

How many significant figures are there in the number 0.02040?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

13.

Which of the atoms represented by these symbols are isotopes of each other?

a)

1 and 2

b)

1 and 4

c)

1,2,3,4,and 5

d)

1,3 and 5

14.

Negatively-charged subatomic particle that has negligible mass and orbits the atomic nucleus.

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

positron

15.

Positively-charged subatomic particle that has a relative mass of 1 amu and resides in the atomic nucleus.

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

positron

16.

Subatomic particle that has a relative mass of 1 amu, resides in the atomic nucleus, and is neutrally-charged.

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

positron

17.

The weighted average of all the masses of the isotopes of an element; based on relative abundance.

a)

atomic mass

b)

mass number

c)

atomic number

d)

net weight

18.

How many protons, neutron, and electrons are in the isotope barium-137 ? (ordered respectively)

a)

137, 56, 56

b)

81, 56, 137

c)

56, 81, 56

d)

56, 56, 56

19.

How many protons, neutron, and electrons (ordered respectively) are in the following ion copper(II)?

a)

29, 36, 27

b)

29, 36, 29

c)

29, 65, 36

d)

29, 36, 31

20.

How many protons, neutron, and electrons (ordered respectively) are in the following chloride ion?

a)

17, 18, 16

b)

17, 35, 18

c)

17, 18, 18

d)

35, 17, 18

21.

The quantum mechanical model of the atom best describes how:

a)

the probable location of an electron can be determined.

b)

the exact location of an electron can be pinpointed.

c)

electrons lose energy as they orbit and eventually fall into the nucleus.

d)

the exact location of the neutron can be determined.

22.

The number 4 in the quantum symbol 4p³ indicates the ____.

a)

spin of an electron

b)

shape of the orbitals in the sublevel

c)

principal energy level

d)

number of electrons in the sublevel.

23.

The superscripted number ³ in the quantum symbol 4p³ indicates the _.

a)

spin of an electron

b)

shape of the orbitals in the sublevel

c)

principal energy level

d)

number of electrons in the sublevel

24.

The letter "p" in the quantum symbol 4p³ indicates the ____.

a)

spin of the electrons

b)

shape of the orbitals in the sublevel

c)

principal energy level

d)

speed of an electron

25.

Electrons occupy orbitals of lowest energy first is part of what electron configuration rule?

a)

Hund's Rule

b)

Aufbau Principle

c)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

d)

Power Principle

26.

Which element is represented by the following electron distribution? 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s²

a)

Neon; Ne

b)

Aluminum; Al

c)

Magnesium; Mg

d)

Potassium; K

27.

What is the noble gas configuration for oxygen?

a)

[Ar] 3p⁴

b)

[He] 3s² 3p⁴

c)

[He] 2s² 2p⁴

d)

[Li] 2s² 2p⁴

28.

Which rule states that orbitals can hold a maximum of two electrons each with opposite spins?

a)

Aufbau Principle

b)

Hund's Rule

c)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

d)

Power Principle

29.

Every orbital in a sublevel is singly occupied with one electron before any one orbital is doubly occupied, and all electrons in singly occupied orbitals have the same spin.

a)

Aufbau Principle

b)

Hund's Rule

c)

Pauli Exclusion Principle

d)

Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle

30.

What happens to the energy of an electron as it moves from n=4 to n=2?

a)

energy is absorbed

b)

energy is released

c)

energy remains the same

d)

unable to determine

31.

Electrons in the ground state have...

a)

the highest possible energy

b)

a way to escape the energy level they are in

c)

the lowest possible energy

d)

better brewed flavor

32.

Which of these orbital diagrams shows the correct arrangement of the 8 electrons in a 3d sublevel of the element nickel (Ni)?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

33.

Identify the element that has the following electron orbital notation.

a)

platinum; Pt

b)

phosphorus; P

c)

lead; Pb

d)

potassium; K

34.

Which of the following shows the correct orbital diagram for carbon?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

35.

Main group of elements that make up 75% of the periodic table; shiny, malleable, ductile, dense, and good conductors of heat and electricity.

a)

metalloids

b)

nonmetals

c)

metals

d)

altoids

36.

Main group of elements that are mostly gases; solids are brittle, dull, and poor conductors of electricity.

a)

metals

b)

metalloids

c)

nonmetals

d)

altoids

37.

Name for group 2 elements; not found isolated in nature; include Ca, Ba, Sr, Mg.

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

transition metals

d)

metalloids

38.

Name for the group VII/17 elements; highly reactive salt formers; include F, Cl, Br, I.

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

noble gases

d)

halogens

39.

This person reorganized the modern Periodic Table in order of increasing atomic number.

a)

Mendeleev

b)

Moseley

c)

Heisenberg

d)

Pauli

40.

This person arranged the first Periodic Table in order of increasing atomic mass, and used this arrangement to predict properties of the missing elements.

a)

Mendeleev

b)

Moseley

c)

Heisenberg

d)

Pauli

41.

Name for group 3-12 elements; having partially-filled "d" orbitals.

a)

metalloids

b)

noble gases

c)

halogens

d)

transition metals

42.

Name for group 1 elements; not found isolated in nature; react violently with water.

a)

metalloids

b)

halogens

c)

alkaline earth metals

d)

alkali metals

43.

What charge would the ions formed from this group of atoms have?

a)

+1

b)

-1

c)

+2

d)

-2

44.

Group of elements that have properties of both metals and nonmetals; in particular, they conduct electricity at high temperatures.

a)

halogens

b)

noble gases

c)

metalloids

d)

alkali metals

45.

Which element is classified as a metal?

a)

aluminum

b)

silicon

c)

phosphorus

d)

sulfur

e)

chlorine

46.

Which element is classified as a metalloid?

a)

aluminum

b)

silicon

c)

phosphorus

d)

sulfur

e)

argon

47.

Which element has full orbitals, including a full valence shell?

a)

aluminum

b)

silicon

c)

phosphorus

d)

sulfur

e)

argon

48.

The electrons in the highest occupied energy level of an atom that are involved in the formation of chemical bonds are called:

a)

orbital electrons

b)

valence electrons

c)

Lewis electrons

d)

"s" electrons

49.

Explains the tendency for atoms to combine in such a way that each atom has eight electrons in its valence shell, giving it the same electron configuration as a noble gas.

a)

binary rule

b)

noble rule

c)

octet rule

d)

covalent rule

50.

The force of attraction binding oppositely charged ions together:

a)

ionic bond

b)

covalent bond

c)

octet rule

d)

bond magnet

51.

A bond formed between two atoms in which each atom contributes a bonding electron is called a(n)

a)

dipole

b)

ionic bond

c)

covalent bond

d)

nuclear force

52.

If the atoms that share electrons have an unequal attraction for the electrons, the bond is called:

a)

nonpolar covalent

b)

polar covalent

c)

ionic

d)

dipolar

53.

The concept that electrostatic repulsion between electron pairs surrounding an atom causes these pairs to be separated as far as possible is the foundation of:

a)

Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory

b)

the hybridization model

c)

the electron-sea model

d)

Lewis theory

54.

The empirical formula for a compound shows the symbols of the elements with subscripts indicating the:

a)

actual numbers of atoms in a molecule.

b)

number of moles of the compound in 100 g.

c)

smallest whole-number ratio of the atoms.

d)

atomic masses of each element.

55.

Covalent (Molecular) compounds are usually ____.

a)

composed of two or more transition elements

b)

composed of positive and negative ions

c)

composed of two or more nonmetallic elements

d)

exceptions to the law of definite proportions

56.

What is the overall molecular geometry and polarity of the carbon dioxide molecule, CO₂?

a)

tetrahedral, nonpolar

b)

linear, polar

c)

linear, nonpolar

d)

bent, polar

57.

The overall molecular geometry and polarity of the ammonia molecule, NH₃, is:

a)

trigonal planar, nonpolar

b)

tetrahedral, polar

c)

trigonal pyramidal, polar

d)

trigonal pyramidal, nonpolar

58.

What is the overall molecular geometry and polarity of the water molecule?

a)

tetrahedral; nonpolar

b)

linear, polar

c)

bent, polar

d)

trigonal planar, nonpolar

59.

What is the overall molecular geometry and polarity of the methane molecule, CH₄?

a)

linear, nonpolar

b)

bent, nonpolar

c)

trigonal pyramidal, polar

d)

tetrahedral, nonpolar

60.

What is the formula for zinc fluoride?

a)

ZnF

b)

ZnF₂

c)

Zn₂F

d)

Zn₂F₃

61.

What is the formula for the compound formed by calcium ions and chloride ions?

a)

CaCl

b)

Ca2Cl

c)

CaCl3

d)

CaCl2

62.

What is the formula for aluminum sulfate?

a)

AlSO₄

b)

Al₂SO₄

c)

Al₂(SO₄)₃

d)

Al(SO₄)₃

63.

What is the formula for barium hydroxide?

a)

BaOH

b)

BaOH2

c)

Ba(OH)2

d)

Ba(OH)

64.

Name the compound Ni(ClO₃)₂.

a)

nickel(II) chlorate

b)

nickel(II) chloride

c)

nickel(II) chlorite

d)

nickel(II) peroxide

65.

Name the compound SiO₂.

a)

silver oxide

b)

silicon oxide

c)

silicon dioxide

d)

monosilver dioxide

66.

Name the compound SO₃.

a)

sulfur trioxide

b)

silver trioxide

c)

selenium trioxide

d)

sodium trioxide

67.

Name the compound N₂O₃.

a)

dinitrogen oxide

b)

nitrogen trioxide

c)

nitric oxide

d)

dinitrogen trioxide

68.

Avogadro's number (6.02 x 10²³) of representative particles is equal to one ____.

a)

kilogram

b)

gram

c)

kelvin

d)

mole

69.

How many moles of silver atoms are in 1.8 x 10²⁴ atoms of silver?

a)

3.0 x 10¹ mol

b)

3.0 x 10⁻¹ mol

c)

3.0 mol

d)

1.1 x 10⁴⁴ mol

70.

How many molecules are in 2.10 moles CO₂?

a)

2.53 x 10²⁴ molecules

b)

3.49 x 10²⁴ molecules

c)

3.79 x 10⁻²⁴ molecules

d)

1.26 x 10²⁴ molecules

71.

What is the mass in grams of 5.90 moles C₈H₁₈?

a)

0.0512 g

b)

19.4 g

c)

389 g

d)

674 g

72.

What is the percent composition of oxygen in BaCrO₄?

a)

20.5%

b)

25.3%

c)

54.2%

d)

9.5%

73.

What is the empirical formula of a compound that is 40% sulfur and 60% oxygen by weight?

a)

SO

b)

SO2

c)

SO3

d)

SO4

74.

Determine the empirical formula of a compound composed of 65.2% scandium and 34.8% oxygen.

a)

ScO

b)

ScO2

c)

ScO3

d)

Sc2O3

75.

The molecular mass of a compound is 92.0 g/mol and its empirical formula is NO₂. What is the molecular formula of the compound?

a)

NO2

b)

NO

c)

NO3

d)

N2O4

76.

A chemical equation is balanced when the:

a)

coefficients of the reactants equal the coefficients of the products.

b)

same number of each kind of atom appears in the reactants and in the products.

c)

products and reactants are the same chemicals.

d)

subscripts of the reactants equal the subscripts of the products.

77.

What are the coefficients (ordered correctly) that will balance the following skeleton equation? __AlCl₃ + __Na(OH) → __Al(OH)₃ + __NaCl

a)

1, 3, 1, 3

b)

3, 1, 3, 1

c)

1, 1, 1, 3

d)

1, 3, 3, 1

78.

The following equation is an example of which type of chemical reaction? 2Fe + 3Cl₂ → 2FeCl₃

a)

combustion reaction

b)

single-replacement reaction

c)

synthesis reaction

d)

decomposition reaction

79.

What is the correct order of the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? __Cr + __Fe(NO₃)₂ → __Fe + __Cr(NO₃)₃

a)

4, 6, 6, 2

b)

2, 3, 2, 3

c)

2, 3, 3, 2

d)

1, 3, 3, 1

80.

What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below? __N₂ + __H₂ → __NH₃

a)

1, 1, 2

b)

1, 3, 3

c)

3, 1, 2

d)

1, 3, 2

81.

The following equation is an example of which type of reaction? Mg + 2HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂

a)

synthesis reaction

b)

single-replacement reaction

c)

decomposition reaction

d)

double-replacement reaction

82.

The equation 2Na₃PO₄ + 3Pb(NO₃)₂ → 6NaNO₃ + Pb₃(PO₄)₂ is an example of which type of reaction?

a)

double-replacement reaction

b)

synthesis reaction

c)

decomposition reaction

d)

single-replacement reaction

83.

In the reaction 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂, what is the ratio of moles of oxygen used to moles of CO₂ produced?

a)

1:1

b)

2:1

c)

1:2

d)

2:2

84.

How many moles of aluminum are needed to react completely with 1.2 mol of FeO? 2Al + 3FeO → 3Fe + Al₂O₃

a)

1.2 mol

b)

0.80 mol

c)

1.6 mol

d)

2.4 mol

85.

Calculate the number of moles of Al₂O₃ that are produced when 0.60 mol of FeO reacts with 0.60 mol Al in the following reaction. 2Al + 3FeO → 3Fe + Al₂O₃

a)

0.20 mol

b)

0.30 mol

c)

0.50 mol

d)

0.60 mol

86.

Iron(III) oxide is formed when iron combines with oxygen in the air. How many grams of Fe₂O₃ are formed when 16.7 g of Fe reacts completely with oxygen? 4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃

a)

12.0 g

b)

23.9 g

c)

47.8 g

d)

95.6 g

87.

The equation below shows the decomposition of lead nitrate. How many grams of oxygen are produced when 11.5 g NO₂ are also formed? 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂

a)

1.00 g

b)

2.00 g

c)

2.88 g

d)

32.0 g

88.

When two substances react to form products, the reactant which is used up first is called the ____.

a)

determining reactant

b)

limiting reactant

c)

excess reactant

d)

catalytic reactant

89.

What is the maximum number of grams of PH₃ that can be formed when 6.2 g of phosphorus reacts with 4.0 g of hydrogen to form PH₃? P₄ + 6H₂ → 4PH₃

a)

0.43 grams

b)

45 grams

c)

6.8 grams

d)

27 grams

90.

The cutest ion ever, that has a paws-itive charge.

a)

cation

b)

anion

c)

dogion

d)

nomion

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