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ANSCI II Large Practice Final Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
A beef cattle farmer using people, resources, and processes to reach a goal is:
a)
managing
b)
owning
c)
planning
d)
selling
2.
The leadership trait that gives the energy to do a job and the inspiration to encourage others is called:
a)
courage
b)
enthusiasm
c)
honesty
d)
tact
3.
Content and composition of the speech are determined:
a)
after the speech is given
b)
before the speech is given
c)
during the questioning time
d)
during the oral speech
4.
The leadership quality that causes animal science workers to be willing to proceed under difficult conditions is:
a)
courage
b)
integrity
c)
public speaking
d)
tact
5.
Placing the desires and welfare of others above oneself is a leadership quality called:
a)
enthusiasm
b)
parliamentary procedure
c)
tact
d)
unselfishness
6.

Voice, rising, secret ballot, and roll call are the four common methods of:

a)

debating motions

b)

introducing motions

c)

referring motions

d)

voting

7.

During a meeting, one tap of the gavel:

a)

calls the meeting to order

b)

calls members to stand up

c)

signifies the meeting is adjourned

d)

signifies that the members should be quiet and orderly

8.

What is the book of authority on parliamentary law?

a)

Career Development Events Handbook

b)

FFA Student Handbook

c)

Official FFA Manual

d)

Robert’s Rules of Order

9.

Various numbers of taps of the gavel have different meanings, but overall the gavel is the symbol of:

a)

authority

b)

FFA

c)

voting

d)

weakness

10.

If a member wants a small group of members to gather more information about a main motion before a vote is taken, the members, during debate on the motion, would move to:

a)

amend the motion

b)

lay the motion on the table

c)

reconsider the motion

d)

refer to a committee

11.

The type of SAE that involves operating and assuming financial risk in a business

a)

entrepreneurship

b)

placement

c)

improvement

d)

exploratory

12.

For a school-to-work employment plan to help a student, the plan must be:

a)

complex

b)

implemented

c)

signed by the principal

d)

simple

13.

After a student has evaluated his/her own interests and has narrowed the field of jobs, then the student should:

a)

apply for a job

b)

complete a job application

c)

go for a job interview

d)

study the requirements of the job

14.

The type of SAE that involves planning and conducting an agricultural experiment using the scientific method is:

a)

entrepreneurship

b)

placement

c)

improvement

d)

experimental

15.

A type of SAE that places students in jobs outside the regular school day is:

a)

entrepreneurship

b)

placement

c)

improvement

d)

exploratory

16.

If a business has $10,000 cash on hand, $25,000 in a checking account, and land valued at $300,000, on which line of a financial statement should the $335,000 total be entered?

a)

Current assets

b)

Net worth

c)

Total assets

d)

Total liabilities

17.

On a financial statement, items that can be quickly converted to cash or that will be sold within 12 months are:

a)

current assets

b)

current liabilities

c)

equity

d)

net worth

18.

If a beef farmer’s inventory shows 100 cattle worth $400 each, medicine and supplies worth $1,000, and land valued at $200,000, what amount should be entered on the non-depreciable inventory line of the financial statement?

a)

$400.00

b)

$41,000.00

c)

$200,000.00

d)

$241,000.00

19.

Mortgages that are not due this year are entered on a financial statement as:

a)

current assets

b)

current liabilities

c)

non-current assets

d)

non-current liabilities

20.

On a net worth statement, net worth is the same as:

a)

current assets

b)

equity

c)

inventory

d)

total liabilities

21.

Muscles in livestock are classified as:

a)

internal or external

b)

pectoral or pelvic

c)

tendons or ligaments

d)

voluntary or involuntary

22.

What part of the circulatory system carries blood from the heart to organs in the animal's body?

a)

Veins

b)

Capillaries

c)

Arteries

d)

Heart

23.

Which type of bone in the animal's body provides support and is also cylindrical?

a)

Short

b)

Pneumatic

c)

Flat

d)

Long

24.

The type of muscle that makes up the majority of meat consumed by humans is:

a)

striated

b)

smooth

c)

tendons

d)

cardiac

25.

If an animal science student is labeling the parts of a pig’s nervous system, what is the name of the part in the center of the vertebral column that is also connected to the brain?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Cerebrum

c)

Somatic nerve

d)

Spinal cord

26.

The major muscle that is a part of the circulatory system of animals is the

a)

heart

b)

liver

c)

pancreas

d)

stomach

27.

Temperature control and vocalization are functions of the:

a)

circulatory system

b)

hormones

c)

nervous system

d)

respiratory system

28.

Energy for muscle contractions comes from:

a)

deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

adenosine triphosphate

c)

sensory neurons

d)

hormones

29.

What part of the heart sends oxygenated blood to the various parts of the body?

a)

Aorta

b)

Lungs

c)

Pulmonary veins

d)

Left atrium

30.

Blood from the lower part of the animal's body enters the heart through the:

a)

caudal vena cava

b)

alveoli

c)

cranial vena cava

d)

lungs

31.

Which animal system secretes hormones into the blood to travel to and stimulate certain organs to perform their specific functions?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Endocrine

c)

Muscular

d)

Skeletal

32.

Which animal system has the function of supplying oxygen to tissues and removing carbon dioxide from the body?

a)

Circulatory

b)

Endocrine

c)

Muscular

d)

Respiratory

33.

The average length of the estrus cycle for both cattle and swine is:

a)

1 day

b)

21 days

c)

28 days

d)

114 days

34.

If left in the mother's body after the baby animal is born, the placenta and other membranes will make the mother sick. This tissue, generally expelled during the birthing process, is also referred to as the:

a)

afterbirth

b)

breach birth

c)

umbilical cord

d)

uterus

35.

Which hormone is primarily responsible for maintaining pregnancy in an animal?

a)

Luteinizing hormone

b)

Progesterone

c)

Follicle-stimulating hormone

d)

Estrogen

36.

What stage of parturition involves the actual birth of the fetus?

a)

Cleaning

b)

Expulsion

c)

Preparatory

d)

Retention

37.

The disease ruminant animals suffer from when they swallow foreign objects such as nails or wire is called:

a)

tetanus

b)

rabies

c)

hardware

d)

metallic

38.

The process of forcing food back up the esophagus so it can be chewed again is called:

a)

mastication

b)

prehension

c)

digestion

d)

rumination

39.

Which enzyme in the stomach acts on proteins?

a)

Gastric lipase

b)

Salivary amylase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Maltase

40.

If a laboratory has a pig’s internal organ that contains feed and some liquids in it, what label should be put on that organ?

a)

Heart

b)

Lungs

c)

Stomach

d)

Uterus

41.

Lights are on 24 hours a day in houses used for:

a)

breeding flocks

b)

broilers

c)

layers

d)

pullets

42.

Details of the amount of waste generated, the fields and crops receiving the waste, and the best management practices to be used in a livestock operation are included in the:

a)

animal mortality management plan

b)

animal waste management plan

c)

breeding records

d)

net worth statement

43.

In most commercial laying flocks of chickens, the lights are controlled by:

a)

automatic time clocks

b)

manual switches

c)

mirrors

d)

shades

44.

Animal waste management systems that primarily rely on soil and plant systems to treat animal waste are Type:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.

Most local regulations for animal operations deal with:

a)

health and disease

b)

waste management

c)

water quality

d)

zoning or location

46.

Ear notchers, needle teeth clippers, and castrating knives are small equipment needed for a:

a)

farrowing house

b)

growing facility

c)

finishing facility

d)

pig nursery

47.

Controlling temperature, odor, moisture, and airborne disease organisms is done through:

a)

air conditioning

b)

heating

c)

spraying water mist

d)

ventilation

48.

Which preventative maintenance procedure should be done on baby pigs to prevent injury to sows when pigs are nursing?

a)

Castrate

b)

Clip needle teeth

c)

Dock tails

d)

Notch ears

49.

As Shawn inspects his dairy herd he notices a cow with a swollen, painful udder. What bacterial disease is affecting this cow?

a)

Shipping fever

b)

Foot rot

c)

Blackleg

d)

Mastitis

50.

Spraying cracks and crevices in poultry buildings with an approved chemical during the daylight hours will help control mites, bedbugs, and fowl ticks, because they:

a)

feed on birds during daylight

b)

feed there during daylight

c)

hide there during daylight

d)

hide there during the night

51.

The type of immunity a newborn calf obtains from its mother's milk is:

a)

active

b)

infectious

c)

modified live

d)

passive

52.

When new animals are brought to a farm, which preventative maintenance procedure should be used to keep from spreading diseases?

a)

Isolate new animals

b)

Mix new animals with other animals

c)

Spray other animals

d)

Vaccinate other animals

53.

Poultry seldom have serious problems with worms because they:

a)

are raised in confinement on wire floors

b)

are raised outside on the ground

c)

drink worm medicine in their water

d)

eat worm medicine in their feed

54.

It is easier and causes less stress to dehorn calves when their horns are:

a)

fully developed

b)

in the button stage

c)

past the button stage

d)

six inches long

55.

The process of feeling the reproductive tract of a cow to determine pregnancy is:

a)

artificial insemination.

b)

palpation.

c)

parturition.

d)

sterilization.

56.

A major advantage of synchronization of estrus in cows and heifers is:

a)

higher conception rates.

b)

less uniform calf crop.

c)

lower level of management required.

d)

reduced breeding and calving seasons.

57.

Which preventive maintenance procedure is performed as a part of breeding flock management to prevent the spread of diseases from eggs?

a)

Adding vitamins to feed

b)

Fumigating with formaldehyde

c)

Spraying with insecticides

d)

Storing eggs at 80 percent humidity

58.

Hatching eggs are fumigated to help prevent the spread of:

a)

egg-borne diseases.

b)

external parasites.

c)

internal parasites.

d)

nutritional disorders.

59.

A major advantage of synchronization of estrus is cows and heifers is:

a)

Higher conception rates

b)

Less uniform calf crop

c)

Lower level of management required

d)

Reduced breeding and calving season

60.

Genetically engineered bovine somatotrophin (bST) given to dairy cattle results in:

a)

Increased milk production

b)

More fat and weight increases

c)

More fat and weight losses

d)

Reduced milk production

61.

One of the major advantages of embryo cloning is:

a)

Genetically uniform offspring

b)

Genetically diverse offspring

c)

High costs

d)

Low success rates

62.
A ration that has all the nutrients the animal needs in the right proportions and amounts is a:
a)
maintenance ration.
b)
high-protein ration.
c)
dry ration.
d)
balanced ration.
63.
Corn and other grains are classified as:
a)
concentrates.
b)
feed additives.
c)
minerals.
d)
roughages.
64.
The first general principle of balancing rations is that the ration should:
a)
contain a variety of feeds.
b)
be dry.
c)
be economical.
d)
meet the nutritional needs.
65.
A ration can have all the nutrients the animal needs in the correct quantities and proportions and still be a poor ration unless it is:
a)
dry.
b)
expensive.
c)
palatable.
d)
the right color.
66.
Being bulky and succulent and containing a variety of feeds are general principles of a good ration that also affect whether the ration is:
a)
balanced.
b)
economical.
c)
laxative.
d)
palatable.
67.
Which general principle of balancing a ration makes it easier to balance nutrients?
a)
The ration should be bulky.
b)
The ration should be economical.
c)
The ration should be slightly laxative.
d)
The ration should contain a variety of feeds.
68.

The Federal Food and Drug Administration (FDA) requires any feed with any drug in it to be labeled as a:

a)

feed additive

b)

hormone implant

c)

medicated feed.

d)

poisonous substance.

69.

Withdrawing the hormone implant needle too rapidly can result in:

a)

artery punctures.

b)

crushed hormone pellets.

c)

infections.

d)

vein punctures.

70.

Using antibiotics and antibacterials at a lower level than would be used to treat sick animals is:

a)

concentrated use.

b)

subtherapeutic use.

c)

supratherapeutic use.

d)

therapeutic use.

71.

Using the Pearson Square method, how many pounds of 8.9 percent protein corn and 45.8 percent protein soybean oil meal would be mixed together to make 2,000 pounds of a 14 percent protein feed?

a)

0 corn and 2,000 soybean oil meal

b)

0 soybean oil meal and 2,000 corn

c)

276 corn and 1,724 soybean oil meal

d)

1,724 corn and 276 soybean oil meal

72.

Placing the hormone implant in the ear cartilage may cause encapsulation, resulting in:

a)

faster-than-normal absorption.

b)

loss of the implant.

c)

normal absorption.

d)

slower-than-normal absorption.

73.

If black is dominant over red and white faces are dominant over colored faces in cattle, what color offspring would come from crossing a purebred black Angus with a purebred white faced red Hereford cow?

a)

Black all over

b)

Black with white face

c)

Red all over

d)

Red with white face

74.

The gene in a pair that hides the effect of the other gene is a:

a)

dominant gene.

b)

homozygous gene pair.

c)

Punnett square.

d)

recessive gene.

75.

A gene pair that carries two genes for the same trait is:

a)

blood-typing.

b)

expected progeny difference.

c)

heterozygous.

d)

homozygous.

76.

When the performance information used to select poultry breeders it he pedigree, the types of records used is:

a)

Future performance

b)

Past performance

c)

Present performance

d)

Rate of gain performance

77.

In percent heritability for birth weight is 40, weaning weight is 30, tenderness is 60, and ribeye area is 70 in beef cattle, which trait can be improved the most through selective breeding?

a)

Birth weight

b)

Ribeye area

c)

Tenderness

d)

Weaning weight

78.

The tendency for genes that are located close together on the chromosome to stay together and pass traits in groups is:

a)

crossover.

b)

incomplete dominance.

c)

linkage.

d)

mutation.

79.

Which performance data is a measure of growth rate in swine?

a)

Adjusted days to 230 pounds

b)

Number of live pigs born per litter

c)

Number of pigs weaned per litter

d)

USDA grade

80.

As Alison evaluates an animal from the rear view, she notices the hock joints are set too close together and the hooves point away from one another. What conformation fault does this animal display?

a)

Post-legged

b)

Sickle-hocked

c)

Buck-kneed

d)

Cow-hocked

81.

In livestock, sex-linked traits are often recessive and are covered up by:

a)

dominant genes.

b)

female hormones.

c)

male hormones.

d)

recessive genes.

82.

Using the Punnet Square, what percent of the offspring would be white if a dominant white homozygous (WW) boar is bred to a black recessive homozygous (ww) sow?

a)

0

b)

25

c)

75

d)

100

83.

The appearance of a new trait in the biological offspring that is not in the genetic makeup of the parents is a:

a)

dominant gene.

b)

mutation.

c)

recessive gene.

d)

sex-linked trait.

84.

If laying hen one has pigment in the vent, hen two in the beak, hen three in the front of the shanks, and hen four in the eye ring, which hen has been laying the longest?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

85.

A 16-pound ready-to-cook turkey that has the wing tips and the second wing joint on both wings missing can grade no higher than USDA Grade:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

86.

Live broilers should be health and well fleshed with normal confirmation and only slight defects so that they will be Grade:

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

87.

The exterior quality of grade of eggs with foreign material sticking on the egg shells is:

a)

AA

b)

A

c)

B

d)

dirty

88.

The maximum missing parts that a four pound ready-to-cook broiler can have and still be a Grade A are:

a)

both whole wings and tail

b)

One whole wing and tail

c)

Second wing joints and tail

d)

Wing tips and tail

89.

Although the selection of a broiler chicks is an important management decision for broiler production, basically no broiler producers make this decision because:

a)

Broilers are grown on contract

b)

Producers do not know how

c)

There are no broiler chick hatcheries

d)

Transporting chicks too difficult

90.

What conformation trait from the Unified Dairy Scorecard evaluates the skeletal parts?

a)

Dairy strength

b)

Frame

c)

Udder

d)

Feet and legs

91.

As Cheyenne evaluates a group of breeding gilts, she notices an animal with a hock joint that is excessively straight. What conformation fault does this animal display?

a)

Post-legged

b)

Sickle-hocked

c)

Buck-kneed

d)

Cow-hocked

92.

As determined by candling, the USDA quality grade for an egg with a clean and unbroken shell, clear and firm white, yolk free defects and air cell 1/8 inches or less is:

a)

AA

b)

A

c)

B

d)

Leaker

93.

When laying hens are evaluated, the relationship of pigment of egg laying is:

a)

Less pigment, less eggs

b)

Less pigment, more eggs

c)

More pigment, more ggs

d)

No relationship

94.

What source of food-borne bacterial contamination involves the transfer of bacteria when hands are not washed thoroughly?

a)

Animals

b)

Soil

c)

Water

d)

Humans

95.

The main purpose of carcass inspection is to detect irregular and contaminated meat and to:

a)

package it

b)

remove it

c)

sell it

d)

stamp it

96.

What common food-borne illness is contracted by eating contaminated eggs?

a)

Campylobacter poisoning

b)

Coccidiosis

c)

E. coli poisoning

d)

Salmonellosis

97.

During the slaughtering process, the federal Humane Slaughter Act permits mechanical, chemical, and electrical methods of:

a)

inspecting

b)

skinning

c)

sticking

d)

stunning

98.

During the slaughtering process, broilers and turkeys are bled by:

a)

cutting the jugular vein

b)

removing the heart

c)

removing the gizzard

d)

sticking

99.

Which method of stunning livestock involves asphyxiation?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Chemical

c)

Exsanguination

d)

Electrical

100.

The purpose of sticking beef cattle and hogs during the slaughtering process is for:

a)

bleeding

b)

eviscerating

c)

inspecting

d)

stunning