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Unit 4 Review

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A DNA nucleotide includes...?

a)

deoxyribose sugar, nitrogenous base, phopshate group

b)

deoxyribose sugar, nitrogenous base

c)

deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group

d)

nitrogenous base, phosphate group

2.

Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

a)

deoxyribose (sugar) and adenine

b)

deoxyribose (sugar) and a hydrogen bond

c)

deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus

d)

deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate

3.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
4.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
5.

Which bond is responsible for holding the two strands of the DNA double helix together?

a)

weak hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases

b)

strong covalent bonds between the nitrogenous bases

c)

strong hydrogen bonds between the nitrogenous bases

d)

weak covalent bonds between the nitrogenous bases

6.

Name this structure

a)

double helix

b)

nucelotide

c)

DNA

d)

nucleic acid

7.

Which sequence of DNA bases would complementary pair with this parent strand

ATG TGA CAG

a)

ATG TGA CAG

b)

TAC ACT GTC

c)

GTA AGT GAC

d)

CAT TCA CTG

8.

Which scientist was responsible for discovering the base pairing rule?

a)

Erwin Chargaff

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

James Watson

d)

Francis Crick

9.

Which scientist was responsible for discovering the basic structure of DNA using X-Ray Crystallography?

a)

Erwin Chargaff

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

James Watson

d)

Francis Crick

10.

Which scientist was responsible for furthering the discovery of DNA structure using the results from X-Ray Crystallography?

a)

Erwin Chargaff

b)

Rosalind Franklin

c)

James Watson and Francis Crick

11.

What type of bonds hold neighboring nucleotides together in the backbone of the DNA?

a)

Strong Covalent bonds between the sugar and phosphate of the next nucleotide.

b)

Strong Hydrogen bonds between the sugar and phosphate of the next nucleotide.

c)

Weak Covalent bonds between the sugar and phosphate of the next nucleotide.

d)

Weak Hydrogen bonds between the sugar and phosphate of the next nucleotide.

12.

Which of the following illustrates the correct orientation of DNA strands to one another?

a)

Antiparallel

3'------------5'

5'------------3'

b)

Parallel

3'------------5'

5'------------3'

c)

Antiparallel

5'------------3'

5'------------3'

d)

Parallel

5'------------3'

5'------------3'

13.

The 5' end of a DNA stand has which piece of the nucleotide exposed at the end?

a)

Nitrogenous Base

b)

Phosphate Group

c)

Deoxyribose sugar

d)

It depends

14.

Which of the following was probably not present in the atmosphere of the primitive Earth?

a)

Methane

b)

Oxygen

c)

Water

d)

Carbon dioxide

15.

What was the product of the Miller-Urey Experiment?

a)

Simple amino acids

b)

Simple nucleotides

c)

Simple lipids

d)

Simple monosaccarides

16.

Based upon the conditions of the early Earth, which forms of live most likely appeared first?

a)

Prokaryotic and aerobic

b)

Prokaryotic and anaerobic

c)

Eukaryotic and aerobic

d)

Eukaryotic and anaerobic

17.

The idea that Earth's early oceans had organic molecules that became the first life is called the..

a)

Primordial soup hypothesis

b)

Bubble hypothesis

c)

Miller-Urey Experiment

d)

Radioactive dating theory

18.

RNA World Theory states that ...

a)

Life came from RNA

b)

Life came from life

c)

Life came from non living things

d)

Life came from outer space

19.

Which scientist(s) tested the primordial soup model by using an electrical spark to produced amino acids from the molecules believed to be present on early Earth?

a)

Oparin-Haldane

b)

Miller-Urey

c)

Pasteur

d)

Spallanzani

20.

Which scientist(s) hypothesized the primordial soup model?

a)

Oparin-Haldane

b)

Miller-Urey

c)

Pasteur

d)

Spallanzani

21.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
22.
Replicate the following strand of DNA: 
AATCATGGA
a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)
UUAGUACCU
d)
GGATAUCUA
23.
The enzyme that unzips the DNA to prepare for replication
a)
helicase
b)
replicase
c)
polymerase
d)
synthase
24.
DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,
a)
each one with two original strands
b)
each one with two new strands
c)
each one with one new strand and one original strand
d)
one with two new strands and the other with two original strands
25.
Which enzyme is responsible for adding nucleotides ("The Builder")?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
DNA Polymerase
c)
Ligase
d)
Primase
26.
Why is it crucial that living things are able to replicate their DNA?
a)
Each cell must have its own DNA
b)
Less copies of DNA are needed when a new cell is created
c)
A cell needs multiple copies of DNA
d)
Only muscle cells need DNA 
27.

The enzyme that comes first and synthesizes (builds) an RNA primer that then allows DNA polymerase to bind and start building the strand with new free-floating nucleotides.

a)

Helicase

b)

Primase

c)

Polymerase

d)

Nuclease

28.
Which enzyme seals okazaki fragments together on the lagging strand?
a)
Topoisomerase
b)
Helicase
c)
Polymerase
d)
Ligase
29.
Which of the following sequences expresses the correct order of enzyme function in DNA replication?
a)
Helicase--primase--DNA polymerase--ligase
b)
ligase--helicase--primase--DNA polymerase
c)
DNA polymerase--primase--helicase--ligase
30.
If the percentage of DNA is made of 30% Thymine, what is the correct percentage of Guanine?
a)
30
b)
15
c)
20
d)
60
31.

The "rungs" of the DNA ladder are made of:

a)

phosphates and nitrogen bases

b)

sugars

c)

sugars and phosphates

d)

nitrogen bases

32.
What is A?
a)
Leading strand
b)
Lagging strand
c)
Okazaki Fragments
d)
DNA plymerase
33.

Purine

a)

Genetic material found in cells

b)

Monomer of DNA

c)

Nitrogenous base made of two rings

d)

Nitrogenous base made of one ring

34.

Pyrimidine

a)

Genetic material found in cells

b)

Monomer of DNA

c)

Nitrogenous base made of two rings

d)

Nitrogenous base made of one ring

35.

What is B?

a)

Leading strand

b)

Lagging strand

c)

Okazaki Fragments

d)

DNA plymerase

36.

Which direction does DNA build?

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

c)

Towards the replication fork

d)

Away from the replication fork

37.

DNA Replication is

a)

Conservative - The new strand would be two new daughter strands (a copy), while the original parent strand would not be changed.

b)

Semi-conservative - The new strand has one parent and one daughter strand

c)

Dispersive - Random alternating DNA between parent and daughter strand.

38.

Cells of organism must replicate for ?

a)

growth

b)

repair of damaged cells

c)

replacement of dying cells.

d)

All of the above

39.
The division of the nucleus is known as:
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
G1
d)
G2
40.
Eukaryotic cells store their genetic information(DNA) in __________.
a)
Chromosomes
b)
Centromeres
c)
karyotypes
d)
Proteins
41.
The individual strands on duplicated chromosomes are called_____________
a)
Centromeres
b)
daughters
c)
Chromatids
d)
Karyotypes
42.
The material of chromosomes which is made up of proteins and DNA is called ________________.
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromatid
c)
Karyotype
d)
Chromatin
43.
The ___________ holds the replicated sister chromatids together.
a)
centriole
b)
chromosomes
c)
centromere
d)
cycles
44.
The cell spends most of it's life in ________________.
a)
mitosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
None of the above
45.

In the G1 stage of the cell cycle, the cell (choose all that apply)

a)

Grows

b)

Replicated DNA

c)

Carries on normal activities

d)

Replicates organelles

46.
In the S stage of interphase_______________
a)
the cell grows
b)
the nucleus divides
c)
the cell membrane divides
d)
the DNA is replicated
47.
The structure labeled A is a(n)
a)
chromatid
b)
centriole
c)
centromere
d)
chromophere
48.
The structures labeled B are
a)
centrioles
b)
chromatids
c)
centromeres
d)
chromopheres
49.

The chromosome in the diagram (select all that apply)

a)

is replicated

b)

is 1 chromosome made up of two chromatids

c)

is about to go through cell division

d)

is chromatin

50.
When a plant cell goes through cell division,  _____________.
a)
the 2 new nuclei are separated by the cell membrane pinching off.
b)
4 new cells are formed
c)
a cell plate forms, dividing the 2 new nuclei
d)
None of the above
51.
When an animal cell goes through cytokinesis,__________
a)
a cell plate forms dividing the 2 new nuclei.
b)
the cell membrane pinches off the 2 new cells.
c)
4 new cells are formed.
d)
None of the above
52.
A human cell has 46 chromosomes before mitotic division.  How many chromosomes will the daughter cells after mitosis.
a)
12
b)
23
c)
46
d)
92
53.
The larger the surface area to volume ratio, the _______________ efficient the cell is in transporting nutrients and waste in and out of the cell. 
a)
less
b)
more
54.

Which cell cycle checkpoint verifies cell size and checks the DNA for damage?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

55.

Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure that the chromatids are correctly attached to the spindle fibers?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

56.

Which cell cycle checkpoint makes sure that chromosomes are duplicated and checks for damage of the replicated DNA?

a)

G1 checkpoint

b)

S checkpoint

c)

G2 checkpoint

d)

M checkpoint

57.

Who type of protein prevents the cells with damage form continuing through the cell cycle?

a)

tumor supressor

b)

tumor initiator

c)

stem cell suppressor

d)

stem cell initiator

58.
Cell division is represented by what letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
59.
A cell spends __% of its cycle in ____.
a)
100, interphase
b)
10, cytokinesis
c)
40, mitosis
d)
90, interphase
60.

the division of the cytoplasm is called

a)

mitosis

b)

interphase

c)

cytokinesis

d)

somatic

61.
A repeating sequence of growth and division...
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)

Cell Cycle

d)
Somatic
62.
Which of the following shows the correct order for mitosis
a)
Prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase
b)
telophase, metaphase, anaphase, prophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
63.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
64.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
65.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
66.
What stage is this?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
67.
What is the role of the spindle during mitosis?
a)
it changes the chromatin to chromosome
b)
duplicate the DNA
c)
breaks down the membrane
d)
separates the chromatids.
68.
During what stage does the G1, S and G2 phases happen?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Cytokinesis
69.
What is the relationship between the cell size and the cell nutrient absorption rate?
a)
The smaller the cell size the less nutrients are absorbed
b)
The larger the cell size the more nutrients are absorbed
c)
The smaller the cell size the more nutrients are absorbed
d)
The relationship between cell size and nutrient absorption rate cannot be determined
70.
Cytokinesis is the creation of two identical cells called _____.
a)
children cells
b)
new cells
c)
daughter cells
d)
son cells
71.
What best describes the genetic material shown in photograph B. 
a)
The chromosomes are in anaphase
b)
The chromosomes are in metaphase
c)
DNA is possibly being replicated 
d)
The genetic material is around the poles and cytokinesis is occurring
72.
What best describes the genetic material shown in photograph E.
a)
The chromosomes are in anaphase
b)
The chromosomes are in metaphase 
c)
DNA is possibly being replicated
d)
The genetic material is around the poles and cytokinesis is occurring 
73.
What best describes the genetic material shown in photograph A. 
a)
The chromosomes are in anaphase
b)
The chromosomes are in metaphase
c)
DNA is possibly being replicated 
d)
The genetic material is around the poles and cytokinesis is occurring
74.
DNA polymerase 
a)
Is an enzyme 
b)
Adds new nucleotides to the template strand 
c)
Proofreads DNA strands to see that they are correct 
d)
All of these are functions of DNA polymerase
75.
When, during the cell cycle, does this occur?
a)
During G1 
b)
During S
c)
During G2
d)
During M
76.
Why do cancer cells not respond properly to cell signals and controls?
a)
damage to a cell’s cytoplasm
b)
damage to a cell’s sister chromatids 
c)
damage to a cell’s DNA
d)
damage to a cell’s wall and membrane 
77.
Which of the cells depicted in the line graph are most likely cancerous?                  
 
a)
Line A
b)
Line B
c)
Line C
d)
Line D
78.
What do all of these organisms have in common?
a)
Universal genetic code
b)
Components that make up the genetic code
c)
Traits that are determined by genes that are translated into proteins
d)
Organisms have all of above in common 
79.
The figures show four process involving DNA and RNA.  Which figure shows the process of transcription?
a)
Figure A
b)
Figure B
c)
Figure C
d)
Figure D
80.
Which molecule is paired with its correct role in protein synthesis? 
a)
Nucleus – forms peptide bonds 
b)
Ribosome – carries DNA instructions
c)
mRNA – joins amino acids 
d)
 tRNA – transfers amino acids
81.

What is cancer?

a)

A group of diseases characterized by no cell growth

b)

A group of diseases caused by the failure of chromosomes to separate

c)

A group of diseases characterized by uncontrolled cell division

d)

A group of diseases caused by excessive replication of chromosomes

82.

Which type of protein prevents the cells with damage form continuing through the cell cycle?

a)

tumor supressor

b)

tumor initiator

c)

stem cell suppressor

d)

stem cell initiator

83.

Which of the following is a true statement?

a)

Benign tumors have cells that have broken away from the main tumor.

b)

Malignant tumors have cells that have broken away from the main tumor.

c)

Malignant tumors consist of cells that have stayed together.

d)

Benign tumors spread through the blood and lymph to other organs

84.

Which of the following is not a way that genes for cell cycle regulatory proteins can be damaged?

a)

cell crowding

b)

carcinogens

c)

inherited mutations

d)

exposure to certain viruses

85.

Which two two factors can inhibit (prevent/slow down) the progression of a cell through the cell cycle?

a)

cell crowding and a decrease in surface area to volume ratio

b)

cell crowding and decrease in growth hormone

86.
Why is it important for cells of multicellular organisms to undergo mitosis?
a)
Mitosis allows for reproduction with male and female gametes.
b)
Mitosis increases variation within an organism.
c)
Mitosis produces cells that are different from the original dividing cell.
d)
Mitosis produces cells that are identical to the original dividing cell.
87.
Substances known to produce or promote cancer are called
a)
Kinases
b)
Carcinogens
c)
Cyclins
d)
Malignancies
88.
What makes stem cells different from other cells in the body?
a)
They are larger than other cells, and can absorb broken cells to repair them.
b)
They repair cells by breaking open and making their cell parts available for absorption into other cells.
c)
They are undifferentiated cells that can turn into a number of different kinds of cells as needed.
d)
They are cells that grow uncontrollably.
89.
While in the womb, the webbed fingers of the embryo undergo programmed cell death, also known as
a)
apoptosis
b)
cytokinesis
c)
carcinogen
d)
stem cells
90.
What is the end product of mitosis
a)
2 identical daughter cells
b)
2 genetically unique daughter cells
c)
4 identical daughter cells
d)
4 genetically unique daughter cells
91.
Mitosis involves which type of cells?
a)
Sex Cells
b)
Bacteria
c)
Prokaryotes
d)
Body or Somatic Cells
92.
What is the difference between the lytic and lysogenic virus reproductive cycles?
a)
lysogenic is longer
b)
they are the same
c)
Lytic is longer
d)
Both are different each time
93.
What happens in the lytic cyle?
a)
Virus goes in and leaves the host cell
b)
Virus quickly kills the host cell
c)
Virus sleeps inside of the host cell
d)
Virus stay dormant for a long time
94.
What process is this?
a)
phagocytosis
b)
lytic cycle
c)
lysogenic cycle
d)
formation of antibodies
95.
What is shown here?
a)
Lysogenic Cycle
b)
Lytic Cycle
c)
Binary Fission
d)
Conjugation
96.
This infectious viral disease has many symptoms, from chills, fever, and aching muscles to coughing and sneezing to nausea and vomiting. The symptoms show up within 2-7 days after the cell is infected.  This is an example of?
a)
Lytic Cycle
b)
Lysogenic Cycle
c)
Meiosis
97.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to remain dormant within the host's DNA while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
98.

A _____________________ infection involves the virus DNA combining/splicing its DNA with the host cells DNA. Then hiding for an extended period of time.

a)

lysogenic

b)

lytic

c)

vaccine

d)

venereal

99.

What does the word dormant mean?

a)

DNA

b)

awake

c)

attack

d)

inactive

100.

A virus can contain which of the following genetic material?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

DNA and RNA

d)

DNA or RNA

101.

Translation is the process where

a)

mRNA is created in the Nucleus

b)

mRNA is decoded to build a protein

c)

glucose molecules are made

d)

is where lipids are synthesized

102.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
103.
How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:
ATG GGA ACT CCA
a)
4
b)
2
c)
6
d)
12
104.

What is the location in a eukaryotic cell for transcription?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosome

d)

mitochondria

105.

What is the location in the cell for translation?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria in cytoplasm

c)

ribosome in cytoplasm

d)

chloroplast in cytoplasm

106.

Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism?

a)

sequence of Nitrogen Bases

b)

Sugar-Phosphate Backbone

c)

Hydrogen bonds

107.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
108.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
109.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
110.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
111.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
112.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
113.
Which is the mRNA molecule that would be transcribed from this DNA template:
TGGCAAGTACGT
a)
ACCGTTCATGCA
b)
UGGCAAGUACGU
c)
UCCGUUCUUGCU
d)
ACCGUUCAUGCA
114.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
115.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
116.

What is the three base sequence of tRNA that is complementary to the codon?

a)

Anticodon

b)

Codon

c)

Protein

117.

What is the Central Dogma of Biology?

a)

DNA -> RNA -> Protein

b)

RNA - > DNA -> Protein

c)

DNA -> Protein -> RNA

d)

RNA -> Protein -> DNA

118.

Choose all that apply to RNA

a)

Single Helix

b)

Ribose sugar

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Uracil instead of Thymine

119.

Why are proteins important? Check all that apply.

a)

Proteins carry out almost all of the thousands of chemical reactions that take place in cells (enzymes).

b)

They also help fight disease (antibodies) and transmit messages (hormones).

c)

They form the majority of cell membranes.

d)

Build bone and muscle.

120.

Which enzyme adds free nucleotides to the mRNA strand?

a)

DNA Polymerase

b)

RNA Polymerase

c)

RNA Primase

d)

Helicase

121.

The monomer of a protein is a(n) _________________. Each one of these is coded for by a ___________.

a)

amino acid, codon

b)

nucleotide, codon

c)

amino acid, nucleotide

d)

nucleotide, amino acid

122.

What type of bonds are amino acids bonded to each other with?

a)

Ionic Bonds

b)

Hydrogen Bonds

c)

Covalent Bonds

d)

Peptide Bonds

123.

Which strand is transcribed to RNA

a)

Non-template strand

b)

Template strand

c)

Anticodon tRNA

124.

Why is transcription and translation coupled in bacteria

a)

Nucleus is absent

b)

Mitochondrion is present

c)

Chloroplast is absent

d)

All

125.
what does mRNA do?
a)
carry info from genes to ribosomes
b)
carry amino acids to ribosomes
c)
help with RNA splicing
d)
make up ribosomes
126.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
Replication
c)
Translocation
d)
Transcription
127.
What is this a picture of?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
pRNA
128.
Which structure reads the mRNA codons?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Golgi Body
d)
Enzyme
129.

What is the correct sequence of protein synthesis?

A. tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome

B. DNA molecules serve as the templates for mRNA.

C. mRNA molecules move to ribosomes.

D. Polypeptides are formed on ribosomes.

a)

A-B-C-D

b)

B-C-A-D

c)

C-B-A-D

d)

D-B-A-C

130.

How many nucleotides make up one codon?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

6

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