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Worksheets3-6
Total questions: 150
Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A pure substance whose atoms are the same type is called
a)
a mixture
b)
an element
c)
a compound
2.
This table has two columns of different kinds of matter. Which of the following is the best label for the second column?
a)
Atoms
b)
Compounds
c)
Pure Substance
d)
Mixture
3.
Look at the given compound. Be3Al2(SiO3)6 How many different elements are in the compound?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
4.
Provided is a list of five different substances. How many of these substances are elements?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
5.
Which element is one of the most abundant in both solid parts of Earth and in living matter?
a)
Carbon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Hydrogen
6.
Compounds are different than elements because compounds are -
a)
combinations of two or more elements
b)
not able to be broken down into parts
c)
made from the same type of atoms
d)
a pure substance, elements are not
7.
This picture represents which of the following?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
8.
This picture represents which of the following?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
9.
How are elements and compounds different?
a)
A compound is represented by a chemical formula, and elements are represented by a chemical symbol.
b)
Compounds are represented by chemical symbols of one letter, and elements are represented by symbols of two letters.
c)
Elements are pure substances, and compounds are not.
d)
Elements are always larger units of matter, and compounds are smaller.
10.
Which of the following is a compound?
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon
c)
Water
d)
Helium
11.
How many different elements are in this chemical formula: C2H2ClK3
a)
6
b)
8
c)
2
d)
4
12.
Which of the following atomic symbols is written correctly?
a)
ee
b)
hE
c)
C
d)
CL
13.
Which of the following atomic symbols is written correctly?
a)
OH
b)
oH
c)
fe
d)
H
14.
Which of the following is a pure substance?
a)
CO
b)
C02
c)
Co
d)
H2O
15.
Which of the following is a pure substance?
a)
O2
b)
Al2CO5
c)
C6H12O6
d)
SiO2
16.
Which of the following atomic symbols for bromine is written correctly?
a)
bR
b)
BR
c)
Br
d)
br
17.
Which of the following chemical formulas represents a compound?
a)
C3
b)
O2
c)
CH3CHO
d)
H2
18.
Can be found on the periodic table
a)
Element
b)
Compound
c)
MIxture
19.
What is krypton?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
20.
What is gold?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
21.
What is sugar?
a)
element
b)
compound
c)
mixture
22.
Which of these grouping of elements could have the characteristic of luster (shiny)?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
metalloids
d)
Both metals and metalloids
23.
Which of these grouping of elements could have the characteristic of brittle?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
24.
Which of the following is a good conductor of heat?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
25.
Which of these is a property of metals?
a)
It's malleable
b)
It can't conduct electricity
c)
They are used in food
d)
It's very brittle
26.
One property of nonmetals is that it they are good conductors of electricity.
a)
true
b)
false
27.
All of the following would classify an element as a metal except?
a)
Dull
b)
Luster
c)
Malleable
d)
Hard
28.
Some characteristics of metals are that they are malleable and ductile.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
29.
Nonmetals are good conductors of heat and electricity.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
30.
Metalloids are weak conductors of heat and electricity.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
31.
Which of the following properties refers to the ability of metals to be drawn into wires?
a)
A. malleability
b)
B. compressibility
c)
C. ductility
d)
D. luster
32.
Which of the following property of metal can reflect light
a)
A. malleability
b)
B. compressibility
c)
C. ductility
d)
D. luster
33.
If a substance breaks easily, it is said to be ________________.
a)
A. Magnetic
b)
B. Brittle
c)
C. Conductive
d)
D. Ductile
34.
Metals appear to the _______ of the dark ziz-zag line on the periodic table.
a)
A. right
b)
B. middle
c)
C. left
35.
Nonmetals occur to the ________of the dark zig-zag on the periodic table.
a)
A. right
b)
B. middle
c)
C. left
36.
What element in Group 1 is not a metal but a nonmetal?
a)
Helium
b)
Lithium
c)
Hydrogen
d)
Oxygen
37.
What does malleable mean?
a)
able to bend
b)
will break easily
c)
can be used for wire
d)
is shiny
38.
What does ductile mean?
a)
electricity flows easily
b)
quacks like a duck
c)
can be drawn into a wire
d)
able to bend
39.
How would this element be classified?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
d)
Metamorphic
40.
Silicon is a semiconductor and has properties of both metals and nonmetals. What type of element is Silicon?
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Metalloid
d)
Pretty
41.
A pure substance that cannot be broken down into anything simpler is a/an-
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
cell
d)
compound
42.
If an object breaks easily, that means it is-
a)
malleable
b)
brittle
c)
ductile
43.
Which type of elements touch the zigzag line?
a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
d)
Metals and Metalloids
44.
Planets that are closer to the sun
a)
take more time to orbit
b)
take less time to orbit
45.
The order of the planets is:
a)
Mars,Venus,Earth,
Mercury,Saturn
Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune
Mercury,Saturn
Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune
b)
Earth,Venus,Mars
Jupiter, Neptune,
Mercury,Saturn,
Uranus
Jupiter, Neptune,
Mercury,Saturn,
Uranus
c)
Mercury,Venus,Earth
Mars,Jupiter,
Saturn,Uranus
Neptune
Mars,Jupiter,
Saturn,Uranus
Neptune
46.
Which planet is the largest?
a)
Jupiter
b)
Saturn
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
47.
Which planet is fifth from the sun?
a)
Saturn
b)
Jupiter
c)
Mars
d)
Earth
48.
Which planet is seventh from the sun?
a)
Saturn
b)
Earth
c)
Venus
d)
Uranus
49.
which planet is the third from the sun?
a)
Mercury
b)
Neptune
c)
Pluto
d)
Earth
50.
Which is the fourth planet from the sun?
a)
Mars
b)
Saturn
c)
Earth
d)
Jupiter
51.
Which is the second closest planet to the sun?
a)
Earth
b)
Saturn
c)
Venus
d)
Mercury
52.
Which Planet comes after Earth in the solar system?
a)
Mercury
b)
Mars
c)
Venus
d)
Eros
53.
The earth orbits around...
a)
the sun.
b)
the moon
c)
other planets
d)
the Milky Way
54.
How long does it take the Earth to make one REVOLUTION around the Sun?
a)
12 hours
b)
24 hours
c)
365 days
d)
29.5 days
55.
How long does it take for Earth to complete on full rotation?
a)
365 days
b)
23 hours
c)
24 hours
d)
1 month
56.
What is gravity?
a)
A force
b)
Energy
c)
A push
d)
All of them
57.
Without gravity we would________.
a)
Float away
b)
Stay in the ground
c)
Nothing would happen.
d)
I don't know
58.
Some things have A LOT of mass, while other have FEW mass.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
59.
Which has more mass, Earth or the Moon?
a)
Earth
b)
Moon
c)
The same
60.
A flat sloping surface that connects lower and higher elevations. It makes raising objects easier.
a)
wedge
b)
screw
c)
lever
d)
inclined plane
61.
An inclined plane wrapped around a rod forms this simple machine
a)
lever
b)
pulley
c)
screw
d)
wedge
62.
A simple machine that consists a rigid bar that pivot about a fixed point
a)
lever
b)
pulley
c)
wheel and axle
d)
fulcrum
63.
An axe is an example of a
a)
pulley
b)
inclined plane
c)
screw
d)
wedge
64.
A seesaw is an example of a
a)
wedge
b)
lever
c)
inclined plane
d)
pulley
65.
A device that has two or more simple machines working together
a)
fulcrum
b)
pulley
c)
compound (complex) machine
d)
motor
66.
Stairs
a)
wedge
b)
pulley
c)
inclined plane
d)
wheel and axle
67.
Lightbulb
a)
wedge
b)
pulley
c)
incline plane
d)
screw
68.
Which is not a type of simple machine?
a)
spring
b)
screw
c)
pulley
d)
wedge
69.
What type of simple machine is found on the cap of a pickle jar?
a)
lever
b)
inclined plane
c)
pulley
d)
screw
70.
This device
a)
wedge
b)
lever
c)
incline plane
d)
wheel and axle
71.
What type of simple machine is this?
a)
wheel and axle
b)
gear
c)
lever
d)
inclined plane
72.
The fixed point on the lever is called
a)
load
b)
resistance
c)
bar
d)
fulcrum
73.
The transfer of energy that occurs when a force makes an object move is known as
a)
effort
b)
potential
c)
kinetic
d)
work
74.
What do you call a machine made up of two or more simple machines?
a)
complicated machine
b)
compound or complex machine
c)
comprehensive machine
d)
constructive machine
75.
The device used to raise a flag up a flag pole is an example of a
a)
wheel and axle
b)
lever
c)
inclined plane
d)
pulley
76.
Which of the following does a simple machine do?
a)
allows the users to apply less force over a longer distance
b)
reduce the amount of force needed to do work
c)
change the direction of the applied force
d)
all of the above
77.
Identify this simple machine
a)
Lever
b)
Wheel & Axle
c)
Inclined Plane
d)
Screw
78.
Two examples of a pulley...
a)
knife & axe blade
b)
lightbulb & screw
c)
flagpole hoist & window blinds
d)
catapult & teeter totter
79.
Which is an example of someone using a simple machine to do work?
a)
a boy runs across a football field
b)
a banker counts money
c)
a mother pushes a stroller up a ramp
d)
a girl eats a sandwich
80.
What is an example of a lever?
a)
ramp
b)
car
c)
arm
d)
teeth
81.
What is an example of an inclined plane?
a)
crane
b)
slide
c)
bike
d)
see-saw
82.
What is an example of a wheel and axle?
a)
ax
b)
light bulb
c)
skateboard ramp
d)
bus tire
83.
The tool used to measure the mass of a substance or object is a ______________.
a)
balance
b)
graduated cylinder
c)
ruler
d)
thermometer
84.
Jack has a rock. The rock has a mass of 14g and a volume of 2cm3. What is the density of the rock?
a)
7 mL
b)
7 g/cm3
c)
28 g/cm3
d)
1/7 g/cm3
85.
Which units of measurement are used for volume?
a)
grams
b)
centimeters
c)
grams/milliliter
d)
milliliter
86.
What is the volume of Object X?
a)
10.0 cm3
b)
15.0 cm3
c)
20.0 cm3
d)
25.0 cm3
87.
True or False: The density of a specific type of material never changes.
a)
True
b)
False
88.
I have two objects with the same volume but different masses. Which object will be more dense?
a)
The object with less weight.
b)
The object with more weight.
c)
The object with more mass.
d)
The object with less mass.
89.
What is the formula for density?
a)
density = mass x volume
b)
density = mass / volume
c)
density = mass + volume
d)
density = mass - volume
90.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
91.
Frank has a paper clip. It has a mass of 9g and a volume of 3cm3. What is its density?
a)
3 g/cm3
b)
1/3 g/cm3
c)
27 g/cm3
d)
39 g/cm3
92.
An object with which of the following densities will float on water?
a)
0.7 g/cm3
b)
1.2 g/cm3
c)
3.5 g/cm3
d)
11.4 g/cm3
93.
A block has a mass of 54g and a volume of 20cm3. What is the density of the block?
a)
74 g/cm3
b)
1080 g/cm3
c)
34 g/cm3
d)
2.7 g/cm3
94.
A can of Coke will sink in a bowl of water. A can of Diet Coke will float in a bowl of water. What does this tell you about the density of the Diet Coke?
a)
it is bigger than 1
b)
it is smaller than 1
c)
it is equal to 1
d)
it is equal to -1
95.
Why do ice cubes float in a glass of water?
a)
the ice cubes are more dense than the water
b)
the water is more dense than the ice cubes
c)
the water is more dense than the glass
d)
the ice is more dense than the glass
96.
Conduction is heat transfer by -
a)
Touch
b)
Circles
c)
Waves
97.
Convection is heat transfer by-
a)
Touch an object
b)
The heating and cooling of a fluid
c)
Electromagnetic Waves
98.
Warm air rises and the cool air sinks demonstrates this type of heat transfer.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
Insolation
99.
The heat from a hot burner to a pot is transferred by ______.
a)
convection
b)
insulation
c)
radiation
d)
conduction
100.
When the 2nd story of a house is warmer than the 1st floor of a house is heat transfer through
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
thermal equilibrium
101.
The sun warming your skin is an example of heat transfer through
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
d)
thermal electricity
102.
Heat transfer through electromagnetic waves is called
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiaton
d)
thermal
103.
Walking on the warm sand sand with your bare feet demonstrates this type of heat transfer.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
104.
A group of friends gather around a fire to stay warm.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
105.
Hot coffee is stirred with a spoon; the spoon gets hot due to
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
106.
What type of heat transfer takes place in solids?
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
107.
What type of heat transfer takes place in liquids and gasses?
a)
Conduction
b)
Convection
c)
Radiation
d)
Thermal Equilibrium
108.
As you touch a hot stove the heat transfers -
a)
from your hand to the stove
b)
from the stove to your hand
c)
It doesn't transfer
109.
Which is more dense?
a)
Hot Liquid
b)
Cold Liquid
110.
Heat transfer always goes from-
a)
Cold to Hot
b)
Hot to Cold
c)
Heat doesn't transfer
d)
Freezing to Cold
111.
What characteristic do all renewable resources share?
a)
Produced by waste products
b)
Form underground from dead organisms.
c)
Replaced in a short period of time
d)
Allow energy to pass through them easily
112.
Which of the following is a fossil fuel?
a)
Wind
b)
Coal
c)
Solar
d)
Biomass
113.
Hydroelectric power produces electricity using.....
a)
Wind
b)
Sunlight
c)
Moving water
d)
Dung
114.
The careful use of a resource is....
a)
recycling
b)
pollution
c)
depositing
d)
conservation
115.
Energy from the sun is known as.........
a)
hydroelectric energy
b)
geothermal energy
c)
solar energy
d)
wind energy
116.
The energy resource that is most affected by change in weather is_____________?
a)
geothermal
b)
wind
c)
nuclear
d)
natural gas
117.
The cleanest burning fossil fuel is ______.
a)
coal
b)
oil
c)
wind
d)
natural gas
118.
Which of the following is a nonrenewable resource?
a)
milk
b)
coal
c)
biomass
d)
water
119.
Water is renewable because it.......
a)
can be frozen
b)
important to all life
c)
can be replaced constantly
d)
can evaporate
120.
Fossil fuels are classified as nonrenewable because they.......
a)
require expensive equipment
b)
take millions of years to replace
c)
can be found all over
d)
provide all the energy we use
121.
What is biomass?
a)
energy from the sun
b)
energy from water
c)
energy from wind
d)
energy from plant and animal waste
122.
What are two advantages of geothermal energy?
a)
cheap and a lot pollution
b)
expensive and a lot of pollution
c)
cheap and little pollution
d)
expensive and little pollution
123.
What are two advantages of geothermal energy?
a)
cheap and a lot pollution
b)
expensive and a lot of pollution
c)
cheap and little pollution
d)
expensive and little pollution
124.
What is the best example of a machine that converts electrical energy into kinetic energy and sound energy?
a)
an electric toothbrush
b)
a toaster
c)
a flashlight
d)
an iron
125.
What best describes the energy conversion that occurs when you turn on a hair dryer?
a)
electric to kinetic to thermal and sound
b)
chemical to thermal to light and sound
c)
nuclear to electrical to thermal and sound
d)
kinetic to light to thermal and sound
126.
What best describes the energy conversion that takes place in a microwave oven?
a)
electrical to light to thermal
b)
chemical to thermal to light
c)
electrical to thermal to sound
d)
nuclear to thermal to chemical
127.
Turning on a lamp is an example of energy transformation from electrical to 3 forms of energy. Which of these is NOT created by the lamp?
a)
radiant
b)
light
c)
heat
d)
chemical
128.
Which of the following energy transfers occurs when food is digested?
a)
chemical to mechanical
b)
radiant to nuclear
c)
mechanical to potential
d)
thermal to chemical
129.
In energy transformations, "wasted energy" usually takes what form?
a)
heat
b)
chemical energy
c)
light
d)
sound waves
130.
What kind of energy transformation takes place in this system?
a)
chemical to electrical to light
b)
electrical to chemical to light
c)
electrical to light to chemical
d)
light to chemical to electrical
131.
What kind of energy is in a moving skateboard?
a)
Potential
b)
Kinetic
132.
Which is the best example that something has kinetic energy?
a)
a. a car parked on a steep hill
b)
b. a tennis ball rolling across the court
c)
c. a picture hanging on the wall
d)
d. a piece of coal before it's burned
133.
When a pendulum swings, at which point is kinetic energy highest?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
134.
Which point has the most potential energy?
a)
G
b)
f
c)
b
d)
a
135.
Which 2 letters have the most kinetic energy
a)
W & Y
b)
X & Z
136.
How much potential energy is at the top of a hill on a rollar coaster ride
a)
100%
b)
50%
c)
0%
d)
20%
137.
In which step of Design Process do you compare the various ideas and select the best approach
a)
Ask
b)
Imagine
c)
Plan
d)
Improve
138.
Which step of the Design Process involves communicating the results of your tests
a)
Ask
b)
Imagine
c)
Improve
d)
Share Results
139.
If your initial design doesn't fully solve theproblem or meet the challenge, you must go back and revise your plan. This is part of which step in the Design Process?
a)
Create
b)
Improve
c)
Ask
d)
Imagine
140.
What is the step in the Design Process where you identify a problem or need that exists?
a)
Ask
b)
Imagine
c)
Plan
d)
Create
141.
A small group of people start sharing ideas. Some ideas may seem silly, but all suggestions are written down for further consideration. This activity is part of which step of the Design Process
a)
Ask
b)
Imagine
c)
Plan
d)
Create
142.
During which step of the Design Process do you experiment with the prototype under controlled conditions and collect /record data
a)
Test and Evaluate
b)
Imagine
c)
Improve
d)
Share Results
143.
In which step of the Design Process would the designer review the design criteria and make adjustments to the original plan if necessary?
a)
Create
b)
Plan
c)
Improve
d)
Share Results
144.
The only way to know if a design will work in real-world conditions is to build a model, or prototype, based on the plan. This is part of which step in the Design Process?
a)
Plan
b)
Imagine
c)
Create
d)
Improve
145.
During which step of the Design Process would the specific constraints or requirements of the challenge be identified
a)
Ask
b)
Plan
c)
Create
d)
Improve
146.
How will this object move?
a)
It won't move.
b)
It will move to the right.
c)
It will move to the left.
d)
It will move up.
147.
How will this object move?
a)
It won't move.
b)
It will move to the right.
c)
It will move to the left.
d)
It will move in both directions.
148.
What is the net force?
a)
30 N left
b)
25 N right
c)
5 N left
d)
55 N right
149.
What is the net force?
a)
40 N left
b)
0 N Balalnced
c)
400 N right
d)
40 N right
150.
Calculate the Net Force.
a)
60N, Left
b)
40N, Right
c)
0N
d)
60N, Right
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