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PSSA Science 8

Total questions: 161

Worksheet time: 5hrs 22mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of the following statements is part of the cell theory? 
a)
All cells come from pre-existing cells.
b)
Cells are the basic units of living things.
c)
All living things are made up of one or more cells.
d)
all of these
2.
According to the law of conservation of matter, the number of ________ is not changed by a chemical reaction. 
a)
products
b)
molecules
c)
bonds
d)
atoms
3.
An ecosystem that offers many different niches 
a)
supports animal life but not plant life.
b)
cannot support very many species at once.
c)
can support many different species.
d)
usually only supports insect life.
4.
Which of the following bodies of water are included in the freshwater biome? 
I. Rivers
II. Oceans
III. lakes
IV. Streams
a)
I, III, and IV only
b)
II only
c)
I and IV only
d)
I, II, III, and IV
5.
When precipitation falls onto land surfaces, it is either soaked into the ground or becomes runoff. Runoff is surface water that travels downhill and drains into streams and rivers.
The area of land where water is drained downhill into a body of water is known as a drainage basin, or _______. 
a)
delta
b)
aquifer
c)
watershed
d)
water table
6.
The table above lists many features of an ecosystem in the taiga biome. Based on this table, what are the abiotic features of the taiga? 
a)
wide range of temperature, very little annual rainfall, foxes, bears, raccoons, birds, insects
b)
bears, foxes, raccoons, birds, insects, pine trees, fir trees, spruce trees, mosses
c)
mountains, lakes, wide range of temperature, very little annual rainfall
d)
mountains, lakes, spruce trees, fir trees, pine trees, mosses
7.
Which of the following is true about mixtures and compounds? 
a)
A mixture contains different substances that are not chemically combined with one another.
b)
Mixtures and compounds are both made of two or more different substances.
c)
A compound forms when different substances chemically combine to form a new substance.
d)
all of these
8.
Look at the picture of two different substances above. Which substance is a mixture? 
a)
Y and Z
b)
neither Y nor Z
c)
Z
d)
Y
9.
Which of the following is a producer in the food web shown above? 
a)
grass
b)
ant
c)
snake
d)
sunlight
10.
The diagram is an example of a ________.
a)
food pyramid
b)
food web
c)
food chain
d)
food diagram
11.
Which of the following is a secondary consumer in the food chain shown above? 
a)
Skunk
b)
Sunlight
c)
Rose
d)
Honeybee
12.
Which of the choices below gives a true example of how a natural resource can be renewed? 
a)
When the wind is calm, electric fans can be turned on to make the windmills move.
b)
When forests have been cut down, new native trees can be planted.
c)
When an area's natural gas has been used up, oxygen can replace the gas.
d)
When all of the coal is gone from a mine, new coal can be grown in its place.
13.
Which of the following sequences correctly displays the energy transformation from the inside of a battery to the igniter inside a car's engine? 
a)
Electrical > Chemical > Heat
b)
Chemical > Electrical > Heat
c)
Chemical > Mechanical > Heat
d)
Heat > Electrical  > Chemical
14.
Gina is driving her car down the street. She has a teddy bear sitting on the back seat. A dog runs in front of Gina's car, so she quickly applies the brakes. The force of the brakes causes the car to stop, but the teddy bear continues to move forward until it hits the car's dashboard.
The teddy bear did not stop at the same time as the car because 
a)
only objects touching the Earth's surface can be acted upon by an outside force.
b)
more force is required to stop softer objects than to stop harder objects.
c)
objects in motion tend to stay in motion unless acted upon by an outside force.
d)
objects in motion can only be stopped by the application of a balanced force.
15.
A golf ball is dropped off of the side of a building. Ignore the effects of air resistance. As the ball continues to fall freely, the kinetic energy of the ball 
a)
increases
b)
decreases
c)
remains the same.
d)
equals zero.
16.
An object's gravitational potential energy is partly dependent on its acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s2 near Earth's surface). What two other factors determine the object's gravitational potential energy? 
a)
mass and height
b)
time and mass
c)
speed and height
d)
kinetic energy and speed
17.
Which of the following is a form of energy?
I. kinetic
II. thermal
III. potential
IV. electrical
a)
I and III only
b)
I, II, III, and IV
c)
IV only
d)
I, II, and III only
18.
Tamara pours hot tea into a cold mug. A few moments later, she picks up the mug, and the mug is now warm.
What is the main form of energy transfer involved in heating the mug? 
a)
radiation
b)
conduction
c)
convection
d)
all of these
19.
Melissa has a beaker of water. She adds heat energy to the water by placing the beaker over the flame of a Bunsen burner.
What happens to the motion of the water particles as Melissa adds heat energy to the water? 
a)
The water particles move faster.
b)
The water particles move slower.
c)
The motion of the water particles does not change.
d)
The water particles stop moving.
20.
Thermal energy is transferred as heat from a warmer object to a cooler object until 
a)
all of the energy from the cold object is transferred to the hot object.
b)
the temperature is the same in both objects.
c)
the thermal energy is converted into another type of energy such as light.
d)
all of the energy from the hot object is transferred to the cold object.
21.
Look at the energy pyramid shown.  If a pesticide is released into the environment that kills most of the grasshoppers, which of the following is most likely to occur? 
a)
a decrease in the amount of grass
b)
a decrease in the number of snakes
c)
an increase in the number of hawks
d)
an increase in population for all organisms
22.
Which of the following is an effect of pollution?
I. global warming
II. increase in human poulation size
III. acid rain
IV. ozone depletion
a)
I, II, and III only
b)
I, II, III, and IV
c)
I and II only
d)
I, III, and IV only
23.
Which of the following describes a negative affect that global warming could have on plant life on Earth?
a)
I, II, III, and IV
b)
I, II, and IV only
c)
II only
d)
II and III only
24.
The narrow, elongated, hollow cells that make up xylem tissue of plants allow for 
a)
the production of glucose by photosynthesis.
b)
the transport of water and ions.
c)
the longterm storage of starch for future energy requirements.
d)
pollination of flowers by insects.
25.
Behavioral responses in complex organisms require coordination and communication between 
a)
II and IV only
b)
I, II, III, and IV
c)
II, III, and IV only
d)
I, II, and IV only
26.
The majority of photosynthesis occurring in plants takes place in the upper palisade layer of leaves. Therefore, it can be concluded that cells in the upper palisade layer contain more ________ than other parts of the plant. 
a)
chloroplasts
b)
vacuoles
c)
mitochondria
d)
nucleii
27.
How do organisms grow and repair themselves? 
a)
Organisms store more food to become bigger.
b)
Each cell keeps growing bigger.
c)
Cells continually divide to make more cells.
d)
Cells only divide when tissue is damaged.
28.
Some species are symbiotic to each other, meaning they live together in a close, long-term association. What is the term for a symbiotic relationship in which both participating species benefit? 
a)
commensalism
b)
beneficialism
c)
parasitism
d)
mutualism
29.
A flea may live on the skin of a dog and feed on the dog's blood. This relationship between the flea and the dog is an example of _______. 
a)
commensalism
b)
competition
c)
mutualism
d)
parasitism
30.
This picture of vultures swarming around a cow suggests which of the following? 
a)
Vultures are directly responsible for the decomposition of the carcass of the cow.
b)
Vultures have become predators of cows during the course of their evolution.
c)
This cow was killed by a predator, and the vultures are scavenging.
d)
A producer/consumer relationship exists between the vultures and the cow.
31.
A substance is found to be reactive, flammable, soluble, and explosive. Which of these observations is a physical property? 
a)
soluble
b)
explosive
c)
reactive
d)
flammable
32.
Marjorie is trying to determine the identity of an unknown substance. After running tests, she determines that the substance is insoluble in CCl4 with a density of about 2.2 g/mL. Using the data, which of the following substances is most likely Marjorie's unknown? 
a)
C10H8
b)
NaCl
c)
FeCl3
d)
SiO2
33.
When identifying minerals, scientists often look at the color of the mineral when it is in powdered form. What is this color called? 
a)
the color of the mineral
b)
the grain of the mineral
c)
the luster of the mineral
d)
the streak of the mineral
34.
Which of the following describes a chemical property of a metal? 
a)
attracted to a magnet
b)
reacts with acid
c)
conducts electricity
d)
high melting point
35.
Calvin is pouring water through a sample of soil, and measuring the amount of time it takes 500 milliliters of water to pass through it. Soils that allow water to pass through them faster are more _______. 
a)
permeable
b)
porous
c)
acidic
d)
fertile
36.
Some soils are made mostly of loess. Loess is silt-sized sediment deposited by _______. 
a)
ocean waves
b)
rivers
c)
landslides
d)
wind
37.
Which of the following processes most directly helps create soil from rocks? 
a)
plate tectonics
b)
weathering
c)
melting
d)
pressure
38.
A complete soil profile includes three layers— 
a)
topsoil, subsoil, and parent material.
b)
richsoil, parent material, and subsoil.
c)
drysoil, wetsoil, and thicksoil.
d)
topsoil, midsoil, and bottomsoil.
39.
Look at the tooth. Which animal below has teeth similar to the tooth above?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
40.
Plants have adapted many ways to spread the pollen and seeds that help the plant be able to reproduce.
 _______ help attract insects and animals to spread pollen to other areas, while _______ help to spread seeds to other areas. 
a)
Roots; Flowers
b)
Flowers; fruits
c)
Leaves; roots
d)
Fruits; leaves
41.
While visiting the Galapagos Islands, Charles Darwin noticed several species of birds, which he called finches. These finches were similar in some ways but different in others.
Some of the finches that Charles Darwin observed on the Galapagos Islands fed on tiny insect parasites living on the skin of tortoises and lizards. These finches would reach their beaks into small, narrow folds in the animals' skin to catch their insect prey. Which finch below most likely fed on the smallest insects?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
42.
Seasonal changes occur when the Earth moves so that the Northern Hemisphere and the Southern Hemisphere are tilted more toward or away from the Sun. If the Northern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun and it is summer, what is happening in the Southern Hemisphere? 
a)
The Southern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun, and it is winter.
b)
The Southern Hemisphere is tilted away from the Sun, and it is summer.
c)
The Southern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun, and it is winter.
d)
The Southern Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun, and it is summer.
43.
During a total lunar eclipse, the Earth, Sun, and Moon are arranged in a line, and the Moon is completely dark.
In what order do the Earth, Sun, and Moon line up? 
a)
Sun, Earth, Moon
b)
Earth, Moon, Sun
c)
Moon, Sun, Earth
d)
Sun, Moon, Earth
44.
The image above was taken by the spacecraft Messenger as it flew by the planet Mercury. The terrain shown in this image is typical for the surface of Mercury. There are many circular depressions of various sizes in the scene (the largest one in the upper right part of the image is about 133 km across). These depressions are called _______ and formed when asteroids and comets struck the planet. 
a)
volcanoes
b)
tectonic plates
c)
mountain ranges
d)
impact craters
45.
Which of the following is true about the solar system? 
a)
Earth is the only planet that has a moon.
b)
Most of the planets have moons.
c)
All of the planets have moons.
d)
None of the planets have moons.
46.
Which of the following statements about the Sun is true? 
a)
The Sun is one of only a few stars in the galaxy but is much smaller than any of the other stars.
b)
The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy, many of which are very similar to the Sun.
c)
The Sun is one of only a few stars in the galaxy but is much larger than any of the other stars.
d)
The Sun is only one of billions of stars in the galaxy but is much smaller than any of the other stars.
47.
A celestial body is any natural (i.e., not man-made) object in the sky. Which celestial bodies orbit the Sun?
a)
IV only
b)
I, II, III, and IV
c)
II, III, and IV only
d)
I, II, and III only
48.
Many events that occur on Earth and in the solar system are related to the fact that most objects in the solar system move in regular and predictable patterns.

What causes objects in the solar system to move in these regular and predictable patterns? 
a)
gravitational forces
b)
nuclear forces
c)
frictional forces
d)
electrical forces
49.

A student is able to lift a piece of cement using a pulley system. How does using the pulley system make lifting the piece of cement easier?

a)

it reduces the acceleration of the piece of cement

b)

it double the amount of force needed from the student

c)

it changes the direction of the force applied by the student

d)

it divides the mass of the piece of cement into two smaller parts

50.

Which statement best describes an energy change as a book falls off the edge of a table?

a)

kinetic energy is converted to gravity

b)

potential energy is converted to gravity

c)

kinetic energy is converted to potential

d)

potential energy is converted to kinetic energy

51.

Life on Earth is maintained through energy transformations. Which of the following is the original source of energy for most of these transformations?

a)

soil

b)

sugar

c)

plants

d)

sunlight

52.

Which arrow represents the gravitational force acting on the block?

a)

arrow 1

b)

arrow 2

c)

arrow 3

d)

arrow 4

53.

Burning coal releases ash particles, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and mercury into the atmosphere. Which statement about one or more of these substances is accurate?

a)

Mercury is harmless to the environment.

b)

Ash particle on leaves benefit plant life.

c)

Particles and chemicals can pollute the air but cannot harm water sources.

d)

Sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxides can pollute water sources by forming acid rain.

54.

Which statement best describes a reason to develop alternative fuels to replace fossil fuels?

a)

Fossil fuels are not energy efficient.

b)

Fossil fuels take a long time to form.

c)

Alternative fuels are cheaper than fossil fuels.

d)

Alternative fuels are made from natural resources.

55.

Which statement best describes an energy transformation that occurs in muscles to help an organism move?

a)

Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy

b)

Potential energy is converted to chemical energy

c)

Mechanical energy is converted to chemical energy

d)

Chemical energy is converted to mechanical energy

56.

Which energy source is renewable?

a)

coal

b)

sunlight

c)

petroleum

d)

natural gas

57.

Acid rain forms from sulfur combining with water in the atmosphere to form sulfuric acid. What are the reactants of this reaction?

a)

water and sulfur

b)

sulfuric acid and water

c)

sulfuric acid and sulfur

d)

water, sulfur and sulfuric acid

58.

Which properties can best help a student distinguish between two different minerals that are the same color?

a)

mass and hardness

b)

streak and hardness

c)

volume and magnetism

d)

temperature and magnetism

59.

A magnet is placed near a sample of iron sulfide. The iron sulfide is not attracted to the magnet. Which statement best explains why the magnet does not attract the iron sulfide?

a)

Iron and sulfur do not react chemically

b)

The sample does not contain a large amount of iron

c)

The individual components of iron sulfide are evenly mixed together.

d)

The properties of iron sulfide are different from those of the elements iron and sulfur.

60.

Which statement best explains why scientific theories can change over time?

a)

scientists are making new discoveries

b)

scientists are expressing new opinions

c)

hypotheses are facts and supported by reliable data

d)

hypotheses are complex and supported by many experimental trials

61.

Which method could researchers use to best predict the atmospheric nitrogen concentration on Earth in 50 years?

a)

field study

b)

computer models

c)

controlled lab investigations

d)

survey of past studies on the internet

62.

Which statement is supported by the information in the data table?

a)

Planets located closest to the Sun have less mass.

b)

Planets have more mass the greater their distance from the Sun.

c)

Planets less than two astronomical units (AU) from the Sun are less massive than Earth

d)

Planets more than two astronomical units (AU) from the Sun are less massive than Earth

63.

Which unintended consequence would most likely result from preventing a forest fire?

a)

saving human lives

b)

saving human-made structures

c)

future fires will be larger

d)

future fires will be smaller

64.

Storm chasers are individuals who track severe weather to collect data about weather phenomena. Which statement best describes how storm chasers are able to predict the

location of likely severe weather?

a)

They go where weather events happened the previous day.

b)

They use computer models designed from past weather data.

c)

They watch local television weather stations and read newspapers.

d)

They use animal behavior to predict the location of weather events.

65.

Over one billion tons of chemical pesticides are used in the United States each year. Which statement best describes why there is interest in developing reliable alternatives to

chemical pesticides?

a)

Chemical pesticides are only effective in small quantities.

b)

Chemical pesticides can get into water and food supplies.

c)

Chemical pesticides reduce quantities of harvested crops.

d)

Chemical pesticides kill pests by changing their cell functions.

66.

Which scientific concept could a farmer use to predict which traits will be passed onto future generations of livestock?

a)

Newton's Laws

b)

natural selection

c)

scientific method

d)

Mendilian genetics

67.

Which technological change has helped increase the shelf-life of some food products?

a)

increased fuel milage

b)

cheaper ocean shipping

c)

better packaging materials

d)

enhanced communications

68.

Based on the graph, which ratio represents the relationship between an increase in water depth and a decrease in water temperature?

a)

0:25

b)

2:1

c)

8:5

d)

40:5

69.

Which change will most likely cause a population increase of algae in a lake?

a)

decrease of sediments

b)

an increase in water depth

c)

a decrease in water temperature

d)

an increase of available nutrients

70.

A student measures the mass of a candle before burning it. The student lights the candle. What is the best inference that the student could make about the candle after it has burned

for 30 minutes?

a)

The candle burning is a physical reaction.

b)

The potential energy will increase as it burns.

c)

The mass of the candle will change as it burns

d)

he candle will burn more brightly after 30 minutes.

71.

A wildfire burned a large section of a forest. In the weeks after the fire, new grasses and flowering plants began to grow. Scientists explained that a wildfire can be beneficial to a forest ecosystem. Which statement best explains why wildfires can be beneficial to a forest ecosystem?

a)

Clearing forests makes it easier for the area to be used for farming.

b)

Periodic changes in a forest ecosystem can lead to increased stability.

c)

Removing predators from a forest ecosystem can lead to increased forest health.

d)

Occasional fires reduce the amount of animal competition in the forest ecosystem.

72.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

73.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

74.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

75.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.
A scientist is observing a rare monkey in the jungle, and the monkey begins exhibiting an odd behavior. The scientist thinks this behavior may not have been observed in this species before, but he is not certain. The scientist records video of the behavior and takes many detailed notes.
The scientist becomes very excited about his finding and plans to share it with other scientists. The best way for him to communicate and defend his finding would be to 
a)
immediately write a report claiming a newly discovered behavior, and then check later to see if others have observed it before.
b)
defend his finding as a new discovery, even if another scientist has already published a report about the behavior.
c)
confirm that the behavior has not been observed before, and then present his finding in a report.
d)
wait until other scientists ask him about his trip to the jungle, and then tell them about his finding.
77.

Dr. Peterson does an experiment to research the growth rate of mice. He has two groups of mice. He feeds one group a type of food and adds chemical A, which is supposed to increase growth rate. The other group he feeds the same food without chemical A added. His research shows that chemical A increases growth rate by 30%. He does the experiment 4 times and comes up with the same result each time.

Dr. Peterson concludes that chemical A does increase the growth rate of mice. Is Dr. Peterson's conclusion supported by scientific knowledge?

a)

No; scientific knowledge never comes from research or experiments.

b)

No; science cannot be used to research small animals such as mice.

c)

Yes; his conclusion is supported by evidence from his experiment.

d)

Yes; any study that involves a percentage is based on scientific knowledge.

78.
Which statements about scientific explanations are true?
I.  Scientific explanations must prove that a hypothesis is true.
II.  Scientific explanations should be based on evidence or data.
III.  Scientific explanations must have logical and consistent arguments.
IV.  Scientific explanations should use scientific principles, models, and theories.
a)
II and III only
b)
II, III and IV only
c)
I, II, III and IV
d)
I, II and III only
79.
Inferences are 
a)
never made by scientists.
b)
exactly the same as observations.
c)
questions that are made by studying conclusions or predictions.
d)
conclusions or predictions that are made by studying observations.
80.
The production of oxygen from a reactant in a chemical reaction is shown. The graph shows the volume of oxygen produced as a function of the amount of reactant consumed. If the trend continues, how much oxygen will be produced when 25 g of the reactant is consumed? 
a)
3.0 ml
b)
1.5 ml
c)
5.0 ml
d)
4.0 ml
81.
Quantitative observations always include _______. 
a)
words
b)
symbols
c)
numbers
d)
time
82.
What is the volume of the liquid in the graduated cylinder shown above? 
a)
25.6 L
b)
23.1 L
c)
25.6 mL
d)
23.1 mL
83.
When scientists use one of their five senses to gather information, they are 
a)
making an observation.
b)
predicting a relationship
c)
drawing a conclusion.
d)
making an inference.
84.
The triple-beam balance shown above measures in grams. What is the mass of the chick? 
a)
10 kg, 7.5 g
b)
175 g
c)
17.5 g
d)
10.75 g
85.
The mass of a block was measured in grams using a triple beam balance. Using the picture, determine the mass of the block.
a)
94.71 g
b)
179.39 g
c)
1793.9 g
d)
709.4 g
86.
Tony recorded data from his chemistry experiment in the following table. Which of the categories from Tony's data table includes qualitative observations? 
a)
temperature
b)
volume
c)
mass
d)
color
87.
A student would like to determine how heating a liquid changes its volume. The student hypothesizes that the liquid will increase in volume. The following list shows the steps taken by the student in order to test the hypothesis.
 1. Select the liquid to test.
2. Place the liquid in a sealed container. 3. Use a Bunsen burner to heat the liquid by 10°C.
4. Measure the volume of the liquid.
5. Record the results.
What is wrong with how the student conducted the investigation? 
a)
The student should have increased the temperature of the liquid by more than 10ºC.
b)
The length of time it took for the liquid to be heated should be measured.
c)
The hypothesis was not valid because it is impossible for liquids to change in volume.
d)
The volume of the liquid should be measured before it is heated.
88.
Beth wanted to find out whether or not salt affects how quickly ice melts. She used an ice cube tray to make 10 ice cubes of the same shape and size. Then, she placed the ice cubes on the same windowsill. She sprinkled each ice cube with one teaspoon of salt, and timed how long it took for the cubes to melt. She recorded all of the data.
If someone else read the data, would he or she be able to make an accurate conclusion about the effect of salt on ice? 
a)
No, because Beth should have used a different amount of salt on each of the ice cubes.
b)
Yes, because using 10 ice cubes gives enough trials for the results to be accurate.
c)
No, because the data does not show how quickly the ice would have melted without the salt.
d)
Yes, because Beth used only one independent variable and everything else was the same.
89.
The observed results of an experiment that occur from changes in the independent variable are known as _______.
a)
controlled variables
b)
dependent variables
c)
constants
d)
trials
90.
Janet learned in science class that the amount of salt that can dissolve in a certain amount of water depends on the temperature of the water. She decides to do an experiment to test this.
She carefully adds salt, 100 mg at a time, to a cup of water and stirs until all the salt dissolves. When she has added so much salt that it will not dissolve after 5 minutes, she measures the temperature of the water. She records the temperature and the final amount of salt. She does this with cold water, cool water, room-temperature water, warm water, and hot water.
What is the independent variable in this experiment? 
a)
how long it took the salt to dissolve
b)
amount of water
c)
temperature of the water
d)
amount of salt
91.
Emilio's teacher told his class that a controlled experiment's results are valid only if one factor in the experiment is changed and all the other factors remain constant. Why is this statement true? 
a)
When only one factor is changed, you can be more certain that it caused the results.
b)
When only one factor is changed, you don't need to use a control.
c)
Changing several different factors in an experiment takes too much time.
d)
Changing several different factors in an experiment takes too many controls.
92.
How do the independent and dependent variables in an experiment compare? 
a)
The independent variable controls the dependent variables.
b)
The independent and dependent variables are the exact same as each other.
c)
The dependent variable controls the independent variables.
d)
The independent and dependent variables have no effect on each other.
93.
Javier has found a beetle during a field study. He suspects that it might be a new species of beetle that no one has ever documented before. He takes the beetle back to his lab and examines it under a microscope. What does Javier need to do so that he can accurately compare his beetle to known species of beetle?
a)
Javier must carefully record and describe the beetle's response to laser light.
b)
Javier must compare the beetle's foot speed to that of an ant.
c)
Javier must carefully record and describe all of the characteristics of his beetle.
d)
Javier must collect some of the beetle's tissue so it can be cloned.
94.
Which of the following tools is used to observe objects that are very far away? 
a)
hand lens
b)
anemometer
c)
microscope
d)
telescope
95.
Tara heated a beaker on a hot plate. Then, she set the solution on the countertop to cool. Her lab partner, Molly, did not realize that the beaker was hot and touched it with her bare fingers.
What should Molly do to treat her burn? 
a)
wave her fingers quickly through the air
b)
put her fingers in her mouth
c)
rub butter, oil, or lotion on her fingers
d)
hold her fingers under cold running water
96.
Grady put water and a thermometer in a metal can. He added ice cubes one at a time and stirred the water carefully, as shown in the diagram above. When he noticed water droplets begin to form on the outside of the can, he recorded the temperature.
What did this experiment most directly measure? 
a)
air temperature
b)
dew point
c)
air pressure
d)
relative humidity
97.
With the invention of the microscope, scientists became able to see more details of very small objects, such as cells. Now, many of the inner particles and workings of cells are better understood.
The invention of the microscope and its use in studying cells show that technology 
a)
makes scientific knowledge unnecessary.
b)
hinders the development of scientific knowledge.
c)
has no effect on the gain of scientific knowledge.
d)
can contribute to and increase scientific knowledge.
98.
Which of the following may be considered a hazard in the laboratory? 
a)
open-toed shoes
b)
long hair
c)
loose-fitting clothing
d)
all of these
99.
This instrument is read by looking at the number that the pointer moves to when an object is placed on the hook.
What is the function of this instrument? 
a)
measure the speed of an object in miles per hour
b)
measure the weight or force of an object in Newtons
c)
measure the height of an object in centimeters
d)
measure the mass of an object in kilograms
100.
Stuart designed and built a water filter in class. He wants to know if it will make water from lakes or streams safe to drink. Which of the following would it be best for Stuart to measure in an experiment in order to test his design and answer this question? 
a)
the amount of bacteria and impurities in water both before and after it passes through his filter
b)
the diameter of the largest grain of dust, dirt, or sand that can pass through his filter
c)
the amount of time required for different volumes of water to pass through his filter
d)
the maximum force that can be applied to his filter without breaking it
101.
Which of the following best describes the difference between science and technology? 
a)
Technological principles must be supported by evidence and data, while scientific principles do not require evidence and data.
b)
The goal of technology is to gain knowledge about the natural world, while the goal of science is to create new processes or products for human use.
c)
Scientific principles must be supported by evidence and data, while technological principles do not require evidence and data.
d)
The goal of science is to gain knowledge about the natural world, while the goal of technology is to create new processes or products for human use.
102.
Jamal wants to make a model of a hill near his house to test the way the slope affects how rain runs down the hill. Which type of model would be best for what he needs? 
a)
a scale-model mound made of the same materials that make the real hill
b)
a scale drawing of a cross-section of the hill
c)
a scale drawing of the hill, looking down on it
d)
a chart with measurements giving the height of the hill at various places on it
103.
Doug has filled a long tray with an even layer of sand. Doug then uses two bricks to prop up one side of the tray. Next, Doug uses a watering can to pour water onto the high side of the tray. What natural process is Doug most likely modeling? 
a)
a volcanic eruption
b)
an earthquake
c)
erosion
d)
the rock cycle
104.
A company is developing a new type of airplane that can take off like a helicopter. Before they begin manufacturing the airplanes on a large scale, they first build a prototype. What is the main purpose of building a prototype? 
a)
to train factory workers about how to make the product on a large scale
b)
to find a market in which to sell the product
c)
to make sure the design works as expected
d)
to show future customers what the product will look like
105.
During the rock cycle, cooling magma and lava form igneous rock, heat and pressure cause other rocks to turn into metamorphic rock, and weathered rock on the surface is eventually turned into sedimentary rock. Rocks move through this cycle at different rates, but it can take some rocks several billion years to complete the cycle. Using this information, what is the most likely reason why scientists use models to study the rock cycle? 
a)
The rock cycle no longer occurs on Earth.
b)
The rock cycle takes too long to be able to observe it in its entirety.
c)
The rock cycle only affects objects that are too small to be observed directly.
d)
The rock cycle is only an abstract idea and does not actually occur in nature.
106.
During the 1900s, the following genetic discoveries were made:  

As a result of these scientific discoveries, scientists are now able to 
a)
clone certain organisms.
b)
change portions of genetic code to treat disease.
c)
determine some organisms' genetic sequences.
d)
all of these
107.
Which is an example of how technology has aided in the conservation of forests?
a)
I, II, III, and IV
b)
I, III, and IV only
c)
I and III only
d)
II and IV only
108.
The germ theory of disease eventually led to the development of _______. 
a)
antihistamines
b)
pain relievers
c)
vaccines
d)
DNA
109.
Which of the following is a good scientific question? 
a)
Are dragons lizards or birds?
b)
How do star fish fall in love?
c)
Why do crickets chirp?
d)
Does eating less fat increase a mouse's life span?
110.
Which of the following statements is true regarding scientific hypotheses? 
a)
There are no valuable hypotheses.
b)
Every hypothesis is valuable, whether or not it is testable.
c)
A testable hypothesis is valuable, even if evidence shows that it is false.
d)
A testable hypothesis is valuable only if all evidence supports it.
111.
Scientific inquiry attempts to search out, describe, explain, and predict things that happen in nature. Which of the following best describes how progress is made in scientific inquiry? 
a)
by researching the history of science and learning about scientific progress in the past
b)
by asking questions and researching the answers in papers, books, and on the internet
c)
by asking questions and collecting, analyzing, and interpreting data to answer them
d)
by asking questions and collecting, analyzing, and interpreting different people's opinions
112.
Manuel tested the effects of temperature on the solubility of sugar in water. He measured the maximum amount of sucrose (in grams) he could dissolve in 100 g of water. Manuel repeated the test at five different temperatures. The graph of his results is included below. 
Based on his observations, which of the following is a general hypothesis Manuel might form? 
a)
The increasing solubility of a solid raises the temperature of water.
b)
The decreasing solubility of a solid raises the temperature of water.
c)
The solubility of a solid decreases as the temperature increases.
d)
The solubility of a solid increases as the temperature increases.
113.
What is the difference between a theory and an opinion? 
a)
A theory is a scientific fact, while an opinion is not.
b)
An opinion is a scientific fact, while a theory is not.
c)
An opinion is supported by scientific evidence, while a theory is not.
d)
A theory is supported by scientific evidence, while an opinion is not.
114.
A scientific theory is a well-tested explanation for a wide range of observations or experimental results. A hypothesis is a possible answer to a question. When does a hypothesis become a scientific theory? 
a)
after a hypothesis is shown to be correct in one experiment
b)
after a competing hypothesis has failed testing
c)
after the hypothesis has been confirmed through extensive testing
d)
after the hypothesis is first formed by a scientist
115.
The flowchart below shows the major steps in a system that builds mp3 players. 
Which of the steps in the system are examples of processes? 
a)
I, III, and V only
b)
I, II, III, and IV only
c)
II and IV only
d)
I, II, III, IV and V
116.
What do the lunar cycle, bird migration, and cell mitosis have in common? 
a)
They are all included in the discipline called biology.
b)
None of them are predictable.
c)
They are all natural events that occur in a pattern.
d)
None of them are studied by scientists today.
117.
The finished product or waste that forms as a result of a process is known as _______. 
a)
the output
b)
negative feedback
c)
the input
d)
positive feedback
118.
The following table describes four different systems. Which is an example of an open system? 
a)
a food web
b)
the universe
c)
the water cycle
d)
the carbon cycle
119.
A system is a group of related parts with specific roles that work together to achieve an observed result. Which of the following are the main parts of the circulatory system? 
a)
the brain and spinal cord
b)
heart, blood, and blood vessels
c)
the human body and its organ systems
d)
red blood cells and white blood cells
120.
The diagram above shows the feedback loop of a home heating system. What will happen in the system if the thermostat breaks while the furnace is off? 
a)
Only the furnace will be affected.
b)
The temperature will go above the thermostat temperature.
c)
The fans will start to blow warm air.
d)
The whole system will no longer function properly.
121.

An increase in human activity would most likely result in the most air pollution?

a)

driving cars

b)

watering plants

c)

food production

d)

recycling plastic

122.

Use the table to answer the question below. About what time did the sun most likely rise on May 1 at location X?

a)

4:30 AM

b)

5:19 AM

c)

6:03 AM

d)

6:54 AM

123.

Use the circle graph below to answer question 3. Which conclusion can be made based on the data in the circle graph?

a)

more people walk to work than ride a bus.

b)

riding a bus in Wilkes-Barre is very expensive.

c)

few people enjoy driving a car alone to get to work.

d)

carpooling is more popular than driving a car alone.

124.

Use the drawing below to answer question 4. Which type of information can a student collect using the tool in the drawing?

a)

mass of a solid

b)

height of a solid

c)

volume of a liquid

d)

temperature of a liquid

125.

Which two systems are most likely both human made?

a)

a river and a sailboat

b)

a flower and a beehive

c)

a planet and a telescope

d)

a stapler and a computer

126.

Use the food web to answer the question below. Which statement best describes sunlight and how it affects this food web?

a)

Sunlight is living and enters the food web through the hawk and the fox.

b)

Sunlight is living and enters the food web through the maple tree leaves.

c)

Sunlight is nonliving and enters the food web through the hawk and the fox.

d)

Sunlight is nonliving and enters the food web through the maple tree leaves.

127.

Which of the following shows the correct order of a frog's life cycle?

a)

tadpole, young frog, egg, adult frog

b)

adult frog, egg, young frog, tadpole

c)

egg, tadpole, young frog, adult frog

d)

young frog, egg, adult frog, tadpole

128.

In the spring, some golden eagles fly north over Pennsylvania. In the fall, they fly back south for the winter. Which statement best describes why these golden eagles live in southern areas in winter?

a)

In northern areas, there is less food for eagles in winter.

b)

In northern areas, there are more competing birds in winter.

c)

In southern areas, there are fewer eagle predators in winter.

d)

In southern areas, there is more space for eagle nesting in winter.

129.

Which type of land use is least likely in a city?

a)

housing

b)

businesses

c)

large farms

d)

small parks

130.

Which sense can best be used to describe the texture of an object?

a)

taste

b)

sight

c)

smell

d)

touch

131.

Which forms of energy are produced by the sun?

a)

light and heat

b)

light and chemical

c)

electrical and heat

d)

electrical and chemcial

132.

Which statement describes the movement of objects in the Sun-Earth-Moon system?

a)

Earth travels around the Moon and the Sun.

b)

The Sun travels around Earth and the Moon.

c)

Earth travels around the Sun, and the Moon travels around Earth.

d)

The Sun travels around Earth, and the Moon travels around Earth.

133.
Number of protons and Neutrons
a)
Atomic Mass
b)
Atomic Number
134.
Number of protons
a)
Atoms
b)
Atomic Number
135.
(physics and chemistry) the smallest component of an element having the chemical properties of the element
a)
electrons
b)
element
c)
atoms
d)
compound
136.
A substance made up of atoms of two or more different elements joined by chemical bonds.
a)
Metalloid
b)
Mixture
c)
Matter
d)
Compound
137.
Negatively charged subatomic particles.
a)
Electrons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Protons
d)
Elements
138.
A pure substance that cannot be broken down into other substances by chemical or physical means.
a)
Matter
b)
Element
c)
Alloy
d)
Molecule
139.
Anything that has mass and takes up space. 
a)
Mixture
b)
Metal
c)
Matter
d)
Compound
140.
A class of elements characterized by physical properties that include shininess, malleability, ductility, and conductivity.
a)
Metalloid
b)
Metal
c)
Alloy
d)
Mixture
141.
Element that shares some properties of both metals and no metals.
a)
Metalloid
b)
Proton
c)
Alloy
d)
Mixture
142.
A combination of two or more substances that are not chemically combined. 
a)
Neutrons
b)
Compound
c)
Mixture
d)
Periodic Table 
143.
Neutrally charged subatomic particles.
a)
Neutrons
b)
Protons
c)
Alloys
d)
Electrons
144.
Element that is usually a gas or brittle solid at room temperature and is poor conductor of head and electricity.
a)
Metal
b)
Nonmetal
c)
Periodic Table
d)
Alloy
145.
A table that shows the elements, their atomic number, symbol, and average atomic mass, elements with similar chemical properties are grouped together.
a)
Periodic Table
b)
Compounds
c)
Mixture
d)
Element
146.
Positively charged subatomic particles.
a)
Electrons
b)
Neutrons
c)
Protons
d)
Atoms
147.
A homogenous mixture of two or more substances.
a)
mixture
b)
compound
c)
solution
d)
atom
148.
A mixture of two or more metals.
a)
Nonmetal
b)
Alloy
c)
Mixture
d)
Metal
149.
A group of atoms bonded together. 
a)
Molecule
b)
Mixture
c)
Electrons
d)
Compound
150.

Which process has increased the availability of fresh food to many people all over the United States?

a)

boiling and storing food in glass jars

b)

packing meat in salt to remove water

c)

transporting food in refrigerated trucks

d)

using stoves powered by natural gas to cook food

151.
a)

The hawks will hibernate.

b)

The hawks will eat more deer mice.

c)

The hawks will feed on wheat plants.

d)

The hawks will use sunlight to produce energy.

152.
a)

The greatest number of hawks was observed on day 4.

b)

Broad-winged hawks fly faster than other types of hawks.

c)

More red-tailed hawks were observed than sharp-shinned hawks.

d)

Migrating hawks prefer Hawk Mountain Sanctuary over other bird sanctuaries.

153.
a)

water

b)

algae

c)

snail

d)

fish

154.
a)

precipitation and runoff

b)

runoff and condensation

c)

evaporation and precipitation

d)

condensation and evaporation

155.
a)

1 cm

b)

10 cm

c)

25 cm

d)

50 cm

156.

Which physical characteristic can be passed on to offspring?

a)

long beard

b)

strong arm

c)

pierced ear

d)

brown hair

157.

Erie National Wildlife Refuge has many creeks, ponds, and marshes. It attracts over 200 types of birds. Which birds depend most on the water in the refuge?

a)

birds that eat fish

b)

birds that hibernate

c)

birds that eat snakes

d)

birds that build nests

158.

Which sequence shows the most likely steps humans use to produce lumber from trees for construction purposes?

a)
b)
c)
d)
159.
a)

Add a source of power.

b)

Add a second light bulb.

c)

Move the switch farther away from the light bulb.

d)

Replace the copper wire with a different type of metal wire.

160.
a)

The bicycle speeds up due to the friction between the brake pad and the wheel.

b)

The bicycle slows down due to the friction between the brake pad and the wheel.

c)

The bicycle speeds up due to the magnetism between the brake pad and the wheel.

d)

The bicycle slows down due to the magnetism between the brake pad and the wheel.

161.

In late spring, a student notices very tall, puffy clouds forming quickly in the sky. The clouds seem to be getting taller and are turning dark gray. Which weather forecast can best be made from these observations?

a)

Cirrus clouds are forming and fair weather is expected.

b)

Cumulus clouds are forming and dry, cold weather is expected.

c)

Cumulonimbus clouds are forming and a thunderstorm is likely.

d)

Stratus clouds are forming and a late-season snowstorm is likely.

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