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3C Molecular Genetics and Biotechnology

Total questions: 125

Worksheet time: 1hrs 3mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following are true statements regarding the relationship among DNA, genes,and chromosomes?

a)

DNA is a location on a gene

b)

Genes are made up of chromosomes and proteins

c)

Genes are found on chromosomes

d)

Chromosomes are found on DNA

e)

Chromosomes are made up of DNA and proteins

2.

According to central dogma of molecular biology, which of the following transfers of information is not possible?

a)

From DNA to DNA

b)

From DNA to RNA

c)

from RNA to protein

d)

From protein to RNA

3.

Genes contain instructions for assembling which of the following?

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

cells

d)

Proteins

4.

Why is the nucleotide sequence of DNA important?

a)

It specifies the type of sugar found

b)

It specifies the type of hydrogen bonds formed

c)

It specifies the genetic code used to make proteins

d)

It specifies the phosphate bonds formed

5.

What is the primary purpose of DNA replication?

a)

To reduce the amount of DNA in the nucleus of each cell

b)

To ensure that daughter cells have a complete copy of DNA

c)

To create new sequences of DNA that code for different proteins

d)

To multiple the amount of DNA in the nucleus of each cell

6.

Which part of DNA carries genetic information?

a)

The phosphate-sugar backbone

b)

The order of nitrogenous bases

c)

The hydrogen bonds between nucleotides

d)

The deoxyribose sugar

7.

Which statement best describes the function of DNA in all cells?

a)

DNA serves to block all mutations in a cell

b)

DNA carries its information to the cytoplasm for exocytosis

c)

DNA directs the synthesis of proteins for the cell

d)

DNA acts as a chemical messenger for the cell

8.

Once DNA is replicated during the cell cycle, which process is necessary to create daughter cells with the normal number of chromosomes?

a)

Mitosis

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

meiosis

d)

Semi-conservative replication

9.

In an unmutated segment of DNA, the thymine molecules will pair with an equal number of which type of molecule?

a)

Adenine

b)

Uracil

c)

guanine

d)

Cytosine

10.

One long, continuous strand of DNA would be found in which of the following?

a)

A chromosome

b)

A gene

c)

a protein

d)

An amino acid

11.

The nucleotide sequence of “unzipped” portions of DNA is GCGATA. What would be the complementary nucleotide sequence?

a)

CGCTAT

b)

GATGCT

c)

CGCUAU

d)

CCTATA

12.

The nucleotide sequence of “unzipped” portions of DNA is CTACGA. What would be the complementary nucleotide sequence?

a)

CGCTAT

b)

GATGCT

c)

AAGTCC

d)

GAUGCU

13.

The nucleotide sequence of “unzipped” portions of DNA is TTCAGG. What would be the complementary nucleotide sequence?

a)

CGCTAT

b)

AAGUCC

c)

AAGTCC

d)

CCTATA

14.

The nucleotide sequence of “unzipped” portions of DNA is GGATAT. What would be the complementary nucleotide sequence?

a)

CCUAUA

b)

GATGCT

c)

AAGTCC

d)

CCTATA

15.

The diagram represents the sequence of base pairs along a small section of DNA.

Which bases correspond to the question mark?

a)

UGAACG

b)

ACTTGC

c)

TGAACG

d)

GTCCAT

16.

If a student compares the DNA sequence of a mouse to that of a human, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

Adenine will be bonded to guanine in the mouse DNA only

b)

Adenine will be bonded to guanine in both the mouse and human DNA

c)

Adenine will be bonded to thymine in the mouse DNA only

d)

Adenine will be bonded to thymine in both the mouse and human DNA

17.

What is the correct sequence of protein synthesis in a cell?

a)

DNA to mRNA to protein to amino acid

b)

DNA to protein to amino acid to mRNA

c)

DNA to mRNA to amino acid to protein

d)

DNA to amino acid to mRNA to protein

18.

If a student constructs a model for the process of translation, the final product will be represented by which of the following?

a)

Messenger RNA

b)

A polypeptide chain

c)

codons

d)

Nucleotide

19.

Which of the following is directly produced by the process of transcription?

a)

Proteins

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

RNA molecules

d)

DNA molecules

20.

During which process is messenger RNA formed?

a)

Replication

b)

Transcription

c)

translation

d)

Mutation

21.

What is the complementary nucleotide sequence for mRNA with the DNA sequence of GCGATA?

a)

GAUGCU

b)

CGCTAT

c)

UAACUG

d)

CGCUAU

22.

What is the complementary nucleotide sequence for mRNA with the DNA sequence of CTACGA?

a)

CGCUAU

b)

AGAUCU

c)

GAUGCU

d)

GATGCT

23.

What is the complementary nucleotide sequence for mRNA with the DNA sequence of TCTAGA?

a)

AGATCT

b)

AGAUCU

c)

GAUGCU

d)

CGCUAU

24.

What is the complementary nucleotide sequence for mRNA with the DNA sequence of ATTGAC?

a)

UAACUG

b)

CGCUAU

c)

TAACUG

d)

CGCTAU

25.

What is the complementary nucleotide sequence for tRNA given the mRNA sequence of UUCCCU?

a)

AAGGGA

b)

TTGGGT

c)

UUCCCU

d)

AACCCT

26.

Why does the information in DNA have to be copied onto RNA?

a)

DNA is unable to leave the nucleus

b)

There are three different types of RNA

c)

DNA doesn’t contain uracil

d)

RNA contains ribose sugar

27.

What is the purpose of DNA replication?

a)

To create an identical copy of DNA in new cells

b)

To create messenger RNA as a template for protein synthesis

c)

To create new combinations of genes

d)

To create gametes in sex cells

28.

What is the role of transcription in protein synthesis?

a)

It makes an exact copy of the DNA

b)

It copies the instructions in DNA onto a strand of mRNA

c)

It copies the instructions on ribosomes into DNA

d)

It translates the instructions in tRNA into amino acids

29.

Which of the following describes the role of tRNA in protein synthesis?

a)

It transcribes the code from the DNA template in the nucleus

b)

It carries amino acids to ribosomes during translation

c)

It facilitates the replication of DNA before protein synthesis can begin

d)

It reads mRNA anticodons

30.

Amino acids bond together to form polypeptides, and polypeptides bond together to form proteins. Which of the following determines each amino acid to be assembled in a molecule of protein?

a)

The sequence of bases on the entire strand of DNA determines one amino acid

b)

The sequence of genes along a strand of DNA determines one amino acid

c)

The sequence of three bases on a section of DNA determines one amino acid

d)

The sequence of chromosome arrangement in a cell determines each amino acid

31.

Which of the following statements best describes a codon?

a)

A type of RNA that copies instructions from a portion of DNA

b)

A sequence of three bases that codes for a protein

c)

A portion of DNA that codes for a specific protein

d)

A sequence of three bases that codes for an amino acid

32.

Which molecule carries the genetic code from the nucleus of a cell to a ribosome in the cytoplasm?

a)

Messenger RNA

b)

Ribosomal RNA

c)

transfer RNA

d)

DNA

33.

In which way does RNA differ from DNA?

a)

RNA is double stranded

b)

RNA is single stranded

c)

RNA is found only in the nucleus

d)

RNA contains nitrogenous bases

34.

A gene gives the instructions for protein synthesis. Which type of molecule is responsible for “reading” the instructions and then creating the protein?

a)

ATP

b)

RNA

c)

DDT

d)

DNA

35.

A protein is assembled amino acid-by amino acid during the process of ___.

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

Mutation

36.

The RNA copy that carries information from DNA in the nucleus into the cytoplasm is ___ RNA.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

pRNA

37.

DNA makes a copy of itself in the process called ___.

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

Mutation

38.

The shape of a molecule of DNA is called a ___.

a)

triple helix

b)

double helix

c)

double spring

d)

single helix

39.

What is the sugar molecule in DNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

glucose

c)

fructose

d)

Ribose

40.

What is the sugar molecule in RNA?

a)

deoxyribose

b)

glucose

c)

fructose

d)

Ribose

41.

Nucleotides form base pairs through a weak bond called a ___ bond. This holds the two strands of a DNA molecule together.

a)

carbon

b)

hydrogen

c)

covalent

d)

Peptide

42.

A set of 3 nitrogen bases in mRNA that code for an amino acid is called ___.

a)

anticodon

b)

mutation

c)

codon

d)

Transcriber

43.

The process that happens when a sequence of bases in mRNA is used to make a sequence of Amino acids to form a protein is called ___.

a)

transcription

b)

replication

c)

mutation

d)

Translation

44.

In this process DNA unzips and makes an RNA copy of itself.

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

replication

d)

Mutation

45.

This is the part of the RNA that makes up ribosomes.

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

pRNA

d)

tRNA

46.

During the process of transcription, DNA serves as a template or pattern for making ___.

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

pRNA

47.

Thymine, adenine, guanine, and cytosine are ___.

a)

mutations

b)

nitrogen bases

c)

sugars

d)

phosphate groups

48.

DNA is a long molecule made of repeating subunits called ___.

a)

codons

b)

phosphates

c)

sugars

d)

Nucleotides

49.

Which one of the following nucleotide pair bonds would be found in a DNA molecule?

a)

adenine-guanine

b)

adenine-cytosine

c)

guanine-cytosine

d)

Cytosine-uracil

50.

Which one of the following nucleotide pair bonds would be found in a DNA molecule?

a)

adenine-thymine

b)

adenine-cytosine

c)

adenine-guanine

d)

Cytosine-uracil

51.

Which nitrogen base is found only in RNA and not in DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

guanine

c)

uracil

d)

Thymine

52.

The backbone of a DNA molecule is made of which two components?

a)

phosphate molecules and ribose sugars

b)

deoxyphosphate molecules and ribose sugars

c)

phosphate molecules & deoxyribose sugars

d)

deoxyphosphate molecules & deoxyribose sugars

53.

In which part of the cell does the process of translation take place?

a)

nucleus

b)

food vacuoles

c)

ribosomes

d)

Chromosome

54.

Each “rung” of the DNA ladder is made of ___.

a)

single nitrogen base

b)

a pair of nitrogen bases

c)

3 nitrogen bases

d)

4 nitrogen bases

55.

In RNA, uracil replaces the nitrogen base ___.

a)

adenine

b)

guanine

c)

thymine

d)

Cytosine

56.

Use the mRNA codon chart to find the amino acids that correspond to each portion of mRNA given. AUUAAA

a)

Alanine-proline

b)

Isoleucine-lysine

c)

stop-phenylalanine

d)

Isoleucine-proline

57.

Use the mRNA codon chart to find the amino acids that correspond to each portion of DNA given. GCGATA

a)

Arginine-tyrosine

b)

Alanine-isoleucine

c)

tyrosine-arginine

d)

Alanine-tyrosine

58.

Which cellular process is shown by the diagram?

a)

Crossing over

b)

Replication

c)

translation

d)

Transcription

59.

The amino acids for RNA codons are given in the chart.

Which amino acids are coded for by the following portion of an mRNA strand? AUGGAUUACAUC

a)

Methionine, aspartic acid, tyrosine, isoleucine

b)

Methionine, glycine, leucine, isoleucine

c)

Tyrosine, leucine, methionine, stop

d)

Threonine, aspartic acid, cysteine, isoleucine

60.

What is the function of this macromolecule?

a)

To store genetic information and to pass this information on to future generations

b)

To form the main structural component of skeletal muscle, skin, cartilage, tendons, ligaments, horns, bone, hair, and feathers or to act as a chemical messenger or enzyme

c)

To store energy long-term

d)

To aid in the creation of proteins

61.

The diagram models a small section of DNA.

Which part of DNA is most responsible for storing genetic information?

a)

The structure of a chromosome made up of a long strand of DNA

b)

The order of the nitrogenous bases that form genes

c)

They type of sugar found in the sugar-phosphate backbone

d)

The number of hydrogen bonds between base pairs

62.

The diagram summarizes the process of translation.

What role does transfer RNA have in this process?

a)

It repairs damaged DNA

b)

It binds with an unzipped strand of DNA to copy DNA nucleotide sequences

c)

It transports energy from the mitochondrion to the ribosome so that translation can take place

d)

It carries amino acids to the ribosome to build a protein

63.

The chart shows the amino acids that correspond to mRNA codons. Which of the following mRNA sequences could code for Valine-Serine-Alanine?

a)

GGG-UAA-GCC

b)

GUG-UCU-CGG

c)

AUG-UCG-CGU

d)

GUU-AGU-GCG

64.

What disorder is shown in the karyotype? (3A.3)

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Sickle cell anemia

65.

What disorder is shown in the karyotype? (3A.3)

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Sickle cell anemia

66.

What disorder is shown in the karyotype? (3A.3)

a)

Turner syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Normal

67.

If a doctor suspect Down syndrome in a developing fetus, what should he observe with a karyotype? (3A.3)

a)

A missing sex chromosome

b)

Translocation of genetic material

c)

deletion of genetic material

d)

Three copies of a certain chromosome

68.

Sickle cell disease is a genetic disorder that affects hemoglobin. In the gene that codes for hemoglobin, the normal codon sequence GAG becomes GUG, and as a result, the amino acid glutamine is replaced with valine. What type of mutation causes sickle cell disease? (3C.3)

a)

Frameshift

b)

Point

c)

deletion

d)

Inversion

69.

A point mutation that occurs in a blood cell would most likely result in which of the following? (3C.3)

a)

A dominant trait passed onto offspring

b)

Incorrect coding for a protein

c)

more serious chromosomal mutation

d)

A dominant trait passed onto offspring

70.

The diagram shows a disorder of chromosome 17. What type of chromosomal mutation has occurred? (3C.3)

a)

Nondisjunction

b)

Deletion

c)

substitution

d)

insertion

71.

Look at the two nucleotide sequences for a section of DNA given. (3C.3)

What type of mutation is shown in the copied sequence?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

substitution

d)

Nondisjunction

72.

If you compare the original DNA sequence to the copied DNA sequence shown, which two of the following are true statements? (3C.3)

a)

The mutation in the copied sequence adds a different amino acid from the original

b)

The mutation will be passed onto future generations.

c)

The mutation that occurred in the copied DNA sequence will change the number of chromosomes produced in all subsequent cells.

d)

The protein coded by the copied DNA will function exactly the same as the original

e)

The protein coded by the copied DNA will be different from the original and may function differently

73.

Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a frameshift mutation on chromosome 15. A person with Tay-Sachs lacks the enzyme hexosaminidase A. This enzyme is needed to break down gangliosides, a fatty substance that is formed in nerve cells and in the brain. Why does the frameshift mutation result in this disease? (3C.3)

a)

The frameshift mutation creates gangliosides instead of hexosaminidase A

b)

The frameshift mutation creates a defect in the shape and function of nerve cells

c)

The frameshift mutation causes a defect in the shape of the ganglioside molecules

d)

The frameshift mutation causes a defect in the gene needed to create a protein

74.

Why is a frameshift mutation usually more serious than a substitution mutation? (3C.3)

a)

It changes every codon after the mutation

b)

It can be passed onto offspring

c)

It always causes some form of cancer

d)

It causes duplication of genetic instructions

75.

Study the karyotype. How is this karyotype best characterized? (3A.3)

a)

normal male karyotype

b)

A normal female karyotype

c)

an abnormal female karyotype

d)

An abnormal male karyotype

76.

Williams syndrome is a genetic disorder associated with a mutation in chromosome 7. A person born with this syndrome is more likely to have cardiovascular problems and learning disabilities but to have a highly social personality. A pair of chromosomes from a karyotype and a normal chromosome 7 are shown. (3C.3)

Which of the following is the most likely cause of Williams syndrome?

a)

Insertion

b)

Deletion

c)

point mutation

d)

Translocation

77.

In sickle cell disease, the gene responsible for forming hemoglobin inserts the amino acid valine instead of glutamic acid. Only this one amino acid is affected, but the resulting protein is shaped incorrectly. What type of mutation causes sickle cell anemia? (3C.3)

a)

frameshift mutation

b)

A point mutation

c)

a chromosomal inversion

d)

A chromosomal deletion

78.

The karyotype shows a genetic disorder.

What type of mutation is responsible for the disorder represented by this karyotype? (3A.3)

a)

A portion of one chromosome has been transferred to a homologous chromosome

b)

A deletion has resulted in part of a chromosome being left off

c)

A translocation has resulted in a portion of one chromosome being added to another chromosome

d)

Nondisjunction has resulted in an extra copy of one chromosome

79.

Turner syndrome is a chromosomal mutation resulting from nondisjunction during meiosis in forming either sperm or egg cells. Which genetic technology would be best to determine the presence of this chromosomal mutation? (3A.3)

a)

DNA fingerprinting

b)

Karyotyping

c)

Gene therapy

d)

Recombinant DNA technology

80.

The nucleotide sequence on a strand of DNA changes as shown.


What type of mutation has occurred? (3C.3)

a)

Translocation

b)

Deletion

c)

insertion

d)

Substitution

81.

Cystic fibrosis is most commonly caused when a gene on chromosome 7 is missing three base pairs that code for one amino acid in a protein. How would you expect this missing amino acid to affect the protein? (3C.3)

a)

The protein would be abnormally shaped

b)

The protein would be too long

c)

The protein would be more easily broken down by enzymes

d)

The protein would be produced in smaller amounts

82.

What type of mutation is responsible for Down Syndrome? (3A.3)

a)

Substitution during mitosis

b)

Frameshift mutation during mitosis

c)

Translocation during meiosis

d)

Nondisjunction during meiosis

83.

The diagram shows a chromosomal mutation that may occur during mitosis. (3C.3)


What type of chromosomal mutation is shown on sister chromatid 2?

a)

Deletion

b)

Inversion

c)

substitution

d)

Duplication

84.

A substitution mutation results in the formation of a stop codon in the middle of a gene sequence. How will this mutation affect the protein being formed? (3C.3)

a)

The protein will contain fewer amino acids than it should

b)

The protein will become cancerous

c)

The protein will have the correct shape but will not have the correct function

d)

The protein will not be affected by this type of mutation

85.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations usually more serious than substitutions? (3C.3)

a)

They can be passed onto offspring

b)

They change every codon after the mutation

c)

They always cause some form of cancer

d)

They cause recessive traits to become dominant traits

86.

When can a mutation be passed onto offspring? (3C.3)

a)

Only when the mutation is present during or occurs during mitosis

b)

Only when the mutation is present during or occurs during meiosis

c)

When the mutation occurs during mitosis or meiosis

d)

When the mutation occurs in somatic cells

87.

A doctor suspects a person may have Klinefelter’s syndrome (XXY) caused by having an extra X chromosome. Which of the following would be best to confirm the diagnosis? (3A.3)

a)

Karyotype

b)

Pedigree

c)

punnett square

d)

DNA fingerprint

88.

A mutation is any mistake or change in the ___. (3C.3)

a)

cell

b)

DNA

c)

ribosomes

d)

nucleus

89.

An agent that can cause a change in DNA is called a(n) ___. (3C.3)

a)

zygote

b)

inversion

c)

mutagen

d)

mutation

90.

The number of chromosomes can be studied by looking at a ___. (3A.3)

a)

karyotype

b)

pedigree chart

c)

genotype

d)

punnett square

91.

A mutation where part of a chromosome breaks off and attaches to a non-homologous pair.

a)

deletion

b)

inversion

c)

translocation

d)

trisomy

92.

Failure of paired chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis

a)

nondisjunction

b)

deletion

c)

crossing over

d)

substitution

93.

Having three of a particular chromosome instead of two.

a)

monosomy

b)

trisomy

c)

substitution

d)

deletion

94.

Error in DNA sequence in which one base is misread and changed to a different base.

a)

nondisjunction

b)

substitution

c)

deletion

d)

inversion

95.

A mutation where part of a chromosome breaks off and is reinserted backwards.

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

inversion

d)

nondisjunction

96.

Having one of a particular chromosome instead of two.

a)

monosomy

b)

trisomy

c)

deletion

d)

inversion

97.

Error in DNA sequence that adds or deletes a single base.

a)

deletion

b)

substitution

c)

inversion

d)

frameshift

98.

A piece of a chromosome breaks off.

a)

inversion

b)

substitution

c)

deletion

d)

translocation

99.

A point mutation that causes red blood cell to be a different shape and less functional. Red blood cells will be sticky and shaped wrong.

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

sickle cell anemia

c)

tay sachs disease

d)

PKU

100.

Person has a missing enzyme needed to destroy a certain type of fat on the brain. Baby usually appears normal until around 3 months old.

a)

PKU

b)

cystic fibrosis

c)

Tay sachs disease

d)

sickle cell anemia

101.

Caused by a defective transport protein that carries salt and water into and out of the cells in the lungs.

a)

sickle cell anemia

b)

tay sachs disease

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

PKU

102.

Genetic disorder caused when a female is born with only one X chromosome (X0) instead of two (XX).

a)

Down Syndrome

b)

Klinefelter Syndrome

c)

Turner Syndrome

103.

A unique pattern created from DNA segments that can be used to identify an individual or to identify family relationships.

a)

cloning

b)

genetic recombination

c)

DNA fingerprinting

d)

stem cells

104.

A laboratory technique that runs electrical current through a gel to separate DNA fragments by their size

a)

stem research

b)

recombinant DNA

c)

genome

d)

gel electrophoresis

105.

All of an organism’s hereditary information

a)

stem cells

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

DNA fingerprint

d)

genome

106.

DNA that is formed by joining a short piece of DNA from one organism to the DNA of another organism

a)

DNA fingerprint

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

recombinant DNA

d)

stem cells

107.

A process of producing genetically identical copies of genes, tissues, or an entire organism

a)

DNA fingerprint

b)

gel electrophoresis

c)

stem cell research

d)

cloning

108.

An international effort that successfully sequenced human DNA

a)

stem cell research

b)

DNA fingerprinting

c)

Human Genome Project

d)

Universal cloning effort

109.

Undifferentiated cells that have the ability to become different types of specialized cells

a)

plasmids

b)

zygotes

c)

embryos

d)

stem cells

110.

An organism that contains genes from a different species

a)

clone

b)

plasmid

c)

transgenic organism

d)

twin

111.

Which technique has been used to produce insulin for diabetes treatment? (3C.4)

a)

Bacterial transformation

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

DNA fingerprinting

d)

Reproductive cloning.

112.

Identify two ethical concerns raised by the Human Genome Project? (3C.4)

a)

The potential for discrimination

b)

Improved techniques for sequencing DNA

c)

An individual’s right to privacy regarding their health

d)

Greater knowledge of the genes that cause genetic diseases

e)

Shared research made available worldwide via the internet

113.

Which is the main ethical concern behind stem cell research? (3C.4)

a)

Some research benefits only people with specific diseases and not the general public

b)

The research that reprograms somatic cells to become like embryo cells is too expensive

c)

Some research uses embryos that are destroyed when harvesting the cells

d)

Some research that uses adult stem cells obtains those cells from fetal umbilical cords

114.

Which is considered a danger of creating transgenic organisms? (3C.4)

a)

They may grow larger and faster than regular organisms

b)

They may be disease and pest resistant

c)

They may produce meat that is less fatty than regular meat

d)

They may contaminate the gene pool of organisms that are not transgenic

115.

Why does a DNA fingerprint help to identify a person? (3C.4)

a)

Most genes are dominant

b)

Most people have DNA that contains repeats

c)

The most important genes are different among most people

d)

No two people, except identical twins, have exactly the same DNA

116.

Cloning produces organisms that are ___. (3C.4)

a)

genetically superior to the original organism

b)

genetically identical to the original organism

c)

genetically different from the original organism

d)

genetically transformed from the original organism

117.

Transformation is the process of ___. (3C.4)

a)

joining DNA from different organisms

b)

separating DNA into fragments based on size

c)

cutting DNA into small pieces

d)

placing DNA from one organism into another organism

118.

Organisms that contain genes from a different organism are called ___. (3C.4)

a)

transgenic

b)

recombinant

c)

cloned

d)

restricted

119.

Making changes in an organism’s DNA is called ___. (3C.4)

a)

DNA extraction

b)

genetic engineering

c)

gel electrophoresis

d)

cloning

120.

Using gel electrophoresis to analyze DNA allows researchers to ___. (3C.4)

a)

find differences and similarities in different kinds of organisms

b)

decide if a certain allele is dominant or recessive

c)

compare the phenotypes of different organisms

d)

cut DNA with restriction enzymes

121.

Gel electrophoresis can be used to ___.

a)

cut DNA into fragments of various sizes

b)

clone chromosomes of various species

c)

separate DNA fragments by charge and length to create a DNA fingerprint

122.

Which type of technology would BEST be used to determine if two people are related? (3C.4)

a)

by comparing their DNA karyotypes

b)

by using recombinant DNA and bacterial transformation

c)

by determining blood types

d)

by using gel electrophoresis to create DNA fingerprints

123.

The DNA fingerprint results from a colt and four stallions are shown below. An investor purchasing the colt must know the father. Which stallion would be identified as the father of the colt?

a)

stallion 1

b)

stallion 2

c)

stallion 3

d)

stallion 4

124.

The DNA fingerprint results from a DNA sample taken from a stray cat and possible mothers and fathers of the cat are shown. Which two cats would be identified as the mother and father?

a)

Female A and male C

b)

Female A and male D

c)

Female B and male C

d)

Female B and male D

125.

Transgenic organisms are produced when the genes from one species are inserted into the genome of another species. For example, bt corn contains genes from the bacteria Bacillus thuringiensis that makes the corn plant toxic to corn-borer caterpillars. What is the primary ethical concern of growing transgenic plants such as bt-corn?

a)

The increase in insecticide usage to control unwanted crop pests such as corn-borer caterpillars

b)

The increase in cost of producing genetically modified crops for human consumption

c)

The unforseen consequences on the environment and human health

d)

The inability to mass produce genetically modified seeds to meet agricultural needs