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Honors Bio 3rd MP SGO 2019

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 2hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The element present in all organic molecules is

a)

Hydrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon

d)

Nitrogen

2.

What properties of carbon explain carbon’s ability to form different large and complex structures?

a)

Carbon has 4 sets of valence electrons which enable it to form covalent bonds with other elements and carbon can bond to itself to form a large variety of complex structures.

b)

Carbon has 2 valence electrons which enable it to form covalent bonds with other elements and carbon can bond to itself to form a small variety of complex structures.

c)

Carbon has 4 valence electrons which enable it to form ionic bonds with other elements and carbon can bond to other elements to form a large variety of complex structures.

d)

Carbon has 4 valence electrons which enable it to form covalent bonds with other elements and carbon can bond to itself to form a large variety of complex structures.

3.

The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to

a)

the chemical versatility of carbon atoms

b)

the variety of rare elements in organic molecules

c)

the diverse bonding patterns of nitrogen

d)

their interaction with water

4.

All macromolecules are made up of ? that join together to form ? .

a)

monomers, polymers

b)

monosaccharides, disaccharides

c)

carbon, lipids

d)

amino acids, peptide bonds

5.

Which of the following is not a function of a lipid?

a)

store energy

b)

provide insulation

c)

waterproof coverings

d)

biological membranes

e)

all are functions of lipids

6.

Nucleic acids are made up of ? which contain a ? , ? , and a .

a)

peptide bonds, sugar, nitrogenous base, phosphate

b)

nucleotides, nitrogenous base, phosphate, 5 carbon sugar

c)

fatty acids, hydrogen, 3 carbon sugar, nitrogenous base

d)

nucleotides, nitrogenous base, phosphate, 3 carbon sugar

7.
This cellular structure helps organisms maintain homeostasis by controlling what substances may enter or leave cells.
a)
vacuole
b)
nucleus
c)
cell membrane
d)
cell wall
8.
Which part of this phospholipid is hydrophobic?
a)
fatty lipid tails
b)
head
c)
all of it is hydrophobic
d)
none of it is hydrophobic
9.
Which of the following is NOT a function of the endomembrane system?
a)
Compartmentalization (creates different areas in the cell which do different things)
b)
Detoxification
c)
Protein modification and transportation of proteins
d)
Creation of ATP (energy)
10.
What is the function of the vesicle?
a)
Storage of water and nutrients
b)
Receives, modifies, and ships out proteins
c)
Transports ribosomes
d)
Transports proteins in a small bubble like package
11.
Modifies lipids and proteins from the ER; sorts them and packages them in vesicles
a)
Smooth ER
b)
Rough ER
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Golgi Apparatus
12.
Synthesizes lipids, stores calcium, detoxifies drugs and poisons
a)
Rough ER
b)
Smooth ER
c)
Golgi Apparatus
d)
Peroxisomes
13.
Synthesizes proteins and packages them in vesicles; vesicles commonly go to the Golgi Apparatus
a)
Rough ER
b)
Smooth ER
c)
Nucleolus
d)
Nucleus
14.
Fuse with the plasma membrane
a)
Golgi Apparatus
b)
Lysosomes
c)
Secretory Vesicles
d)
Transport Vesicles
15.
Site of protein synthesis
a)
Ribosome
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Chloroplast
d)
Nucleolus
16.

Which of the following shows the correct order of the endomembrane system

a)

ribosome -> nucleus -> ER -> Golgi -> Vesicle -> out of cell

b)

nucleus -> ribosome -> ER -> Golgi -> Vesicle - > out of cell

c)

Er -> Golgi -> Nucleus -> out of cell

d)

nulceus -> golgi -> ribosome -> ER -> Vessicle -> out of cell

17.

Plasmodesmata in plant cells are analogous to what structure in animal cells?

a)

Tight junctions

b)

Gap junctions

c)

Adhesion junctions

d)

Vacuoles

18.

Urine is confined to the human bladder in part due to the structure of junctions that connect the cells lining the bladder. These junctions form a barrier that prevents the exchange of ions and solutes between the blood and urine. What is the likely identity of these junctions?

a)

Gap junctions

b)

Tight junctions

c)

Adhering junctions

d)

Plasmodesmata

19.

Which type of cellular junction is prominent in cardiac myocytes and allows for a unified contraction of the heart? Hint: in order for these cells to contract in unison, ions need to flow rapidly between them.

a)

Tight

b)

Adhering

c)

Gap

d)

Plasmodesmata

20.
___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 
a)
Carbohydrates 
b)
Proteins
c)
Phospholipids 
d)
Cholesterol
21.
Exergonic is when energy is released, digestion.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
False, Catalyst 
d)
False, endergonic
22.
Endergonic is when energy is invested into a reaction. The energy is synthesized.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
False, exergonic
d)
False, catalyst
23.
Is this reaction endergonic or exergonic?
a)
Exergonic
b)
Endergonic
24.
Is this reaction endergonic or exergonic?
a)
Exergonic
b)
Endergonic
25.
Which of the following is the reaction for photosynthesis?
a)
6CO2 + 12 H2O -------light→ C6H12 O8
b)
6CO2 + 12 H2O -------light→ C6H12 O8 + O6
c)
6CO2 + 6 H2O -------light→ C6H12 O6 + 6 O2
d)
CO2 + 12 H2O -------light→ C6H12 O8 + 2 O6
26.
Which of the following is the reaction for cellular Respiration?
a)
C6H12 O6 + 2O6----→ 6CO2 + 12 H2O + ATP
b)
C6H12 O8 + O----→6CO2 + 12 H2O 
27.
A ________ reaction is a chemical reaction in which more energy is stored than released.
a)
Endergonic
b)
Exergonic
c)
exocytosis
d)
endothermic
28.
What does NOT produce carbon dioxide?
a)
Photosynthesis
b)
Burning Fossil Fuels
c)
Animal respiration
d)
Plants decaying
29.
Which of the following removes carbon from the atmosphere?
a)
Combustion
b)
Respiration
c)
Photosynthesis
d)
Death
30.
The average temperature of the surface of Earth has increased approximately 1°C in the past century. Which reason best explains this increase in temperature?
a)
lower levels of ozone in the atmosphere
b)
lower levels of nitrogen in the atmosphere
c)
higher levels of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere
d)
higher levels of oxygen in the atmosphere
31.

Which of the following is NOT an example of mitosis?

a)

Growth

b)

Repair of damaged cells

c)

Replacement of dead cells

d)

asexual reproduction

32.
The cells produced via meiosis are called:
a)
gametes
b)
somatic cells
c)
body cells
d)
skin cells
33.
During which stage of the cell cycle does the cell spend a majority of its time?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
34.

What is the primary cause of genetic variation during meiosis?

a)

chromosomes lining up

b)

"crossing over" of chromosomes

c)

separation of chromosomes

d)

chromosomes pulling apart

35.
Crossing over is important because....
a)
It prevents mutations from entering the gametes. 
b)
It allows for even distribution of chromosomes in the gametes.
c)
It allows for more genetic diversity of gametes.
d)
It allows for genetic uniformity of gametes. 
36.
When an area of a chromatid is exchanged with the matching area on a chromatid of its homologous chromosome, _________________ occurs
a)
crossing over
b)
mutagenesis
c)
hybridization
d)
fertilization
37.
A chromosome is found to be shorter than it's homologous match.  Which type of mutation would this most likely be?
a)
insertion
b)
deletion
c)
translocation
d)
inversion
38.

What goes in box 3

a)

Aabb

b)

AABB

c)

AAbb

d)

aaBb

39.

This image is an example of a _____________ cross.

a)

Monohybrid

b)

Dihybrid

c)

Purebred

d)

Pure Breeding

40.
An organism’s genetic makeup, or allele combinations
a)
Recessive
b)
Genotype
c)
Phenotype
d)
Heterozygous
41.
Cross Two Homozygous plants
(RRYY x rryy)
R = round seeds, r  = wrinkled seeds Y = yellow seeds, y = green seeds
What percent will have Round and Yellow seeds? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
42.

The below shows the genotypes that result in four different blood types in humans.

Based on the information in the table, which of the following describes alleles I A and I B ?

a)

The I A and I B alleles show sex linkage.

b)

The I A allele is recessive to the I B allele.

c)

The I A allele is dominant to the I B allele.

d)

The I A and I B alleles show codominance.

43.

In Holstein cattle the allele for black hair color (B) is dominant over the allele for red hair

color (b), and the allele for polled (P), or lacking horns, is dominant over the allele for having

horns (p).


What is the expected phenotypic ratio of the offspring of a BbPp × BbPp cross if these alleles

sort independently?

a)

16 black/polled : 0 black/horned : 0 red/polled : 0 red/horned

b)

12 black/polled : 0 black/horned : 0 red/polled : 4 red/horned

c)

4 black/polled : 4 black/horned : 4 red/polled : 4 red/horned

d)

9 black/polled : 3 black/horned : 3 red/polled : 1 red/horned

44.

I have 2 X chromosomes. What am I?

a)

a Male

b)

a Female

c)

a rock

d)

Confused

45.
If a gene is found only on the X chromosome and not the Y chromosome, it is said to be what?
a)
sex-linked trait
b)
polygenic trait
c)
codominant trait
d)
incomplete dominance trait
46.
What percentage of the offspring will have this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
47.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
48.
Hemophilia is a recessive x-linked disorder.
Which genotype represents a female who is a carrier for hemophilia?
a)
XHXh
b)
XhXh
c)
XHXH
d)
XhY
49.

The diagram represents a process that occurs in a DNA molecule. Which best identifies this process?

a)

replication

b)

mutation

c)

translation

d)

transcription

50.

Which represents the correct sequential flow of information during protein synthesis?

a)

DNA→Protein→RNA

b)

RNA→DNA→Protein

c)

DNA→RNA→Protein

d)

RNA→Protein→DNA

51.

During protein synthesis, an RNA

strand is transcribed from one strand of DNA.


GCG TTA CCT


What is the complementary RNA strand

to the DNA strand shown?

a)

CGC UUT CCT

b)

CGC AAU GGA

c)

GCG UUA CCU

d)

CGC AAT GGA

52.

This diagram shows which cellular process?

a)

replication

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

mutation

53.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
54.
The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
55.
mRNA is important, because it __________.
a)
Carries info from genes to ribosomes
b)
Carries amino acids to ribosomes
c)
Helps with RNA splicing
d)
Makes up ribosomes
56.

Protein synthesis (Translation) is important because it __________.

a)

Converts mRNA into a protein

b)

Copies the genetic information in DNA

c)

Produces RNA from DNA molecules

d)

Recycles tRNA molecules for reuse

57.

What is the term for a three nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid? For example: AUG

a)

Nitrogen base

b)

Codon

c)

Anticodon

d)

Phosphate group

58.
In RNA, Adenine bonds with __________.
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
59.
Which of the following is a correct difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
b)
RNA is double stranded and DNA is single stranded
c)
DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses Thymine
d)
RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose
60.

Name this structure

a)

double helix

b)

nucleotide

c)

twisted ladder

d)

hydrogen bond

61.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

62.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
63.
____ is the activation of a gene that results in transcription.
a)
Gene expression
b)
Gene technology
c)
Eukaryotic expression
d)
Prokaryotic expression
64.
Which of the following is NOT a source for stem cells?
a)
umbilical cord blood 
b)
early embryos 
c)
sperm and eggs 
d)
certain adult tissues 
65.
Stem cells are
a)
cells that grow uncontrollably.
b)
undifferentiated and can develop into many types of cells.
c)
cells that never go through cell division.
d)
only found in embryos.
66.
Stem cells are used to __________.
a)
make clones
b)
create new species of animals
c)
make babies
d)
grow different types of tissues
67.
What process best explains how muscle cells and nerve cells can develop from the same fertilized egg?
a)
genetic engineering
b)
survival of the fittest
c)
differentiation
d)
selective breeding
68.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart. 
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells. 
c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells. 
d)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells. 
69.
What is the difference between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells?
a)
Embryonic stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than adult stem cells
b)
Adult stem cells are pluripotent, just like embryonic stem cells
c)
Adult stem cells can differentiate into more cell types than embryonic stem cells
d)
Adult stem cells grow bigger than embryonic stem cells
70.

Medical research involving stem cells is important for ...

a)

to test the effectiveness of new drugs

b)

the generation of cells and tissues that can be used in cell based therapies

c)

to understand the consequences of turning genes off and on

d)

All of the above

71.

Cyanide is so deadly because

a)

it blocks gap junctions and gives you an instant heart attack

b)

it blocks cytochrome C from passing electrons, which stops cellular respiration

c)

it blocks NADP+ from passing electrons, which stops cellular respiration

d)

it makes the mitochondrial membrane "leaky" causing no H+ flow, which stops cellular respiration

72.

What is the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

Electrons move through the chain to give energy to move H+ ions through the plasma membrane

b)

Produces NADH, FADH2 and Oxygen

c)

Requires H+ ions and 3 ATP

d)

Uses high energy electrons from the Calvin Cycle

73.

The Electron Transport Chain converts _____ to ______.

a)

Glycgen to Glucose

b)

ADP to ATP

c)

ATP to ADP

d)

H2O to CO2

74.

What are the reactants for the Electron Transport Chain?

a)

NADH, FADH2, and Oxygen

b)

H+ ions and ATP

c)

Oxygen and Sugar

d)

CO2, H2O and ATP

75.

Which of the following is the final electron acceptor?

a)

NADPH

b)

ATP

c)

Oxygen

d)

Water

76.
What is the job of ATP synthase?
a)
Turns ADP into ATP
b)
Turns ATP into ADP
c)
Pumps hydrogen ions
d)
Creates water
77.
What is a protein: 
a)
A polymer composed of many sugars.
b)
A polymer composed of many amino acids. 
c)
A polymer composed of fatty acids. 
d)
A polymer composed of nucleotides. 
78.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
79.
This is one job proteins do NOT have in the body
a)
storing genetic information
b)
structure
c)
speed up chemical reactions
d)
transport things through cell membrane
80.
What happens when enzymes are heated to a high temperature?
a)
The enzymes die.
b)
The shapes of the enzyme are altered or denatured
c)
The enzymes' amino acid sequence changes.
d)
The enzymes remain the same
81.
_______ dictates the function of a protein
a)
Shape
b)
Temperature
c)
pH
d)
Time
82.

Which of the following can denature a protein? Choose all that are correct

a)

pH

b)

temperature

c)

structure

d)

salinity

83.

which of the following terms refers to the order in which amino acids are linked together in a protein.

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

84.

The chain of amino acids folds and coils on itself

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

85.

The entire polypeptide forms a three-dimensional structure

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

86.

Two or more polypeptides attached together and work as one unit

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

87.
The tertiary structure folding in proteins is primary due to the interactions of....
a)
the 'R' groups
b)
the 'P' groups
c)
the 'A' groups
d)
the 'S'
88.
The main bonding in the secondary structure of a protein is due to.....
a)
covalent bonding
b)
ionic bonding
c)
hydrogen bonding
d)
polar bonding
89.
What gives a protein its unique shape?
a)
the unique sequence of amino acids in its polypeptide chain
b)
the unique folding due to the sequence of amnio acids in the polypeptide chain
c)
hydrogen bonding & unique interactions between the 'R' groups
d)
all of these
90.
If you change the shape of a protein, will it work the same/properly?
a)
Yes
b)
No
91.

When a protein is denatured it

a)

unravels back to its primary level of structure

b)

unravels back to its secondary level of structure

c)

unravels back to its tertiary level of structure

d)

it no longer lives in nature and has to adapt to its now cosmic existence

92.
What is the oxygen carrying pigment in blood?
a)
hematocrit
b)
hemopoesis
c)
hemoglobin
d)
hemostasis
93.
An individual's blood type is determined by
a)
environment
b)
genetics
c)
both environment and genetics
d)
your children's blood type
94.
What part of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide to or from body cells?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
95.
If a father is AA and a mother is AB, what is the probability for a child with AB blood? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
96.
If two parents have type AB blood, what is the probability that their child will have type O blood?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
97.

A woman has type B blood and her husband has type O blood. What must be the woman's genotype, if they have a child with type O blood?

a)

BO

b)

BB

c)

OO

d)

AB

98.

How are most forms of color blindness inherited?

a)

It is X- linked recessive

b)

It is caused by the environment

c)

It is caused by the extra copy of chromosome 21

d)

It is X-linked dominant

99.

Women have two X chromosomes. In cells, one will become inactivated to form

a)

Rosanne bodies

b)

Barr bodies

c)

Y chromosome

d)

Ectomorph bodies

100.

Why is this quizizz unnecessarily long?

a)

Mr. Bragg has no life

b)

Mr. Bragg likes to torture you

c)

Mr. Bragg wants you to be prepared in life

d)

Mr. Bragg does not exist, he is like the wind, a transient entity that materializes when it wants to, has good intentions, but ultimately wants to take over the universe

e)

All of the above

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