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Evolution Review- Matheson

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main purpose of both relative dating and radiometric (radioactive) dating?

a)

To determine how old a fossil is

b)

To determine where the fossil fits in the fossil record

c)

To determine whether the fossil is a missing link

d)

To determine Earth’s age

2.

Most fossils form in

a)

sedimentary rock

b)

volcanic ash

c)

amber

d)

ice

3.

What is the main difference between relative dating and radiometric dating?

a)

Radiometric dating compares a fossil with the fossils of other plants and animals that are known to have lived in certain time periods

b)

Relative dating is based on other items found near the fossil, while radiometric dating is based on the fossil itself

c)

Relative dating is based on other species that are related to the species of the fossil, while radiometric dating is based on the soil nearby

d)

Radiometric dating is based on the half-life of isotopes, while relative dating is based on the placement of fossils near other fossils in layers of rock

4.

Humans have existed for ____ the geologic time scale.

a)

All of

b)

Most of

c)

Very little of

d)

About half of

5.

How old is the Earth?

a)

A few thousand years

b)

Millions of years

c)

Billions of years

d)

Too old to measure

6.

What is the geology Principle of Superposition?

a)

Newer layers (and fossils) are on top of older layers (and fossils)

b)

the ability of a quantum system to be in multiple states at the same time until it is measured

c)

it's the best position-- it's super

d)

older fossils are on top of newer fossils in rock layers

7.

Which was the earliest and accounts for about 88% of Earth’s history?

a)

Mesozoic Era

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Cenozoic Era

d)

Precambrian Time

8.

Which are we currently in?

a)

Mesozoic Era

b)

Paleozoic Era

c)

Cenozoic Era

d)

Precambrian Time

9.

The earliest prokaryotic life forms evolved without…

a)

water

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

oxygen

d)

heat

10.

Which of the following is true regarding oxygen in the atmosphere of early Earth?

a)

the oxygen was introduced by photosynthetic bacteria

b)

the atmosphere always contained oxygen

c)

the oxygen killed off some life forms

d)

some organisms developed the ability to use oxygen for metabolism

11.

Which of the following are true regarding endosymbiotic theory?

a)

some ancient prokaryotes engulfed others that could perform photosynthesis

b)

some ancient prokaryotes engulfed others that could perform cellular respiration

c)

all eukaryotic organelles had prokaryotic ancestors

d)

chloroplasts and mitochondria had prokaryotic ancestors

e)

the nucleus, chloroplasts, and mitochondria all had prokaryotic ancestors

12.

Which of the following provide advantages to a species?

a)

asexual reproduction

b)

sexual reproduction

c)

genetic diversity

d)

being unicellular

e)

oxidative metabolism

13.

How did scientists decide when to end one era and begin another in geologic time?

a)

they divided geologic time into equal portions called eras

b)

mass extinctions mark the ends of eras

c)

the shift from anaerobic to aerobic life forms

d)

when punctuated equilibrium overtakes gradualism in the fossil record

14.

The process by which one species or small group of species evolves into several different forms that live in different ways is called...

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

co-evolution

c)

convergent evolution

d)

phyletic speciation

15.

Which of the following commonly follow mass extinctions?

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

stasis

c)

ice ages

d)

co-evolution

16.

Unrelated organisms from different but similar environments come to resemble one another over time.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

17.

Two species evolve in response to one another.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

18.

Slow and steady change of biological species.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

19.

Biological species stay the same for long periods of time.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

20.

Rapid change of biological species following a long period of staying the same.

a)

Stasis

b)

Co-evolution

c)

Punctuated equilibrium

d)

Convergent evolution

e)

Gradualism

21.

Genes that control the development and layout of an organism’s body.

a)

Hox genes

b)

autosomal genes

c)

fetal genes

d)

anatomical genes

22.

What were the earliest life forms?

a)

unicellular prokaryotes

b)

unicellular eukaryotes

c)

unicellular protists

d)

unicellular fungi

23.

What sort of organisms were there in the Precambrian?

a)

mammals

b)

prokaryotes

c)

eukaryotes

d)

dinosaurs

24.

What is the term for large-scale evolutionary patterns and processes that occur over long periods of time?

a)

macroevolution

b)

microevolution

c)

survival of the fittest

d)

genetic drift

25.

In the Miller-Urey experiment that simulated early Earth conditions, what was the most significant outcome?

a)

amino acids formed spontaneously

b)

they produced oxygen

c)

they created living cells

d)

they developed ribozymes

26.

What do scientists think was the most likely macromolecule from which life evolved?

a)

oxygen

b)

RNA

c)

proteins

d)

DNA

e)

phospholipids

27.

Which are true about ribozymes?

a)

they are proteins

b)

they are made of folded chains of RNA

c)

they catalyze chemical reactions

d)

some of them can assemble nucleotides

e)

they can catalyze their own synthesis

28.

To be considered members of the same species, organisms must be able to

a)

look alike

b)

reproduce together and have fertile offspring

c)

live in the same habitat

d)

eat the same types of food

29.

Darwin saw populations of various species that seemed well-suited to their environment. What did this suggest?

a)

The species Darwin saw were all related to each other.

b)

Species had been introduced to particular areas by humans on purpose.

c)

Species might be able to adapt to their surroundings over time.

d)

Some environments rarely ever change.

30.

The difference in the physical traits of an individual from those of other individuals in the group to which it belongs

a)

adaptation

b)

variation

c)

descent with modification

d)

fitness

31.

A feature that allows an organism to better survive in its environment.

a)

adaptation

b)

variation

c)

descent with modification

d)

fitness

32.

A tortoise population lives in an area with high grass. These tortoises have longer necks than tortoises that live in other areas. The long necks of the tortoises are an example of

a)

adaptation

b)

variation

c)

descent with modification

d)

fitness

33.

One bird in a population has a slightly thicker beak than its relatives. The bird’s thicker beak is an example of __ in its population.

a)

adaptation

b)

variation

c)

descent with modification

d)

fitness

34.

Why must selected traits be heritable?

a)

If a selected trait is not heritable, it cannot be passed down to the next generation

b)

Heritable traits are those traits that farmers and breeders consider worth passing on

c)

Heritable traits are common in domesticated animals that are used in breeding

d)

A selected trait that is heritable is likely to make an animal easier to domesticate

35.

In natural selection, what must be true of traits that are passed down through generations?

a)

The trait must be one that members of the species like and enjoy.

b)

The trait must be one that members of the species have chosen to reproduce.

c)

The trait must be one that gives an advantage to certain individuals.

d)

The trait must be one that does not give an advantage to any

particular individuals.

36.

Large teeth and jaws become more common in jaguars because they are heritable characteristics.

a)

overproduction

b)

variation

c)

adaptation

d)

descent with modification

37.

Jaguars with large teeth and jaws survive longer because they can eat shelled reptiles.

a)

overproduction

b)

variation

c)

adaptation

d)

descent with modification

38.

By chance, some jaguars are born with slightly larger teeth and jaws.

a)

overproduction

b)

variation

c)

adaptation

d)

descent with modification

39.

A jaguar may produce many offspring, but because of competition, not all of them will survive long enough to reproduce.

a)

overproduction

b)

variation

c)

adaptation

d)

descent with modification

40.

The environment is the selective agent in

a)

artificial selection

b)

natural selection

41.

The measure of the ability to survive and produce more offspring relative to other members of the population is called

a)

fitness

b)

adaptation

c)

overproduction

d)

variation

42.

The ability of a trait to be passed down from one generation to the next is called

a)

adaptation

b)

heritability

c)

overproduction

d)

natural selection

43.

All the individuals of a species that live in an area are called the

a)

population

b)

ecosystem

c)

common ancestors

d)

family

44.

What occurs when humans deliberately breed for certain characteristics?

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

excessive mutations

d)

population equilibrium

45.

Occurs when individuals with beneficial adaptations produce more surviving offspring than other individuals of the same species.

a)

natural selection

b)

artificial selection

c)

excessive mutations

d)

population equilibrium

46.

Feature that is similar in structure in different organisms but has different functions.

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

47.

Feature that is a result of convergent evolution.

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

48.

Feature that performs a similar function in different organisms but is not similar in origin or structure.

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

49.

Feature that is not evidence of a common ancestor

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

50.

Remnant of an organ or structure that had a function in an early ancestor

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

51.

Examples include the wing of a bat and the hand of a human

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

52.

Examples include the wing of a bird and the wing of an insect

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

53.

Examples include the pelvis and femur in whales and the appendix and wisdom teeth in humans

a)

homologous structure

b)

analogous structure

c)

vestigial structure

54.

Known as the Father of Evolution; published "On the Origin of Species" in 1859.

a)

Darwin

b)

Hutton and Lyell

c)

Malthus

d)

Lamarck

55.

studied geology; determined that the Earth is very old, and slow forces that have shaped the Earth in the past are still active today.

a)

Darwin

b)

Hutton and Lyell

c)

Malthus

d)

Lamarck

56.

proposed the Law of Use/Disuse, tendency toward perfection, and inheritance of acquired traits

a)

Darwin

b)

Hutton and Lyell

c)

Malthus

d)

Lamarck

57.

said that as populations grow faster than the food supply, there will be competition for resources among humans.

a)

Darwin

b)

Hutton and Lyell

c)

Malthus

d)

Lamarck

58.

the distribution of living and fossil organisms

a)

biogeography

b)

fossil record

c)

homologies

d)

variation

59.

The extent of molecular homologies between species is usually determined by analyzing

a)

DNA sequences

b)

amino acid sequences

c)

phospholipids

d)

large carbohydrates

60.

In order to have a wide range of phenotypes, a population must also have

a)

competition for scarce resources

b)

genetic variation

c)

environmental stability

d)

a very ancient population

61.

How can a wide range of phenotypes increase the chance that some individuals will survive in a changing environment?

a)

Populations with fewer phenotypes tend to be very strong and hardy.

b)

Phenotypes tend to adapt along with the environment.

c)

A changing environment often produces a wide range of phenotypes.

d)

If there are many variations, there are more chances for some individuals to improve the chance of survival.

62.

A population's __ contains the genetic variation for the entire population.

a)

gene pool

b)

allele frequency

c)

equilibrium

d)

genetic drift

63.

__ measures how common a certain allele is in a population.

a)

gene pool

b)

allele frequency

c)

equilibrium

d)

genetic drift

64.

What is a normal distribution of phenotypes?

a)

A distribution in which most of the population falls at one extreme or the other.

b)

A distribution in which most of the population occurs close to the mean.

c)

A distribution in which the population is evenly distributed across the entire spectrum.

d)

A distribution in which the population is randomly distributed across the entire spectrum.

65.

What can you learn from looking at a phenotypic distribution?

a)

what characteristics are usually associated with survival.

b)

what characteristics are part of the fossil record.

c)

what characteristics are truly random mutations.

d)

what characteristics are vestigial.

66.

An extreme phenotype that was once rare becomes more common.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

67.

An intermediate phenotype is favored and becomes more common.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

68.

Both extreme phenotypes are favored, while individuals with intermediate phenotypes are selected against by something in nature.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

69.

original is dotted line; solid line is new distribution.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

70.

original is dotted line; solid line is new distribution.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

71.

original is dotted line; solid line is new distribution.

a)

directional selection

b)

stabilizing selection

c)

disruptive selection

72.

How is genetic drift different from natural selection?

a)

Genetic drift prevents natural selection.

b)

Genetic drift occurs by chance alone.

c)

Genetic drift only occurs in marine species.

d)

Genetic drift is a method used for breeding.

73.

Genetic drift is more likely to occur in ___ populations.

a)

small

b)

new

c)

large

d)

established

74.

Event that drastically reduces the size of a population can lead to...

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

founder effect

c)

gene flow

d)

genetic drift

75.

Occurs after a small number of individuals colonize a new area.

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

founder effect

c)

gene flow

d)

genetic drift

76.

May cause genetic drift to occur.

a)

bottleneck effect

b)

founder effect

c)

gene flow

d)

extinction

77.

What is one problem that can result from genetic drift?

a)

loss of genetic variation

b)

increased genetic variation

c)

changes in genetic variation

d)

changes in genetic variation of neighboring species

78.

What happens to a population that is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

It evolves much faster.

b)

It evolves much slower.

c)

It evolves at a uniform pace.

d)

It stops evolving at all.

79.

Name one way that population biologists can use Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

a)

To compare real data to data that are predicted by a model.

b)

To help them understand what can happen to a population without genetic drift.

c)

To predict what will happen if a population is colonized by random immigrants.

d)

To model what could occur if new alleles were added to a population.

80.

Isolated populations may become genetically different as they adapt to new environments, or through random processes such as

a)

mutation

b)

genetic drift

c)

natural selection

d)

artificial selection

81.

The final step in speciation is

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

82.

Isolation that exists when timing prevents reproduction between populations.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

83.

Isolation that involves physical barriers that divide a population into two or more groups.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

84.

Isolation that occurs when members of different populations can no longer mate successfully with each other.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

85.

Isolation caused by differences in courtship or mating behaviors.

a)

reproductive isolation

b)

behavioral isolation

c)

temporal isolation

d)

geographic isolation

86.

Natural selection acts directly on ___.

a)

phenotypes

b)

genotypes

87.

Which of the following increase genetic diversity?

a)

sexual reproduction

b)

gene shuffling

c)

mutation

d)

asexual reproduction

e)

genetic drift

88.

GG and Gg= green frogs; gg= brown frogs. If brown frogs have a survival advantage, what will happen to allele frequencies?

a)

G will increase and g will decrease

b)

g will increase and G will decrease

c)

both G and g will increase

d)

both G and g will decrease

e)

G and g will continue to add up to 100%

89.

Which are true?

a)

natural selection affects distribution of traits

b)

most traits are single-gene traits

c)

most traits are polygenic traits

d)

natural selection causes the evolution of individuals

90.

Which are true regarding polygenic traits?

a)

polygenic traits are controlled by 2 or more genes

b)

polygenic traits have a wide range of phentoypes

c)

polygenic traits have 2 possible phenotypes

d)

polygenic traits often show a normal distribution

91.

What is the term for observable changes in allele frequencies in ONE population over a relatively short time frame?

a)

macroevolution

b)

microevolution

c)

survival of the fittest

d)

genetic drift

92.

Which are true about gene flow?

a)

movement of alleles between populations

b)

reduces genetic diversity of new population

c)

increases genetic diversity of new population

d)

lack of gene flow between populations can lead to speciation

e)

changes allele frequencies of populations

93.

What is true regarding sexual selection?

a)

sexual selection is the same as natural selection

b)

selects for traits that increase mating success

c)

selects for traits that increase survival rate

d)

may lead to behaviors such as mating displays or fighting for mates

94.

What is true about genetic equilibrium?

a)

applies to non-evolving population

b)

humans are in genetic equilibrium

c)

allele frequencies remain constant over generations

d)

allele frequencies change each generation

95.

Which of the following are necessary for a population to experience genetic equilibrium?

a)

random mating

b)

sexual selection

c)

large population

d)

small population

96.

Which of the following are necessary for a population to experience genetic equilibrium?

a)

no gene flow

b)

no mutations

c)

no natural selection

d)

allele sharing with other populations

e)

some phenotypes have survival advantages

97.

the rise of 2 or more species from 1 existing species is...

a)

speciation

b)

natural selection

c)

genetic drift

d)

gene flow

98.

Which of the following are NOT random?

a)

natural selection

b)

sexual selection

c)

gene flow

d)

genetic drift

e)

mutations

99.

Which are true regarding Hardy-Weinberg equations?

a)

p and q refer to frequencies of alleles

b)

p and q refer to frequencies of individuals

c)

p2, q2, and 2 pq refer to frequencies of individuals

d)

p2, q2, and 2 pq refer to frequencies of genotypes

e)

p2, q2, and 2 pq refer to frequencies of alleles

100.

The bones in the diagram are examples of...

a)

homologous structures

b)

analogous structures

c)

vestigial structures

d)

artificial structures

101.

The term "developmental homologies" refers to...

a)

similarities in embryos

b)

differences in embryos

c)

similarities in DNA

d)

similarities in bone structures

102.

What must a population have before natural selection can occur?

a)

genetic variation

b)

no mutations

c)

an unchanging environment

d)

sexual reproduction

103.

What must be true of inherited mutations?

a)

they must occur in a gamete

b)

they must occur in a somatic cell

c)

they may occur in either a gamete or a somatic cell

d)

mutations may not be inherited

104.

Small populations may experience situations similar to inbreeding, which may include...

a)

reduced genetic diversity in the population

b)

increased incidence of recessive genetic disorders

c)

difficulty adapting to changing environmental conditions

d)

increased rate of mutations leading to higher genetic diversity

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