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Biology Review

Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 1hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The cladogram shows the evolution of land plants as indicated by fossil records.

Which discovery would challenge the validity of this cladogram?

a)

A large aquatic vascular plant about 200 million years old

b)

A species of algae that has existed for less than one million years

c)

A moss species that has existed for less than 380 million years

d)

A fossil of a fern more than 425 million years old

2.

Scientists estimate that there are more than 20,000 species of ants. The species range in size from 1 mm long to 38 mm long and live in most environments. The diets of ants range from flowers and seeds to fluids from their own larvae. Ants have been able to successfully inhabit so many different environments because their populations have been able to --

a)

hybridize with other species of insects

b)

adapt to a variety of habitats and food sources

c)

fill niches usually occupied by mammals

d)

occupy habitats that have no other life-forms

3.

Two populations of mice living in the same forest are separated by a large water-filled ditch. After a rainstorm, flooding brings several mice from one population to the other population. When the mice from the first population reproduce with members of the second population, which of the following will likely occur?

a)

All of the offspring will die as a result of reproductive mutations.

b)

The offspring will be forced to leave the second population.

c)

The offspring will be genetically identical to their parent from the first population.

d)

The offspring in the second population will have greater genetic variety.

4.

The picture shows bean-shaped glands called nodes. The clusters of cells in the nodes include macrophages that break down viruses and other potentially harmful materials. Nodes also contain cells that produce protein particles capable of capturing harmful materials that flow in tissue fluid through the nodes. Different parts of the body are drained by nodes in different regions of the body.


Which body systems are directly responsible for regulating these nodes and protecting the body from harmful materials in tissue fluid?

a)

Immune and lymphatic systems

b)

Digestive and nervous systems

c)

Endocrine and digestive systems

d)

Circulatory and nervous systems

5.

Organisms are classified today using the Linnaean system, and the following table shows the taxonomic classification of two marine organisms living along the Pacific Coast.


Taxonomic classification is important to marine biologists because it provides a way to -

a)

prove that marine evolution occurs

b)

discover and name every marine organism on Earth

c)

designate Latin as the universal language of marine biology

d)

identify marine organisms and find evolutionary relationships between them

6.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled in the image. (View image)


What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

Transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

7.

The energy pyramid shows the energy made available by producers. (View Image)


Base on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1,000 joules

d)

50 joules

8.

Nitrogenous bases are located on both strands of the DNA double helix. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?

a)

The number of adenines and cytosines determines the type of RNA that will be produced.

b)

The order of nitrogenous bases determines the order of amino acids in the proteins synthesized.

c)

The amount of thymine and guanine in the DNA molecules determines the length of the genes.

d)

The type of hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases determines which amino acid will be added to the peptide chain.

9.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP Production is inhibited.

b)

Cell division is unregulated.

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited.

d)

Antibody Activity is unregulated.

10.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used the eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. (View Image)


Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

11.

Viruses can be transmitted through air, water, food, insect bites, and direct skin contact. Once a virus gains entry to the body, it invades a host cell in order to --

a)

deactivate the host cell's defences

b)

synthesize antibodies for defence

c)

metabolize host proteins and grow

d)

access cellular processes for replication

12.

The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome. (View Image)


Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

13.

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. Which circle graph shows the genotype probability when an albino female mates with a male that is heterozygous for the albinism trait? (View Image)

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

14.

The complex carbohydrates pictured (View Image) are made by linking molecules of glucose.


In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely --

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

15.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

c)

Cellular respiration uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

d)

Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

16.

Four common relationships between organisms are listed in the box. (View Image)


Which statements best describe these relationships?

a)

Relationships 1 and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 2 is an example of commensalism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

b)

Relationships 1, 2, and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

17.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. (View Image)


Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells.

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

18.
A photograph of a virus is shown.  The projections on the surface of the virus allow the virus to -
a)
move inside a host cell
b)
attach to a host cell
c)
control the host cell's DNA
d)
signal other viruses to infect the host cell
19.
Some organisms have genes that improve their ability to survive and reproduce. If the genes also help their offspring survive and reproduce, then which of the following will most likely increase?
a)
The frequency of the genes in one individual
b)
The frequency of the genes in the population
c)
The number of genes in one chromosome
d)
The number of genes in the species
20.
Enzymes are proteins that help increase the rate of chemical reactions inside cells. These proteins are composed of many simpler molecules called amino acids. Which of the following suggests that the shape of an enzyme determines the enzyme’s function?
a)
Enzymes are specific to a substrate
b)
 Enzymes can operate in a wide range of conditions.
c)
Enzymes are activated by neighboring molecules.
d)
Enzymes can be found in all life-forms.
21.
Which of the following are missing from the food web shown above?
a)
producers
b)
decomposers
c)
omnivores
d)
carnivores
22.
The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases?
a)
natural selection
b)
genetic variation
c)
environmental fitness
d)
reproductive mutations
23.
 Proteins and polysaccharides are polymers. These polymers are formed by dehydration synthesis. Which statement correctly identifies a difference in the structure of proteins and polysaccharides?
a)
 Only polysaccharides are comprised of repeating units of cytosine, adenine, guanine, and thymine.
b)
Only proteins are formed from amino acids joined by peptide bonds.
c)
Only polysaccharides can be folded and twisted to very specific shapes. 
d)
Only proteins can be large molecules with thousands of subunits.
24.

Which biomolecule is responsible for insulation and long-term energy storage?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

25.

This infectious viral disease has many symptoms that range from chills, coughing and sneezing to fever, muscle aches, nausea and vomiting. These symptoms show up within 2 to 7 days after our cells become infected. What is the viral reproduction cycle of this virus?

a)

Lytic Cycle

b)

Lysogenic Cycle

c)

Meiosis

d)

Mitosis

26.
Where are proteins made?
a)
Golgi body
b)
Mitoichondria
c)
Chromosomes
d)
Ribosomes
27.
What are tiny organelles that convert glucose into ATP?
a)
Ribosomes
b)
Vesicles
c)
Cytoskeleton
d)
Mitochondria
28.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
29.
What is the name of the process in which molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration across a selectively permeable membrane?
a)
Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Facilitated Diffusion 
30.
A cell in an isotonic solution will
a)
swell (get bigger)
b)
shrink (get smaller)
c)
stay the same size
d)
impossible to tell
31.
During which stage of the cell cycle does mitosis and cytokinesis occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
S phase
c)
M phase
d)
G1 phase
32.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
33.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
34.
Identify the Cell Cycle Stage.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytonkinesis
c)
Interphase
d)
Prophase
35.
The cell process where one cell divides to form two identical cells is called --
a)
Synthesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Interphase
d)
Cytokinesis
36.
After meiosis is complete how many cells will there be?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
37.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
38.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
39.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
40.
What is the correct amino acid sequence for the mRNA code AUGCCAGUAUGA
a)
Met-Pro-Ala-Val
b)
Met-Pro-Val
c)
Tyr-Gly-His
d)
Tyr-Gly-Arg-His
41.
What type of cell is pictured?
a)
Prokaryotic
b)
Eukaryotic
c)
Plant
d)
Animal
42.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
43.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
44.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution/Point

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

45.
Term for homozygous organisms that display two dominant phenotypes at the same time
a)
codominance
b)
incomplete dominance
c)
multiple alleles
d)
linked genes
46.
What does heterozygous mean?
a)
An organism that has the same genes for a trait (TT or tt)
b)
An organism that has different genes for a trait (Tt)
c)
When neither gene is fully dominant; offspring is a mixture of both
d)
the different forms of a trait (hair color--> brown, blonde, red
47.
What goes in box 1
a)
AABb
b)
AABB
c)
aabb
d)
AaBb
48.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
49.
Whose blood was found at the crime scene?
a)
John
b)
Lisa
c)
Bob
d)
Sure
50.
Which best describes these fossils?
a)
The oldest fossils can be found on the lower layers
b)
The oldest fossils can be found at the top layers
c)
The youngest fossils are always found on the bottom layers
d)
You can not tell the age of any of these fossils
51.

Some female peacocks prefer males with large, colorful tales while other female peacocks prefer males with no tail at all. Females are now mating only with the tail they prefer. What type of reproductive barrier is this?

a)

behavioral isolation

b)

hybrid sterility

c)

temporal isolation

d)

mechanical isolation

52.
The 8 levels of classification, most broad to most specific.
a)
Domain, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom, Species
b)
Domain, Species, Kingdom, Genus, Phylum, Family, Class, Order
c)
Domain, Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species
d)
Order, Kingdom, Species, Domain, Phylum, Family, Class, Genus
53.
What kingdom is always multicellular, heterotrophic and has NO cell wall?
a)
Protista
b)
Fungi
c)
Plantae
d)
Animalia
54.
What is the difference between Archaebacteria and Eubacteria?
a)
Bacteria is eukaryotic
b)
Archaebacteria is multicellular
c)
Archaebacteria can live in extreme environments
d)
They are the same
55.
Which of the following is the correct equation for PHOTOSYNTHESIS?
a)
CO+ light + H2O --> O+ Sugar
b)
CO+ sugar + H2O --> O+ light
c)
O2 + light + H2O --> CO+ Sugar
d)
CO+ O2 + H2O --> Light+ Sugar
56.
The process carried out by yeast that causes bread to rise is
a)
alcoholic fermentation
b)
lactic acid fermentation
c)
cellular respiration
d)
yeast mitosis
57.
What is the correct order of organization
a)
cells->tissue->organs->organ systems-> organism
b)
tissue->cells->organs->organ systems-> organism
c)
organs->organ systems-> organism->cells->tissue
d)
cells->tissue->organs->organism->organ system
58.

A segment of DNA produces methionine, threonine, histidine, aspartate, and glycine when translated. A substitution mutation occurs and causes the synthesis of the segment as shown. Which is the new peptide chain when the new DNA segment is translated?

a)

Methionine, leucine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

b)

Methionine, phenylalanine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

c)

Methionine, proline, histidine, aspartate, glycine

d)

Methionine, serine, histidine, aspartate, glycine

59.

On March 24, 1989, an oil tanker ran aground on Bligh Reef in Prince William Sound, Alaska, and spilled millions of liters of crude oil. The graph shows pink salmon populations in Prince William Sound from 1970 to 1999. What do these data suggest about the effect the oil spill had on pink salmon?

a)

Pink salmon were nearly eliminated after the oil spill.

b)

Pink salmon populations steadily declined in the 10 years following the spill.

c)

Pink salmon populations declined and never fully recovered.

d)

Pink salmon populations seemed to be minimally affected.

60.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of —

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

61.

A student preparing for a hike wants to pack a snack that has biomolecules that provide quickly available energy but few excess calories. Which nutrition label lists the best combination of biomolecules that provide quickly available energy while providing the fewest calories from other types of biomolecules?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

62.

Organisms can be classified based on homology, which is shared characteristics inherited from a common ancestor. In the past, homologies were based on studies of anatomical structures and patterns of embryonic development. In more recent years, the use of molecular biology techniques has allowed homologies to be compared at the level of nucleotide sequences. Nucleotide sequence comparisons are possible because all organisms share which of the following?

a)

DNA bases

b)

Cellular organelles

c)

Division of the nuclear chromosomes

d)

Types of proteins needed for cellular functions

63.

Diatoms are one of the most common types of phytoplankton in marine habitats. Like plants, diatoms contain chlorophyll and produce glucose from which of the following?

a)

O2 and ATP

b)

CO2 and O2

c)

ATP and H2O

d)

CO2 and H2O

64.

The model represents the change in the DNA content of a cell during the cell cycle. Which part of the model represents the S phase?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

65.

Cells can generate as many as 36 to 38 molecules of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from the metabolism of one molecule of glucose. Which cellular process results in this amount of ATP production?

a)

Anaerobic cellular respiration

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

Aerobic cellular respiration

d)

Photosynthesis

66.

A segment of DNA is represented in the illustration. How is information for a specific protein carried on the DNA molecule?

a)

As a sequence of nucleotides

b)

In the double-helix shape of the condensed chromosome

c)

In the ratio of adenines to thymines

d)

As a pattern of phosphates and sugars

67.

Fireflies emit light. The production of light by an organism is called bioluminescence. To generate visible light, cells in a firefly’s tail produce thousands of luciferase enzymes. Luciferase binds to a chemical called luciferin. Once bound, the luciferase enzyme speeds up a chemical reaction that combines an oxygen molecule and luciferin to produce oxyluciferin. This reaction requires energy and releases light. Which of the following best describes how the luciferase enzyme speeds up the chemical reaction?

a)

Luciferase increases the amount of time the light is visible.

b)

Luciferase decreases the amount of energy required for the reaction to start.

c)

Luciferase increases the number of sites on luciferin that must bind to oxygen.

d)

Luciferase decreases the temperature of the environment inside the body of the firefly.

68.

An analysis of DNA and RNA sequences can be used to classify organisms. A dendrogram, such as the one shown below, is based on molecular data. It can be used to represent evolutionary relationships within a group of organisms that are hypothesized to have descended from a common ancestor. Which statement is best supported by the information in this dendrogram?

a)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to raccoons.

b)

Brown bears are more genetically similar to giant pandas than they are to sun bears.

c)

Lesser pandas are more genetically similar to raccoons than they are to giant pandas.

d)

The bear species are all more genetically similar to dogs than they are to giant pandas.

69.

Facial dimples and free earlobes are both considered dominant human traits. What are the expected phenotypes of the offspring of a female with dimples and free earlobes (DDFf) and a male with no dimples and attached earlobes (ddff)?

a)

50% with dimples and free earlobes and 50% with dimples and attached earlobes

b)

50% with dimples and free earlobes and 50% with no dimples and attached earlobes

c)

75% with dimples and free earlobes and 25% with no dimples and attached earlobes

d)

75% with dimples and attached earlobes and 25% with no dimples and free earlobes

70.

At birth Himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. But when parts of their bodies reach temperatures below 35°C, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

Poor blood circulation

b)

Infection caused by cold temperatures

c)

Gene expression that is regulated by temperature

d)

A trait that is both sex-linked and hormone-dependent

71.

A cladogram is shown below. All the animals to the right of the hagfish would have the common characteristic of —

a)

fur

b)

claws or nails

c)

lungs

d)

jaws

72.

The differences between two molecules include the type of sugar that forms a section of the molecules and the identity of one of the four nitrogenous bases that make up another section of the molecules. These two molecules are —

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

nucleic acids

d)

complex carbohydrates

73.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions.

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

74.

Plants have developed many methods of seed dispersal. The table below shows seeds of two different plants. Plants have developed many methods of seed dispersal. The table below shows seeds of two different plants.

a)

The method ensures that offspring will be dispersed and reduces competition for resources.

b)

The method reduces the chance that herbivores will consume the seeds.

c)

The method lengthens the life cycle of each of these plants.

d)

The method reduces the plants’ need for water and other nutrients.

75.

A student builds a model of a DNA strand. Which of these models of a DNA strand shows bases that are complementary to the ones on the student’s DNA model?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

76.

Three species of lizards of the genus Gallotia are found on the Canary Islands, a chain of seven volcanic islands off the west coast of Africa. The easternmost island, Lanzarote, is the oldest, while the westernmost island, El Hierro, is the youngest. The distribution of lizard species is shown on the map below. Which statement about the ancestry of the lizards from the genus Gallotia is best supported by this information?

a)

The common ancestor of the lizards first colonized the island of El Hierro.

b)

The ancestors of each species came from different continents at different times.

c)

The common ancestor of the lizards probably came from Africa.

d)

The ancestors of each species evolved in Spain and were brought to the islands at the same time.

77.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has —

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

78.

In the 1960s the molecular biologist George Streisinger developed the strand-slippage hypothesis. Streisinger noticed that mutations occurred in areas of DNA that contained many repeated sequences. When a strand-slippage error occurs, an insertion mutation can result. How does the insertion mutation affect the DNA?

a)

Nitrogenous bases are added.

b)

Nitrogenous bases are exchanged.

c)

Nitrogenous bases are damaged.

d)

Nitrogenous bases are deleted.

79.

Normal fruit flies have brownish-yellow bodies, and this body color is dominant. A mutation in the gene for body color can produce flies with an ebony body color. A homozygous normal fruit fly (e+e+) is crossed with a homozygous ebony fruit fly (ee). What is the predicted outcome of this genetic cross?

a)

All the offspring will have ebony bodies.

b)

Of the offspring, 75% will have brownish-yellow bodies, and 25% will have ebony bodies.

c)

All the offspring will have brownish-yellow bodies.

d)

Of the offspring, 75% will have ebony bodies, and 25% will have brownish-yellow bodies.