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Worksheets

BM EOY

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nonprofit corporation is an organization that

a)

pays taxes and exist to make a profit

b)

pays taxes and does not exist to make a profit

c)

does not pay taxes and does not exist to make a profit

d)

pays dividends to shareholders

2.

A written agreement between two or more people identifying how they will add capital, labor, or other assets and divide any profits or share any losses in their business is called a

a)

certificate of incorporation

b)

business plan

c)

charter

d)

partnership agreement

3.

An agreement among two or more businesses to work together to provide a good or service is called a

a)

limited liability partnership

b)

limited liability corporation

c)

joint venture

d)

cooperative

4.

If the corporation fails, stockholders are responsible for

a)

all of the debts of the corporation

b)

only the amount owed in dividends

c)

only the amount invested in the corporation

d)

only the value of the assets of the corporation

5.

Ownership of a corporation is measured in

a)

assets

b)

equity

c)

dividends

d)

shares

6.

A corporation is authorized to act as if it were a single person by the

a)

federal government

b)

board of directors

c)

state in which it is incorporated

d)

business plan

7.

An official document giving power to run a corporation is a

a)

partnership agreement

b)

charter

c)

proxy

d)

business plan

8.

In a limited partnership

a)

all partners must be general partners

b)

no partners are liable for any of the partnership's debts

c)

all partners must be limited partners

d)

at least one partner must be a general partner with unlimited liability

9.

In which type of partnership is the liability of a partner limited to the amount of the partner’s investment?

a)

limited partnership

b)

unlimited partnership

c)

restricted partnership

d)

unrestricted partnership

10.

An advantage of partnerships when compared to proprietorships is

a)

if one partner

disagrees with a change, the partnership cannot make the change

b)

all partners are bound by all contracts made by the partnership

c)

operations are usually less efficient because of shared management

d)

more capital is usually available

11.

One of the main reasons many proprietorships fail within a short time is that

a)

the owner lacks needed skills

b)

the owner lacks interest in the business

c)

proprietorships are not able to compete with corporations any longer

d)

proprietorships are not able to compete with partnerships

12.

In a sole proprietorship,

a)

creditors have first claim against assets

b)

there are no employees

c)

assets are safe from creditors

d)

employees share in the liabilities

13.

If assets are valued at $500,000 and capital amounts to $350,000, the liabilities of the business are

a)

$850,000

b)

$500,000

c)

$350,000

d)

$150,000

14.

Which one of the following statements is true about entrepreneurs?

a)

Entrepreneurs would rather work for others.

b)

Entrepreneurs prefer to assign the decision-making responsibility to employees.

c)

Entrepreneurs usually work hard and for long hours.

d)

Entrepreneurs usually give up quickly when their businesses are not immediately successful

15.

The most common form of business organization is the

a)

proprietorship

b)

partnership

c)

cooperative

d)

corporation

16.

A cooperative provides members with both cost and profit advantages they would not have individually

a)

True

b)

False

17.

A nonprofit corporation pays small dividends to shareholders.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The stockholders make up the ruling body of a corporation.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

A stockholder has the same financial responsibility as a partner.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

A corporation can make contracts, borrow money, and be sued.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

To form a corporation a charter is needed.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

It is difficult to withdraw from a partnership.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

If a partner enters into a contract against the wishes of the other partners, the other partners are legally responsible for the contract.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

A disadvantage of a partnership that fails is that a partner can lose personal assets in addition to the amount of money invested in the business.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

New businesses almost always fail for purely financial reasons.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The Internet can be used to transmit data within a country but cannot be used to transmit data anywhere in the world.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The CEO is the top computer executive in most major organizations.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Servers store data and application software for the company’s workstations.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Hackers are people who break into computer systems and steal, destroy, or alter information.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

It is ethical for online retailers to sell customers’ personal information without their knowledge.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Firewalls are used to screen people who enter or exit a network.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

A computer system that processes data into meaningful information is called a database.

a)

True

b)

Fasle

33.

A system that provides the ability to analyze “what if” scenarios is an executive information system.

a)

True

b)

False

34.

Like the dashboard in a car, a digital dashboard provides real-time information.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

The terms Internet and World Wide Web are interchangeable.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

The process of using data in databases to find relationships between individuals and their behavior or preferences is called social networking.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Internet addresses for businesses often use the following format: www.businessname.com.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Moore’s Law forecasts that the amount of data that could be processed by a computer chip would

a)

double about every 18 months

b)

double about every two years

c)

triple about every few months

d)

triple about every three years

39.

Which statement is false about CIOs?

a)

CIOs protect information from being improperly used.

b)

CIOs do not need management skills.

c)

CIOs must know what types of equipment to purchase to meet an organization’s needs.

d)

CIOs protect information from getting to people who should not have it.

40.

A general term that refers to the movement of information from one location to another electronically is

a)

a local area network

b)

a wide area network

c)

an optical network

d)

telecommunications

41.

A computer that stores data and application software for all workstations in a single building or building complex is called a

a)

bus

b)

search engine

c)

server

d)

browser

42.

A secured, private network that companies need in order to share selected information with selected people outside the organization is an

a)

ISP

b)

EIS

c)

intranet

d)

extranet

43.

All of the following are types of information systems except a(n)

a)

DSS

b)

EIS

c)

ISP

d)

MIS

44.

An information system that integrates data from various departments to make it available to help managers with day-to-day business operations is called a(n)

a)

DSS system

b)

EIS system

c)

ISP system

d)

MIS system

45.

The ability to consider alternatives by analyzing “what if” scenarios is a key capability of a(n)

a)

DSS

b)

EIS

c)

ISP

d)

MIS

46.

Software that provides online ordering capabilities for shoppers is known as

a)

an electronic shopping cart

b)

point-of-sale software

c)

a virtual scanner

d)

safe host order processor (SHOP)

47.

Carpal tunnel syndrome is a health problem related to the

a)

elbow

b)

lower back

c)

shoulder

d)

wrist

48.

A cashier at a family dining restaurant placing his finger on a fingerprint scanner before he can operate the cash register is an example of

a)

identity protection

b)

biometric security

c)

a search engine

d)

data mining

49.

Which statement is incorrect about firewalls?

a)

Firewalls use special software to screen people who enter a network.

b)

Firewalls use special software to screen people who exit a network.

c)

Firewalls are totally hacker-proof.

d)

Firewalls protect information from outsiders who try to break into networks.

50.

Knowledge workers are people who

a)

program computers

b)

create websites

c)

answer questions for technology users

d)

work with information

51.

A larger number can be subtracted from a smaller number.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

A meter is a measure of mass.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

A correlation is the relationship between two events in which the second event is a consequence of the first.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

In subtraction, the minuend minus the subtrahend equals the difference.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Inferential statistics is another name for descriptive statistics.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Only two numbers can be subtracted at a time.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The order of addends matters.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Information and raw data are the same thing.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

The answer to a division problem is called the dividend.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

In business, electronic database programs and spreadsheets have become the primary tools for analyzing data.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

A 2-liter soda bottle contains

a)

about a half gallon

b)

close to a gallon

c)

less than a half gallon

d)

more than a gallon

62.

A business has 360 customer service professionals working in a call center and 10 of them are supervisors. The ratio of supervisors to employees is

a)

36:1

b)

35:1

c)

1:36

d)

1:35

63.

A customer uses a $15 off coupon when paying for a purchase. The total before the discount is $73 ($73 - $15 = $58). The minuend in this situation is

a)

$15

b)

$58

c)

$73

d)

not shown

64.

A kilogram is equal to

a)

0.1 grams

b)

10 grams

c)

100 grams

d)

1,000 grams

65.

A range is always expressed as

a)

a single number

b)

two numbers

c)

a series of numbers

d)

a ratio

66.

If the multiplicand has three decimal places and the multiplier has two, the product will have

a)

one decimal place

b)

two decimal places

c)

five decimal places

d)

six decimal places

67.

The length of a kilometer is approximately

a)

2.6 miles

b)

6.2 miles.

c)

0.62 miles

d)

0.26 miles

68.

What is the mode for the following group of numbers: 3, 5, 4, 3, 4, 3, 5, 5, 6, 3.

a)

3

b)

3.5

c)

4

d)

4.1

69.

If 28 employees out of a total of 140 attended a meeting about retirement planning, the percentage attending was approximately

a)

5%

b)

10%

c)

15%

d)

20%

70.

Which of the following measurements is the smallest?

a)

10 centimeters

b)

10 kilometers

c)

10 millimeters

d)

10 meters

71.

Which container will hold the most liquid?

a)

1.5 liter plastic jug

b)

2 gallon bucket

c)

32 ounce paper cup

d)

500 milliliter glass bottle

72.

When a series of 17 numbers is arranged from lowest to highest, the 9th number will be the

a)

average

b)

mean

c)

median

d)

mode

73.

Which of the following allows easy comparison of values among several characteristics from a data set?

a)

a legend

b)

a trend

c)

a line graph

d)

a bar chart

74.

Which of the following provides meaningful summaries of data to help managers understand the current situation?

a)

descriptive statistics

b)

a frequency distribution

c)

a data set

d)

inferential statistics

75.

When you use past and current information to estimate future performance, you

a)

analyze

b)

calculate

c)

plan

d)

project

76.

By subtracting total projected costs and expenses from projected sales, a business can estimate its profit.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

A company can be highly profitable yet not have enough cash on hand at the right times to pay its bills.

a)

True

b)

Fasle

78.

Businesses that use budgets for their financial operations are usually more successful than those that do not use budgets.

a)

True

b)

False

79.

An examination of a company's financial records by an expert in order to verify their accuracy is called an audit.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Many companies no longer issue actual paychecks to employees.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Accounts receivable are current assets.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

When a petty cash fund is used, it is NOT necessary to keep a written record of all money paid out of the fund.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

An income statement is a financial report that would primarily be used for internal control of cash.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The use of budgets and a budgeting system guarantees the success of a business.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

The primary reason businesses keep financial records is to

a)

comply with federal laws

b)

keep track of debts owed

c)

determine if they have made a profit or a loss

d)

make monthly payments on time

86.

A manager is most likely to use financial reports to

a)

decide whether to continue operations

b)

decide on the terms of a business loan

c)

detect fraudulent practices

d)

make day-to-day decisions

87.

Movement of cash into and out of a business is known as

a)

profit sharing

b)

cost of goods sold

c)

operating expenses

d)

cash flow

88.

Someone who gives professional advice or offers professional services is called a(n)

a)

auditor

b)

investment banker

c)

certified public accountant

d)

consultant

89.

The general term that is applied to a computer that becomes inadequate because a more efficient model comes on the market is

a)

depreciation

b)

replacement value

c)

obsolescence

d)

asset book value

90.

The original cost of an asset less its accumulated depreciation is the

a)

balance value

b)

book value

c)

depreciated value

d)

residual value

91.

Net worth, owner's equity, and stockholders' equity are all terms meaning

a)

capital

b)

liabilities

c)

assets

d)

inventory

92.

Which part of an income statement shows all the costs incurred in operating the business?

a)

Total Liabilities

b)

Profit or loss

c)

Expenses

d)

Revenue

93.

An operating budget includes projected

a)

sales

b)

profits

c)

costs

d)

all of the responses

94.

The difference between current assets and current liabilities is

a)

working capital

b)

cash flow

c)

income

d)

owners' equity

95.

Which financial ratio shows whether a firm can meet its current debts comfortably?

a)

return on sales

b)

inventory turnover

c)

current ratio

d)

return on investment

96.

A graphic designed to provide a quick view of key financial performance indicators is called a(n)

a)

bar chart

b)

balance sheet

c)

economic infographic

d)

financial dashboard

97.

The basic accounting equation is

a)

capital = assets + liabilities

b)

assets = capital - liabilities

c)

liabilities = assets + capital

d)

assets = liabilities + capital

98.

The amount owed to a business by its customers is considered

a)

accounts payable

b)

an asset

c)

capital

d)

a liability

99.

To determine whether or not a company is a good loan risk, lenders often review its

a)

tax returns

b)

financial ratios

c)

capital budget

d)

cash flow

100.

A partner’s personal contribution in a business is equity capital.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Retained earnings are a type of equity capital.

a)

True

b)

False

102.

Common stock is a type of security, but bonds are not.

a)

True

b)

False

103.

Preferred stockholders usually have voting privileges at the stockholders’ meetings.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

When a corporation ceases operations, preferred and common stockholders usually get all their investment back from the sale of the assets.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The book value of a share of stock is found by dividing the corporation’s net worth by the total number of shares outstanding.

a)

True

b)

False

106.

If the par value of a share of stock is $100, the market value cannot be below $100.

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Even if a business is not making a profit, it should plan to replace assets that depreciate.

a)

True

b)

False

108.

A supplier who allows a business 90 days to pay for merchandise is actually providing short-term capital.

a)

True

b)

False

109.

If a business has a $50,000 open line of credit, it can borrow a minimum of $50,000 at a time.

a)

True

b)

False

110.

The investment made in a business by its owners is called

a)

working capital

b)

equity capital

c)

creditor capital

d)

cash flow

111.

Retained earnings refer to

a)

money from the sale of bonds

b)

money from the sale of stock

c)

profits that owners do not save for use in the business

d)

profits that owners do not take out of the business

112.

Banks and other types of lending institutions usually will not loan money to a business unless

a)

debt capital exceeds owner capital

b)

owner capital exceeds debt capital

c)

debt capital and owner capital are nearly equal

d)

borrowed capital exceeds owner capital

113.

If a sole proprietorship fails, which of the owner's assets may be lost?

a)

Personal assets invested in the business

b)

Personal assets not invested in the business

c)

Mortgaged personal property

d)

All of the responses

114.

Which statement is true about forming a corporation?

a)

Owners are personal liable for all losses if the corporation fails.

b)

The original owner cannot hold any position in the corporation.

c)

Stockholders manage the day-to-day activities of the corporation.

d)

Additional funds can be obtained through the sale of stock

115.

Which statement is true of common stockholders?

a)

They have the right to vote at annual meetings, at one vote per share of stock owned.

b)

If the corporation makes a profit, they are paid before creditors.

c)

They are guaranteed dividends every year.

d)

They must purchase stock at its par value.

116.

Which statement is true about preferred stockholders?

a)

Holders are guaranteed dividends.

b)

Holders receive profits of the business before creditors.

c)

Holders typically do not have voting privileges in a business.

d)

Holders receive profits after common stockholders.

117.

Kent owns 150 shares of 7 percent preferred stock that has a face value of $100 a share. Last year he received no dividends. If profits are large enough this year, he should receive as dividends

a)

$105

b)

$700

c)

$1,050

d)

7 percent of profits

118.

If the ABC Corporation's net worth is $48,000,000 and there are 3,000,000 shares of stock outstanding, the book value of each share is

a)

$144

b)

$16

c)

$8

d)

$12

119.

The dollar value printed on the stock certificate is known as the

a)

market value

b)

book value

c)

par value

d)

purchase value

120.

Earnings reinvested in the business to replace equipment, add new facilities, or serve as financial protection are called

a)

profits

b)

debt capital

c)

retained earnings

d)

dividends

121.

Short-term debt must be repaid to the lender with interest within

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

one year

122.

When deciding how to get the capital they need, companies consider all of the following except

a)

the influence of capital contributors

b)

the cost of capital

c)

interest rates

d)

the foreign exchange rate

123.

An organization that assists a business to raise capital through the sale of stocks and bonds is a(n)

a)

factor

b)

venture capitalist

c)

underwriter

d)

sales finance company

124.

Which statement is true about venture capitalists?

a)

They are protected against losses.

b)

They pass all risks to the company in return for their investment.

c)

They take over management of any company they invest in.

d)

They may get a percentage of ownership in the company in return for their investment.

125.

Among the major activities in the human resources departments of most companies are improving the health and safety of employees and managing the compensation and benefits programs.

a)

True

b)

False

126.

Human resources is a department that typically has little contact or interaction with the other departments in a company.

a)

True

b)

False

127.

If a company has a human resources department, personnel from that department complete all performance appraisal activities rather than employees’ supervisors.

a)

True

b)

False

128.

Many problems in a company, such as higher training costs and dissatisfied employees, can be reduced by an effective selection process.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Minimum qualifications for a job are determined using both the job description and job specification.

a)

True

b)

False

130.

A job specification is the form used to complete a performance appraisal.

a)

True

b)

False

131.

The recommendations of present employees are an excellent source of applicants for an open position in a company.

a)

True

b)

False

132.

The purpose of an interview is to find out more about the applicant, not to give information to the applicant.

a)

True

b)

False

133.

Employees may choose to transfer to jobs that better meet their current interests and needs.

a)

True

b)

False

134.

The Family and Medical Leave Act requires an employer covered by the law to allow an eligible employee up to a total of 12 weeks of paid leave for the birth of a child.

a)

True

b)

False

135.

Human resources management includes all the following employee-related activities except

a)

equipment purchasing

b)

hiring

c)

compensation

d)

development

136.

A human resources manager would most likely prefer an employee turnover rate

a)

of less than 10%

b)

around 25%

c)

around 50%

d)

as close to 100% as possible

137.

OSHA is part of the U.S. Department of

a)

Commerce

b)

Health and Human Services

c)

Interior

d)

Labor

138.

Employee discharge is the same as

a)

a layoff

b)

employee turnover

c)

firing an employee

d)

a transfer

139.

Which of the following is not a reason for transferring an employee?

a)

To place the employee in a job that better matches his or her interests and needs

b)

To overcome difficulties resulting from poor performance or conflicts

c)

To reduce the number of employees in the company because of changing business conditions

d)

To give the employee a better chance for promotion

140.

Whenever there are new job openings or job vacancies, the company should first turn to

a)

discharged employees

b)

job applicants on file

c)

recent college graduates

d)

current employees

141.

In one year, a company with 3,000 employees had 300 workers terminate employment. What was the company’s employee turnover rate?

a)

1,000%

b)

30%

c)

10%

d)

300%

142.

A layoff generally occurs because of

a)

inappropriate work behavior

b)

unsatisfactory job performance

c)

changing business conditions

d)

employee turnover

143.

Employee turnover is commonly calculated based either on the number of employees who leave their jobs in a company or on

a)

the difference between the number of terminated employees and the number of new hires

b)

the number of employees hired to replace employees who have left

c)

the number of new job openings

d)

the number of employees who are discharged and laid off

144.

A federal law that provides pensions to retired workers and disabled workers is

a)

the Occupational Safety and Health Act

b)

the Fair Labor Standards Act

c)

the Americans with Disabilities Act

d)

the Social Security Act

145.

A fund to pay an income to workers who lose their jobs through no fault of their own is

a)

unemployment insurance

b)

workers’ compensation

c)

social security

d)

pension funds

146.

The law that requires employers to pay covered employees overtime pay at 1-1/2 times the regular rate of pay is the

a)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

b)

Workers’ Compensation Law

c)

Fair Labor Standards Act

d)

Occupational Safety and Health Act

147.

Discrimination in hiring based on race, ethnicity, religion, gender, or national origin is prohibited by the

a)

Equal Pay Act

b)

Civil Rights Act

c)

Immigration Reform and Control Act

d)

Fair Labor Standards Act

148.

The Equal Pay Act prohibits unequal pay for substantially the same work based on

a)

race

b)

gender

c)

age

d)

disability

149.

As of 2015, the average annual social security payment to an individual retiree was approximately

a)

$26,000

b)

$15,000

c)

$11,150

d)

$8,750