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Climmons Environmental Science Final Review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A resource that determines the carrying capacity of an ecosystem for a particular species.

a)

Growth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Limiting factor

d)

Exponential growth

e)

Niche

2.

The change in a population size over a given period of time.

a)

Growth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Limiting factor

d)

Exponential growth

e)

Niche

3.

An organism's role in an ecosystem.

a)

Growth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Limiting factor

d)

Exponential growth

e)

Niche

4.

Growth in which numbers increase by a certain factor in each successive time period. (Hint: it has a "J" shape when plotted on a graph)

a)

Growth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Limiting factor

d)

Exponential growth

e)

Niche

5.

Number of individuals that die over a given period of time.

a)

Growth rate

b)

Death rate

c)

Limiting factor

d)

Exponential growth

e)

Niche

6.

Describes the relationship between a frog and a fly.

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Density-dependent causes of death

d)

Density-independent causes of death

e)

Birth rate

7.

Can be direct or indirect.

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Density-dependent causes of death

d)

Density-independent causes of death

e)

Birth rate

8.

Includes: predation, competition and disease

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Density-dependent causes of death

d)

Density-independent causes of death

e)

Birth rate

9.

Number of individuals born in a given period of time.

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Density-dependent causes of death

d)

Density-independent causes of death

e)

Birth rate

10.

Includes: fire, tornadoes and earthquakes

a)

Competition

b)

Predation

c)

Density-dependent causes of death

d)

Density-independent causes of death

e)

Birth rate

11.

An example of a population is

a)

all the trees in a forest

b)

all maple trees in a forest

c)

all animals in a forest

d)

all plants in a forest

12.

Each of the following is an example of a parasite except

a)

a roundworm in a human's intestine

b)

a tick on a cat

c)

mistletoe on a tree

d)

a cow in a pasture

13.

The relationship between acacia trees and the ants that live on them is an example of

a)

predation

b)

mutualism

c)

commensalism

d)

parasitism

14.

The relationship between a Canadian lynx and a snowshoe hare is an example of

a)

competition

b)

predator and prey

c)

mutualism

d)

parasite and host

15.

In which of the following relationships is neither species harmed?

a)

predation

b)

competion

c)

commensalism

d)

parasitism

16.

A female dog's niche includes all of the following except

a)

the number of puppies the dog has

b)

the neighbor's enclosed yard

c)

how the dog protect its owners

d)

fleas that infest the dog

17.

If over a long period of time, each pair of adults in a population had only two offspring and the offspring lived to reproduce, the population would

a)

remain the same

b)

grow

c)

shrink

d)

disperse randomly

18.

Which of the following has the greatest effect on reproductive potential?

a)

having a longer life span

b)

producing more offspring at a time

c)

reproducing more often

d)

reproducing earlier in life

19.

Which of the following statements explains why the growth of orchids on the high branches of tropical trees is an example of commensalism?

a)

The trees are neither benefited nor harmed

b)

The orchids draw nourishment from the trees

c)

The trees receive nutrients from the orchids

d)

The orchids keep parasites away

20.

The study of the characteristics of populations, especially human populations.

a)

Demography

b)

Age structure

c)

Survivorship

d)

Crude fertility rate

e)

Migration

21.

Classification of members of a population into groups according to age or the distribution of members of a population in terms of age groups.

a)

Demography

b)

Age structure

c)

Survivorship

d)

Crude fertility rate

e)

Migration

22.

The percentage of newborn individuals in a population that can be expected to survive to a given age.

a)

Demography

b)

Age structure

c)

Survivorship

d)

Crude fertility rate

e)

Migration

23.

Number of births/ 1000 women/yr

a)

Demography

b)

Age structure

c)

Survivorship

d)

Crude fertility rate

e)

Migration

24.

Any movement of individuals or populations from one location to another.

a)

Demography

b)

Age structure

c)

Survivorship

d)

Crude fertility rate

e)

Migration

25.

Land that can be used to grow crops

a)

Life expectancy

b)

Demographic transition

c)

Intrastructure

d)

Arable land

e)

Urbanization

26.

Basic facilities of a country including roads, bridges, sewers, etc.

a)

Life expectancy

b)

Demographic transition

c)

Intrastructure

d)

Arable land

e)

Urbanization

27.

Increasing numbers of people moving from rural areas into cities.

a)

Life expectancy

b)

Demographic transition

c)

Intrastructure

d)

Arable land

e)

Urbanization

28.

Average length of time an individual is expected to live.

a)

Life expectancy

b)

Demographic transition

c)

Intrastructure

d)

Arable land

e)

Urbanization

29.

Pattern of demographic change from high birth/death rates to low birth/death rates.

a)

Life expectancy

b)

Demographic transition

c)

Intrastructure

d)

Arable land

e)

Urbanization

30.

Characterized by low average incomes and rapid population growth.

a)

Developed countries

b)

Developing countries

c)

Least developed countries

d)

Replacement level fertility

e)

Suburban sprawl

31.

Countries identified by the UN as showing the fewest signs of development.

a)

Developed countries

b)

Developing countries

c)

Least developed countries

d)

Replacement level fertility

e)

Suburban sprawl

32.

The number of children a couple must have to replace themselves.

a)

Developed countries

b)

Developing countries

c)

Least developed countries

d)

Replacement level fertility

e)

Suburban sprawl

33.

People who work in the city buying houses outside the city and commuting to the city for work.

a)

Developed countries

b)

Developing countries

c)

Least developed countries

d)

Replacement level fertility

e)

Suburban sprawl

34.

Characterized by high average incomes and slow/no population growth.

a)

Developed countries

b)

Developing countries

c)

Least developed countries

d)

Replacement level fertility

e)

Suburban sprawl

35.

Educating women worldwide has lowered birthrates partly because

a)

educated women need to bear many children to ensure that some will survive

b)

educated women may learn family-planning techniques

c)

educated women contribute less to their family income

d)

All of the above

36.

All increase in waterborne diseases could possibly be alleviated by

a)

adequate sewage treatment facilities for growing populations

b)

very rapid growth of large cities

c)

sufficient fuelwood

d)

Both (a) and (b)

37.

Which of the following is a reason that wood is considered a limited resource in many developing countries?

a)

Wood is used in place of money to buy food

b)

Fuelwood allows people to purify their water by boiling it

c)

Excess wood is used to construct shanytowns

d)

People cut down trees faster than they can grow

38.

Scientists predict population sizes by using

a)

survivorship, migration, life expectancy and replacement structure

b)

age structure, fertility rate and migration

c)

replacement rate, fertility rate, age rates and survivorship

d)

age structure, survivorship, fertility rate and migration

39.

Which of the following would not cause population to decrease in a region?

a)

increased immigration

b)

increased emigration

c)

decreased fertility rates

d)

decreased survivorship

40.

Populations are growing more rapidly in

a)

Italy

b)

Canada

c)

Japan

d)

Peru

41.

World population growth will eventually stop when

a)

the population reaches 6 billion

b)

most countries have replacement-level fertility rates

c)

most countries have higher death rates

d)

the worldwide infant mortality rate increases

42.

The type and amount of food that a person eats.

a)

famine

b)

malnutrition

c)

diet

d)

yield

e)

arable land

43.

A disorder of nutrition that results when a person does not consume enough of each of the nutrients that are needed by the human body.

a)

famine

b)

malnutrition

c)

diet

d)

yield

e)

arable land

44.

Widespread malnutrition and starvation in an area due to a shortage of food.

a)

famine

b)

malnutrition

c)

diet

d)

yield

e)

arable land

45.

Farmland used to grow crops.

a)

famine

b)

malnutrition

c)

diet

d)

yield

e)

arable land

46.

The amount of crops produced per unit area.

a)

famine

b)

malnutrition

c)

diet

d)

yield

e)

arable land

47.

A process by which the materials of Earth's surface are transported from one place to another by a natural agent (e.g. wind, water, gravity)

a)

topsoil

b)

erosion

c)

desertification

d)

compost

e)

salinization

48.

A mixture of decomposing organic matter, such as manure and rotting plants, used as fertilizer and soil conditioner.

a)

topsoil

b)

erosion

c)

desertification

d)

compost

e)

salinization

49.

The accumulation of salts in soil

a)

topsoil

b)

erosion

c)

desertification

d)

compost

e)

salinization

50.

A process by which human activity or climatic changes make arid or semiarid areas more desertlike

a)

topsoil

b)

erosion

c)

desertification

d)

compost

e)

salinization

51.

The surface layer of the soil, which is usually richer in organic matter than the subsoil.

a)

topsoil

b)

erosion

c)

desertification

d)

compost

e)

salinization

52.

A poison used to destroy pests, such as insects, rodents and weeds

a)

pesticide

b)

biological pest control

c)

genetic engineering

d)

pest

e)

domesticated

53.

Any organism that occurs where it is not wanted or that occurs in large enough numbers to cause economic damage.

a)

pesticide

b)

biological pest control

c)

genetic engineering

d)

pest

e)

domesticated

54.

Describes organisms that have been bred and managed for human use.

a)

pesticide

b)

biological pest control

c)

genetic engineering

d)

pest

e)

domesticated

55.

The use of certain organisms by humans to eliminate or control pests.

a)

pesticide

b)

biological pest control

c)

genetic engineering

d)

pest

e)

domesticated

56.

A technology in which the genome of a living cell is modified for medical, industrial or agricultural use.

a)

pesticide

b)

biological pest control

c)

genetic engineering

d)

pest

e)

domesticated

57.

A cud-chewing mammal that has a three or four chambered stomach.

a)

overharvesting

b)

auqaculture

c)

livestock

d)

ruminant

e)

weathering

58.

Chemical and physical breakdown of the Earth's surface.

a)

overharvesting

b)

auqaculture

c)

livestock

d)

ruminant

e)

weathering

59.

Catching or removing from a population more organisms than the population can replace.

a)

overharvesting

b)

auqaculture

c)

livestock

d)

ruminant

e)

weathering

60.

Domesticated animals that are raised to be used on a farm or range or to be sold for profit.

a)

overharvesting

b)

auqaculture

c)

livestock

d)

ruminant

e)

weathering

61.

The raising of aquatic plants and animals for human use or consumption.

a)

overharvesting

b)

auqaculture

c)

livestock

d)

ruminant

e)

weathering

62.

Water passing through the surface of the soil.

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

infiltration

d)

leeching

e)

dust bowl

63.

Largest environmental disaster in U.S.A. history.

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

infiltration

d)

leeching

e)

dust bowl

64.

As water passes through a material (like soil) it dissolves some of its components and carries them away.

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

infiltration

d)

leeching

e)

dust bowl

65.

The percentage of the total volume of soil that consists of open spaces.

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

infiltration

d)

leeching

e)

dust bowl

66.

The ability of soil to let fluids pass through its open spaces.

a)

porosity

b)

permeability

c)

infiltration

d)

leeching

e)

dust bowl

67.

Farmland may become desertified if

a)

domestic animals are allowed to overgraze the land

b)

as a result of erosion, there is no fertile soil left to grow plants

c)

too many crops are grown on the land and the land gradually loses its fertility

d)

All of the above

68.

Which of the following best describes why many people in the world go hungry?

a)

There is plenty of food produced for everyone to have more than enough, but it is not distributed equally

b)

Global warming has contributed to crop failures

c)

Food production has not been increasing as fast as the human population

d)

In recent years, the human population has been growing, while food production has been falling

69.

Which of the following actions contributes to soil erosion?

a)

driving farm machinery over fields

b)

allowing land to lie fallow

c)

using compost as fertilizer

d)

all of these practices contribute to soil erosion

70.

Which of the following agricultural products requires the least amount of energy?

a)

beef cattle

b)

wheat

c)

dairy cows

d)

Both (b) and (c)

71.

When a farmer uses no-till farming methods,

a)

seeds are planted among the roots of the previous crop

b)

only organic fertilizers are used

c)

more erosion is likely

d)

All of the above

72.

All of the following factors can cause famines except

a)

crop failure brought on by sustained drought

b)

the failure of food production to keep pace with population growth

c)

new, higher-yield crops

d)

distribution problems caused by political turmoil

73.

Soil formation

a)

usually involves the decomposition of bedrock

b)

is an inorganic process

c)

is hindered by frequent temperature changes

d)

occurs more quickly in arid regions

74.

Is it true that soil loss caused by wind and water

a)

is always the result of dramatic events such as floods and mudslides

b)

occurs more slowly in dry areas because the soil sticks together

c)

is reduced by incorporating strips of vegetation into plowed land

d)

only slightly exceeds the rate of soil formation on a global basis

75.

No-till farming helps to conserve soil fertility because

a)

only organic fertilizers and natural pesticides are used

b)

deep ridges are cut across, not down, the slopes of hills

c)

remnants of the previous crop are left to slowly decay

d)

the ground is carefully turned to mix soil nutrients

76.

Earth's available arable land is being reduced by

a)

fast-growing human populations

b)

soil erosion

c)

desertification

d)

All of the above

77.

Erosion is most likely when the soil is

a)

plowed along the contour of the land

b)

planted to forest

c)

covered with grass

d)

bare and exposed to wind and rain

78.

Plowing with machines, irrigating with drip systems and _______________ are all modern agricultural methods.

a)

using manure

b)

applying chemical fertilizers

c)

irrigating with ditches

d)

Both (a) and (b)

79.

Genetic engineering of food crops

a)

continues to be debated among scientists

b)

is only used with corn

c)

must be disclosed on food ingredient labels

d)

Both (a) and (c)

80.

Products obtained from livestock include

a)

leather, wool, eggs, meat and manure

b)

cotton, linen and nylon

c)

wood and plastic

d)

All of the above

81.

How did the Himalayan Mountains form?

a)

erosion

b)

convection

c)

glacial movements

d)

colliding tectonic plates

82.

What are wind and water erosion not likely to affect?

a)

mountains

b)

rocks

c)

tides

d)

soil

83.

Which of the following is the most geologically active region on the surface of the Earth?

a)

glacial valleys

b)

mountain peaks

c)

boundaries between tectonic plates

d)

recharge zones

84.

Which of the following are producers of oxygen?

a)

plants

b)

animals

c)

automobiles

d)

industries

85.

The ozone layer is located in the

a)

stratosphere

b)

ionosphere

c)

thermosphere

d)

troposphere

86.

Large-scale atmospheric phenomena caused by air that is constantly in motion is known as

a)

conduction

b)

convection

c)

weather

d)

hurricanes

87.

Uses the Sun's energy to heat something directly without moving parts.

a)

passive solar heating

b)

ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)

c)

alternative energy

d)

biomass fuel

e)

fuel cell

88.

Uses low pressure and warm ocean water to boil colder ocean water.

a)

passive solar heating

b)

ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)

c)

alternative energy

d)

biomass fuel

e)

fuel cell

89.

Energy sources that are still in development.

a)

passive solar heating

b)

ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)

c)

alternative energy

d)

biomass fuel

e)

fuel cell

90.

Plant material, manure and wood.

a)

passive solar heating

b)

ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)

c)

alternative energy

d)

biomass fuel

e)

fuel cell

91.

Uses hydrogen as an energy source.

a)

passive solar heating

b)

ocean thermal energy conversion (OTEC)

c)

alternative energy

d)

biomass fuel

e)

fuel cell

92.

Uses collectors with moving parts to capture the Sun's energy.

a)

active solar heating

b)

energy efficency

c)

energy conservation

d)

hydroelectric energy

e)

geothermal energy

93.

Saves energy.

a)

active solar heating

b)

energy efficency

c)

energy conservation

d)

hydroelectric energy

e)

geothermal energy

94.

Percentage of energy that does useful work in a system.

a)

active solar heating

b)

energy efficency

c)

energy conservation

d)

hydroelectric energy

e)

geothermal energy

95.

Energy produced from moving water.

a)

active solar heating

b)

energy efficency

c)

energy conservation

d)

hydroelectric energy

e)

geothermal energy

96.

Energy from heat in Earth's interior.

a)

active solar heating

b)

energy efficency

c)

energy conservation

d)

hydroelectric energy

e)

geothermal energy

97.

What is the estimated temperature of the Earth's inner core?

a)

3,000ºC to 4,000ºC

b)

4,000ºC to 5,000ºC

c)

400ºC to 500ºC

d)

300ºC to 400ºC

98.

The Richter scale best describes the

a)

location of a wave

b)

frequency of a wave

c)

duration of an earthquake

d)

magnitude of an earthquake

99.

The molten rock that is found in the upper mantle is

a)

limestone

b)

magma

c)

granite

d)

basalt

100.

Which of the following is not one of the compositional layers of Earth?

a)

mesosphere

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

101.

A quarry also could be called

a)

an open pit

b)

the overburden

c)

a longwall

d)

a pillar

102.

Collapse of ____________ can lead to sibsidence.

a)

solar evaporation ponds

b)

pillars in abandoned mines

c)

open-pit mines

d)

placer deposits

103.

Which of the following is not a regulation mining companies must follow?

a)

the Clean Water Act

b)

the Hazardous Products Act

c)

the Safe Drinking Water Act

d)

the Endangered Species Act

104.

From whom must mining companies obtain permits before mining a site?

a)

state and federal agencies

b)

federal agencies only

c)

local government only

d)

a bonding company

105.

Reclamation is the process of

a)

removing coal from a subsurface seam

b)

extracting ore minerals from gangue minerals

c)

returning land to its original or better condition after mining

d)

protecting the habitats of local wildlife

106.

Surface mining can cause

a)

only air pollution

b)

only noise pollution

c)

both air and noise pollution

d)

neither air nor noise pollution

107.

What can contaminate a river during dredging?

a)

potash

b)

sea water

c)

placer deposits

d)

muddy sediments

108.

Nuclear fusion and nuclear fission are different because

a)

fusion releases no energy

b)

fission is a consequence of fusion

c)

nuclei unite during fusion and split during fission

d)

fission does not produce nuclear waste

109.

Which of the following is not true?

a)

Uranium-bearing rocks are in unlimited supply

b)

It is difficult to find a safe place to store nuclear waste

c)

Building a safe reactor is expensive

d)

The fission process can get out of control

110.

The most serious nuclear accident in the United States occurred at

a)

Chernobyl

b)

Yucca Mountain

c)

Diablo Canyon

d)

Three Mile Island

111.

The _______________ sets standards to minimize the surface effects of coal mining on the environment.

a)

Clean Water Act

b)

Comprehensive Response Compensation and Liability Act

c)

Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act of 1977

d)

Safe Drinking Water Act

112.

Evaporites most commonly form in

a)

arid regions where evaporation rates are high

b)

rain forests where evaporation rates are low

c)

cold regions that receive a lot of snow

d)

an area with frequent volcanic activity

113.

Which of the following are minerals that contain valuable substances?

a)

native minerals

b)

ore minerals

c)

gangue minerals

d)

longwalls

114.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of a mineral?

a)

naturally occurring

b)

atoms in random geometric patterns

c)

usually an inorganic solid

d)

orderly internal structure

115.

Which of the following is not one of the ways that ore minerals may form?

a)

cooling off magma

b)

circulation of hydrothermal solutions through rocks

c)

flooding of empty streambeds and rivers

d)

evaporation of water that contain salts

116.

What is one property that may be used to distinguish metallic from nonmetallic minerals?

a)

cost to extract

b)

value

c)

carbon content

d)

electrical conductivity

117.

What must hot subsurface waters contain in order to be considered hydrothermal solutions?

a)

crystalized minerals

b)

dissolved minerals

c)

gangue minerals

d)

inorganic solids

118.

The first step in surface coal mining is

a)

to remove and set aside the soil that covers the area to be mined

b)

to use heavy equipment to take core samples

c)

to test to see if quarrying would be more effective

d)

to make cuts in the coal for easier removal

119.

Gangue minerals

a)

are valued for their rarity and durability

b)

have no commercial value

c)

are the most difficult to mine

d)

are native elements

120.

Wind, moving water, sunlight and heat from Earth's interior are sources of

a)

alternative energy

b)

geothermal energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

ocean thermal energy

121.

Which of the following uses solar collectors to heat water?

a)

passive solar heating

b)

active solar heating

c)

photvoltaic cells

d)

All of the above

122.

Which of the following is the fastest-growing source of energy in the world?

a)

passive solar heating

b)

photovoltaic cells

c)

fuel cells

d)

wind

123.

Which of the following is a major source of biomass fuel in developing countries?

a)

wood

b)

dung

c)

corn

d)

both (a) and (b)

124.

A geothermal power plant gets energy by

a)

pumping heated water or steam from rock formations

b)

circulating fluid underground

c)

holding water

d)

using methane from decomposition

125.

Tidal power, hydrogen fuel cells and ocean thermal energy conversion are sources of

a)

alternative energy

b)

geothermal energy

c)

nonrenewable energy

d)

hydroelectric energy

126.

Which of the following descriptions of hybrid cars is correct?

a)

Hybrid cars do not use gasoline engines

b)

Hybrid cars have not been made yet

c)

Hybrid cars are energy-efficent

d)

Hybrid cars rely on biomass fuel

127.

Which of the following statements about hydrogen as a fuel source is correct?

a)

The amount of hydrogen on Earth is too small to meet our fuel needs

b)

Hydrogen can be burned as a fuel or used to produce electricity chemically

c)

When hydrogen is burned, it releases pollutants

d)

Generating hydrogen by burning fossil fuels is inexpensive

128.

Sunlight falls on a semiconductor, causing it to release electrons in a

a)

photovoltaic cell

b)

fuel cell

c)

battery

d)

solar collector

129.

People can conserve energy in their daily lives by driving a vehicle

a)

mostly for short distances

b)

instead of taking a bus or train

c)

with a large gas tank

d)

that is fuel-efficient

130.

Normally cool air sinks, but cool air over the ____________ cannot sink because hot air is rising below the cool air.

a)

Equator

b)

North pole

c)

South pole

d)

All of the above

131.

What is the most important factor in determining climate?

a)

latitude

b)

atmospheric circulation patterns

c)

oceanic circulation patterns

d)

local geography of an area

132.

More solar energy falls on areas that are near the ______________ than on areas that are closer to the ______________.

a)

north pole, south pole

b)

south pole, north pole

c)

equator, poles

d)

poles, equator

133.

At ______________ latitudes, the amount of light arriving at the surface is reduced.

a)

Lower

b)

Higher

c)

Medium

d)

All of the above

134.

The atmospheric circulation patterns determine the Earth's _____________ pattern.

a)

Wind

b)

Climate

c)

Precipitation

d)

All of the above

135.

Winds that blow predominately in direction throughout the year are called ___________________.

a)

Trade winds

b)

Easterlies

c)

Westerlies

d)

Prevailing winds

136.

El Nino is the name given to ______________, periodic change in the location of warm and cold water masses in the _______________ ocean.

a)

Long-term, Pacific

b)

Short-term, Pacific

c)

Long-term, Atlantic

d)

Short-term, Atlantic

137.

La Nina and El Nino are in _____________ phases.

a)

Same

b)

Opposite

c)

Combnation

d)

None of the above

138.

Mountain and mountain ranges also influence the distribution of ________________.

a)

Sunlight

b)

Precipitation

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

Neither (a) and (b)

139.

Both __________ and __________ influence Earth's climate.

a)

Wind, volcanic eruptions

b)

Wind, sun

c)

Sun, volcanic eruptions

d)

None of the above

140.

Seasonal change in climate is caused by ____________.

a)

The amount of precipitation in an area

b)

The latitude of the area

c)

The vegetation in the area

d)

Tilt of Earth's axis

141.

Ozone is a molecule made up of ____________ atoms.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

142.

Which of the following countries decided not to ratify the Kyoto Protocol?

a)

Russia

b)

United States

c)

Canada

d)

Finland

143.

Chloroflourocarbons (CFCs) is considered to be _____________.

a)

Miracle chemicals

b)

Nonpoisonous and nonflammable

c)

Destroy protective ozone

d)

All of the above

144.

The ozone hole appear near

a)

The equator

b)

The North pole

c)

The South pole

d)

Both (b) and (c)

145.

On the surfaces of polar stratosphere clouds, the products of CFCs are converted to molecular ______________.

a)

Chlorine

b)

Fluorine

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Helium

146.

What happens when the ozone layer thins out?

a)

More UV light is able to pass through the atmosphere and reach the Earth's surface

b)

Interference with photsynthesis

c)

Increased incidence of skin cancer

d)

All of the above

147.

Under the agreement called ______________, nations agreed to sharply limit their production of CFCs.

a)

Kyoto Protocol

b)

Montreal Protocol

c)

US Nations Protocol

d)

All of the above

148.

The Earth's _____________ acts like the _____________ in a greenhouse.

a)

Oceans, covering

b)

Atmosphere, glass

c)

Clouds, insulation

d)

None of the above

149.

The Greenhouse Effect is when ________________.

a)

Heat is absorbed by gases in the stratosphere

b)

Heat is absorbed by gases in the thermosphere

c)

Heat is absorbed by gases in the ozone layer

d)

Heat is absorbed by gases in the troposphere

150.

What element, compound or molecule is measured to determine global warming?

a)

Chlorine

b)

CFCs

c)

Water

d)

Carbon dioxide

151.

The major greenhouse gases are ________________.

a)

Chlorine, CFCs, carbon dioxide, nitrous oxide and methane gas

b)

Water, chlorine, CFCs, methane gas and carbon dioxide

c)

Chlorine, nitrous oxide, CFCs, methane gas and carbon dioxide

d)

Water, CFCs, carbon dioxide, methane gas and nitrous oxide

152.

How much has carbon dioxide increased since 1955 to 2005?

a)

315 ppm

b)

350 ppm

c)

370 ppm

d)

380 ppm

153.

What is the major cause to the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

a)

Burning of fossil fuels

b)

A decrease on photosynthesis

c)

Habitat destruction

d)

Loss of biodiversity

154.

How is global warming affecting the sea level?

a)

No effect at all

b)

Causing sea levels to rise

c)

Causing sea levels to decrease

d)

None of the above

155.

What effects will global warming have on global weather patterns?

a)

Flooding

b)

Hurricanes

c)

Typhoons

d)

All of the above

156.

What affect will global warming have on agriculture?

a)

Causing crops to increase

b)

Causing droughts

c)

Causing mutated crops

d)

None of the above

157.

The ________________ requires developed countries to decrease emissions of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases by an average of 5 percent below their 1990 levels by 2012.

a)

Montreal Protocol

b)

Clean Air Act

c)

Kyoto Protocol

d)

The World Green Day

158.

Polar stratospheric clouds convert the product CFCs into

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Hydrochloric acid

c)

Nitric acid

d)

Molecular chlorine

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