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Genetics Exam

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
2.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
3.
In a molecule of double-stranded DNA, the amount of Adenine present is always equal to the amount of
a)
cytosine
b)
guanine
c)
thymine
d)
uracil
4.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
5.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
6.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
7.
A process in which DNA has the unique ability to make an exact copy of itself.
a)
Replication
b)
Translation
c)
Transcription
8.

What is the correct complimentary strand for the following DNA? ATCGAG

a)

TACGAG

b)

ATCGAG

c)

TAGCTG

d)

TAGCTC

9.

Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?

a)

amino acid

b)

nucleic acid

c)

cholesterol

d)

fatty acid

10.

Name the CIRCULAR is structure

a)

phosphate group

b)

pentose sugar

c)

double helix

d)

hydrogen bond

e)

nitrogen base

11.

The sides of the ladders (ribbons)

a)

Nitrogen Bases

b)

Phosphate group

c)

Sugar-Phosphate Backbone

d)

Nucleotides

12.
What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?
a)
helps cut DNA
b)
count the genes in DNA
c)
separates DNA based on size
d)
allows for an exact replicated organism
13.
Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?
a)
DNA is negatively charged so attracted to the positive end of the unit
b)
DNA is positively charged to attracted to the negative end of the unit
c)
the agarose gel in negatively charged
d)
the agarose gel is positively charged
14.
What applications can gel electrophoresis be used for?
a)
Parental Testing
b)
Criminal Investigations
c)
Sequence Endangered Species DNA
d)
All of the above
15.
Which DNA fragment bands move faster and farther in a gel electrophoresis? 
a)
there is no way to tell 
b)
the largest ones
c)
the smallest ones
d)
none of these
16.

Which two bear species are most closely related?

a)

Bear 1 and Bear 2

b)

Bear 1 and Bear 3

c)

Bear 2 and Bear 3

d)

There’s no way to tell

17.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
18.
During gel electrophoresis, DNA moves from the ___ end to the ___ end.
a)
positive, negative
b)
negative, positive
19.
DNA is recovered from a suspected dead soldier.  Which Parents are the likely parents of the soldier?
a)
Parents C and D
b)
Parents E and F
c)
Parents A and B
d)
Parents G and H
20.

The hole that the DNA is injected into

a)

Power Source

b)

Lane

c)

Well

d)

Tank

e)

Marker / DNA Ladder

21.

A ruler used to measure the length of fragments in a gel

a)

Power Source

b)

Lane

c)

Well

d)

Tank

e)

Marker / DNA Ladder

22.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
23.
Which change below would result in a different Amino Acid? 
3'-GCT-5'
a)
GTT
b)
TCT
c)
TCC
d)
GCA
24.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
25.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
26.
What is the correct mRNA strand from this DNA?
CAC-GTG-ACA-GCG
a)
GTG-CAC-TGT-CGC
b)
CAC-GUG-ACA-GCG
c)
GUG-CAC-UGU-CGC
27.
Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
28.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
29.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Inversion
d)
Translocation
30.
Are all mutations harmful?
a)
Yes, they are caused by toxic chemicals and radiation
b)
No, all mutations are beneficial
c)
Yes, mutations cause fatal diseases
d)
No, some can be useful in a changing environment
31.
Identify the SUBSTITUTION mutation from the following DNA sequence: 
ATG CCA AAT
a)
ATG TCA AAT
b)
ATG CCT AAA T
c)
ATC CA  AT
d)
ATG CCA AAT
32.

Deletion

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

33.

Frameshift mutation

a)

Addition of one or more nucleic acids

b)

Removal of one or more nucleic acids

c)

Replacement of one or more nucleic acids

d)

When codons shift ---nucleic acids are separated from their original marriage

e)

Copying or doubling of a sequence

34.

Duplication

a)

Addition of one or more nucleic acids

b)

Removal of one or more nucleic acids

c)

Replacement of one or more nucleic acids

d)

When codons shift ---nucleic acids are separated from their original marriage

e)

Copying or doubling of a sequence

35.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Deletion
b)
Inversion
c)
Duplication
d)
Translocation
36.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Inversion
b)
Duplication
c)
Deletion
d)
Translocation
37.
When can a mutation be passed on to offspring?
a)
only when the mutation is present during or occurs during mitosis
b)
only when the mutation is present during or occurs during meiosis
c)
when the mutation occurs during mitosis or meiosis
d)
when the mutation occurs in somatic cells
38.
What type of chromosomal mutation has occurred?
a)
substitution
b)
insertion
c)
deletion
d)
nondisjunction
39.
What process occurs during meiosis that can result in chromosomal disorders?
a)
crossing over
b)
non-disjunction
c)
anaphase I
d)
prophase II
40.

Notice the abnormal 23rd chromosome. This individual has an extra X chromosome. What type of mutation is this?

a)

Translocation

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Dublication

d)

Inversion

e)

Deletion

41.

Inversion

a)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off.

b)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches.

c)

When a segment of a chromosome is copied or doubles.

d)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks and attaches to a non homologous chromosome.

e)

When entire chromosomes don't separate evenly during meiosis.

42.

Translocation

a)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off.

b)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks off, flips, and reattaches.

c)

When a segment of a chromosome is copied or doubles.

d)

When a segment of a chromosome breaks and attaches to a non homologous chromosome.

e)

When entire chromosomes don't separate evenly during meiosis.

43.

Inversion

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.

Duplication

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

45.

Translocation

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

46.

Synapsis: Homologous Chromosomes align gene by gene

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

47.

Crossing-Over: physical exchange of segments of DNA with non-sister chromatids

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

48.

Pairs of homologous chromosomes line up at metaphase plate---one facing each pole.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

49.

Duplicated chromosomes line up on metaphase plate with sister chromatids facing each pole.

a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

50.

Homologous Chromosomes are separated towards opposite poles guided by spindles.

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I & Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase II & Cytokinesis

e)

Prophase I

51.

Each side has a haploid set of duplicated chromosomes (n = 23)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I & Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase II & Cytokinesis

e)

Prophase I

52.

Each side has a haploid set of unduplicated chromosomes (n = 23)

a)

Anaphase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Telophase I & Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase II & Cytokinesis

e)

Prophase I

53.

Product: Haploid cells with unduplicated chromosomes

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

c)

Mitosis

54.

Product: Diploid cells with unduplicated chromosomes

a)

Meiosis I

b)

Meiosis II

c)

Mitosis

55.
a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

56.
a)

Metaphase I

b)

Metaphase II

c)

Anaphase I

d)

Anaphase II

e)

Telophase I & Cytokinesis

57.
a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Metaphase I

d)

Metaphase II

e)

Anaphase I

58.
a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I & Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase II & Cytokinesis

e)

Anaphase II

59.
a)

Prophase I

b)

Prophase II

c)

Telophase I & Cytokinesis

d)

Telophase II & Cytokinesis

e)

Anaphase II

60.

Body Cells not including reproductive cells

a)

Sex Cells

b)

Sex Chromosomes

c)

Somatic Cells

d)

Autosomes

e)

Egg & Sperm

61.

Sex Cells

a)

Gametes

b)

Sex Chromosomes

c)

Somatic Cells

d)

Autosomes

e)

Egg & Sperm

62.

Chromosomes 1-22

a)

Gametes

b)

Sex Chromosomes

c)

Somatic Cells

d)

Autosomes

e)

Egg & Sperm

63.

Transmission or “passing on” of traits from one generation to the next

a)

Egg & Sperm

b)

Inheritance

c)

Sexual Reproduction

d)

Fertilization

e)

Zygote

64.

Production of new offspring by combining genetic information from two individuals of different sexes.

a)

Egg & Sperm

b)

Inheritance

c)

Sexual Reproduction

d)

Fertilization

e)

Zygote

65.

Fusion of egg and sperm to form a zygote.

a)

Egg & Sperm

b)

Inheritance

c)

Sexual Reproduction

d)

Fertilization

e)

Zygote

66.

Diploid (2n) cell resulting from fusion of two haploid gametes; a fertilized egg.

a)

Egg & Sperm

b)

Inheritance

c)

Sexual Reproduction

d)

Fertilization

e)

Zygote

67.

a photograph or picture of chromosomes grouped in ordered pairs is a ______________

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

68.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
69.

A normal human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.

a)

46

b)

23

c)

92

d)

64

70.
What is the gender of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Male
b)
Female
71.

Based on the karyotype, what is the sex of this baby?

a)

Male

b)

Female

72.
Which structure is labeled as B in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
73.
Which structure is labeled as C in the diagram?
a)
Centromere
b)
Chromosome
c)
Sister chromatids
74.
A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from mom, and one inherited from dad are called
a)
sister chromotids
b)
centromeres
c)
homologous chromosomes
d)
autosomes
75.
What is the haploid number for this Karyotype?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
52
d)
54
76.
What makes this individual's karyotype not normal?
a)
An extra sex chromosome
b)
An extra autosome
c)
A missing sex chromosome
d)
A missing autosome
77.
Klinefelter's Syndrome has the karyotype notation of 
a)
47XX+21
b)
47XXY
c)
45XO
d)
44XX
78.
Turner's Syndrome has a karyotype notation of
a)
47XX+21
b)
47XXY
c)
45XO
d)
44XX
79.

A group of inherited red blood cell disorders

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Sickle Cell Trait

d)

Episodes of Pain

e)

Red Blood Cells

80.

A condition in which the blood doesn't have enough healthy red blood cells.

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Sickle Cell Trait

d)

Episodes of Pain

e)

Red Blood Cells

81.

The sickle-shaped cells can also stick to vessel walls, causing a blockage that slows or stops the flow of blood. When this happens, oxygen can't reach nearby tissues. The lack of oxygen can cause ______.

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Sickle Cell Trait

d)

Episodes of Pain

e)

Red Blood Cells

82.

Hemoglobin is a protein in ________ that carries oxygen throughout the body.

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Sickle Cell Trait

d)

Episodes of Pain

e)

Red Blood Cells

83.

If you have SCD, there is a problem with your ______. It is a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen throughout the body.

a)

Anemia

b)

Sickle Cell Anemia

c)

Sickle Cell Trait

d)

Episodes of Pain

e)

Hemoglobin

84.

With SCD, the hemoglobin forms into _____ rods within the red blood cells. This changes the shape of the red blood cells to ___________.

a)

stiff; crescent-shaped

b)

stiff; disk-shaped

c)

flexible; crescent-shaped

d)

flexible; disk-shaped

85.

Sickled cells live ___ days and healthy read blood cells live ___ days.

a)

90 to 120 day; 10 to 20 days

b)

10 to 20 days; 90 to 120 days

c)

50 to 60 days; 200 to 500 days

d)

200 to 500 days; 50 to 60 days

86.

The sickle-shaped cells can also ______ vessel walls, causing a blockage that slows or stops the flow of blood. When this happens, _____ can't reach nearby tissues.

a)

stick to, oxygen

b)

scrape, oxygen

c)

burst through, carbon dioxide

d)

scrape, carbon dioxide

e)

stick to, carbon oxygen

87.

Individuals with SCD have ___ copies of a mutated gene.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

88.

People with sickle cell trait are generally ___.

a)

Healthy

b)

Unhealthy

c)

Healthy most of the time

d)

Unhealthy sometimes

89.

Who is at risk for sickle cell disease?

a)

African Americans

b)

Hispanics

c)

Asians

d)

Native Americans

e)

Caucasians

90.

Assume the biomolecule pictured in the illustration is normal. The entire molecule is called ____________.

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

91.

Assume the biomolecule pictured in the illustration is normal. "C" (rectangular discs) represent _________.

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

92.

Hemoglobin is classified as which type of biomolecule...

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

e)

None of the above.

93.

Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between Hemoglobin and Red Blood Cells (RBCs)?

a)

Hemoglobin is filled with thousands of RBCs which bind to oxygen.

b)

RBCs are filled with thousands of hemoglobins which bind to oxygen.

c)

Hemoglobins are filled with thousands of oxygens which bind to RBCs.

d)

Hemoglobin move alongside thousands of RBCs in the blood and move oxygen into the RBCs.

e)

RBCs move alongside thousands of Hemoglobins in the blood and move oxygen into the RBCs.

94.

Normal Hemoglobin contains 2 of these

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

95.

Abnormal Hemoglobin contains 2 of these

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

96.

A normal Hemoglobin Subunit Beta (HBB) Gene codes for making the ___________ protein.

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Beta-Chains

e)

Hemoglobin

97.

A mutated Hemoglobin Subunit Beta (HBB) Gene causes beta-globins in Hemoglobin to be replaced by ...

a)

Hemoglobin S

b)

Heme

c)

Iron (Fe)

d)

Alpha-Chains

e)

Betaglobin

98.

An abnormal RBC is ____.

a)

Disc-Shaped, Biconcave

b)

Cresent-Shaped, Sickle-Shaped

c)

Globular

d)

Flexible

e)

Clumped (Fibrous)

99.

Why does Hemoglobin S make an RBC sickle-shaped?

a)

Abnormal HbS subunit sticks together and form long, rigid molecules that bend the RBCs into a sickled-shaped.

b)

Abnormal Alpha-Chains subunits stick together and form long, rigid molecules that bend the RBCs into a sickled-shaped.

c)

Abnormal Alpha-Chains subunits stick to HbS chains and form long, rigid molecules that bend the RBCs into a sickled-shaped.

d)

Abnormal HbS subunits stick to normal Alpha-Globin chains and form long, rigid molecules that bend the RBCs into a sickled-shaped.

100.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC

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