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NC Grade 8 Science EOG Practice

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The figure below shows a wall of the Grand Canyon.The most recent rocks of the Grand Canyon formed during which geologic period?

a)

Permian

b)

Devonian

c)

Cambrian

d)

Precambrian

2.

To calculate the relative age of rocks, geologists use the rate of radioactive decay of isotopes present in their samples. What is the term used for the original amount of the elemental isotopes being investigated?

a)

rare earth isotopes

b)

son isotopes

c)

daughter isotopes

d)

parent isotopes

3.

If a metamorphic rock contains an intrusion of igneous rock, which rock is the oldest?

a)

The igneous rock is older

b)

The rocks are the same age

c)

The metamorphic rock is older.

4.

Scientists can use relative dating, absolute dating, or a combination of the two techniques to determine the age of a fossil. Which of the following could be determined using both methods?

a)

the difference in age between two fossils

b)

which of two fossils is the older

c)

a narrow age range for a fossil

d)

the exact age of a fossil

5.

Several zircon crystals from Australia have been dated to have an estimated age of 4.2 billion years. Which statement BEST describes the period of formation of these crystals?

a)

They formed relatively recently in the history of Earth.

b)

They formed at a time shortly after the formation of Earth.

c)

They formed at approximately the same time as atmospheric oxygen began increasing.

d)

They formed at approximately the same time as animals first inhabited land environments.

6.

Fossils of Haikouella were discovered in 1999. The fossils are thought to be about 530 million years old. The Haikouella is an example of an early vertebrate, but it appears to be lacking a braincase. Modern vertebrates have a braincase. Which is theMOST likely evidence these fossils provide?




a)

Changes can occur over time in animals.

b)

There is a link between birds and reptiles.

c)

The braincase of vertebrates will eventually reduce.

d)

The lack of a braincase limited the size of the organism.

7.

The ichthyornis was a type of bird that lived over 65 million years ago. It lived near the sea and hunted for fish over the water. Fossils have been found in Kansas, many miles from the present-day ocean. Which cause of extinction is MOST likely to be found in the fossil record along with ichthyornis fossils?

a)

changes in the environment

b)

diseases causing illness

c)

changes in the weather

d)

predator animals

8.

Thousands of fish fossils discovered high in the Rocky Mountains MOST likely indicate that

a)

ancient sea levels were once high enough to cover the mountains.

b)

a large flood washed the fish up to the tops of the mountains.

c)

the mountains were once part of the sea floor that was pushed up by tectonic forces.

d)

the fish were inhabitants of an ancient stream that became frozen during the ice ages.

9.

A student has made the geologic column below. What evidence must be carefully examined to determine that organisms changed over time?

a)

fossils

b)

soil type

c)

environment

d)

plate tectonics

10.

Several dinosaur bones are discovered buried in volcanic ash. The type of dinosaur can BEST be identified by

a)

knowing the location where the fossils were found.

b)

establishing an inventory of bones collected.

c)

comparing to characteristics of known dinosaurs.

d)

knowing the absolute age of the fossils.

11.

The map shows bodies of water associated with North America. Which of the following bodies of water shown on the map would leave a salty layer on your skin if you swam in it?

a)

Baffin Bay

b)

Lake Winnipeg

c)

Rio Grande River

d)

St. Lawrence Seaway

12.

The graph shows the distribution of the freshwater resources of Earth.


Which of these sources of fresh water corresponds to Source 1?

a)

atmospheric water

b)

surface water

c)

frozen water

d)

groundwater

13.

Which type of water reservoir could always provide fresh water?

a)

inland lakes

b)

river deltas

c)

mountain glaciers

d)

tropical seas

14.

The water cycle describes the movement of water on Earth. About 96% of water on Earth is the salt water found in oceans. The remaining 4% is fresh water. Where would the majority of the fresh water on Earth be found?

a)

groundwater and aquifers

b)

swamps and wetlands

c)

ice caps and glaciers

d)

lakes and rivers

15.

The figure below shows the average water speeds in four sections of a river. The speeds are expressed in centimeters per second (cm/s).


Which section would MOST likely be able to move the largest particles?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

16.

Which technology is most efficient in mapping large areas of the ocean floor?

a)

sonar

b)

robots

c)

depth gauge

d)

satellite imaging

17.

Which contributes most in supporting life on the deep ocean floor?

a)

cold water temperatures

b)

extreme water pressure

c)

hydrothermal vents

d)

lack of predators

18.

Which technique uses sound waves to measure the depth of the ocean floor?

a)

global positioning system

b)

radar

c)

sonar

19.

In which location would fishermen most likely catch a greater number of fish?

a)

at the shoreline

b)

in an upwelling

c)

in the intertidal zone

d)

on the deep-ocean floor

20.

Oceans cover about 70% of the surface of the Earth and form layers based on water depth. Which best describes a factor that is the same for the different layers of the oceans?

a)

amount of oxygen

b)

amount of light

c)

amount of salt

21.

Fish, flies, and algae are bioindicators known to exist in a certain North Carolina river. Recently a chemical company was built upstream. Which environmental factor is most likely measured by these bioindicators in this river?

a)

LIGHT

b)

TEMPERATURE

c)

DISSOLVED OXYGEN

22.

Why do biologists use indicator species?

a)

to compare freshwater and ocean ecosystems

b)

to count the number of organisms present

c)

to monitor water quality and biodiversity

d)

to analyze the dominant species

23.

Which environmental factors would mostlikely impact the quality of a freshwater system?

a)

dissolved oxygen and pH

b)

salinity and temperature

c)

surface tension and aquatic organisms

24.

Which would most affect the health of fish in a local pond?

a)

The daily release of hot water into the pond from a local factory.

b)

A storm temporarily stirring up water and sediments in the pond.

c)

The occasional erosion of sediments into the pond from a nearby field.

d)

A slight increase in the number of people who fish in the pond for food.

25.

After analyzing data collected from a pond, there is a significant decrease in dissolved oxygen. Which most likely caused the decline?

a)

an increase in minerals

b)

an increase in sediment

c)

an increase in algae growth

d)

an decrease in fish population

26.

Which most likely would cause diseases to be spread by polluted water?

a)

dumping human waste in rivers and streams

b)

runoff that contains fertilizers and pesticides

c)

an oil spill resulting from an accident to a ship carrying oil as cargo

27.

Which is most likely an example of point source pollution?

a)

fertilizer sprayed onto a field

b)

water runoff from a city street

c)

a pipe flowing into a river

28.

Which is an effect of chlorine in water?

a)

kills the microorganisms

b)

improves the taste

c)

aerates the water

29.

Which are two factors that affect water quality?

a)

density and toxicity

b)

texture and color

c)

odor and acidity

30.

Which factors can have the greatest effect on the health of a river system?

a)

type of soil and salinity

b)

nitrate levels and turbidity

c)

human consumption and pH

d)

natural disasters and tidal changes

31.

Which of these is an abiotic element of a desert ecosystem?

a)

sand

b)

cactus

c)

lizard

d)

scorpion

32.

One male and one female goldfish are placed into a 5-gallon aquarium and are fed each day. One male and one female goldfish are placed into a 10-gallon aquarium and are fed each day. Whichmost likely represents the number of goldfish in each aquarium after several months?

a)

2 goldfish in 5-gallon aquarium; 2 goldfish in 10-gallon aquarium

b)

5 goldfish in 5-gallon aquarium; 12 goldfish in 10-gallon aquarium

c)

12 goldfish in 5-gallon aquarium; 5 goldfish in 10-gallon aquarium

33.

Which interaction between animals BEST controls the population of a species?

a)

wild animals marking their territories

b)

remora fish traveling with sharks

c)

lions preying on zebras

d)

wolves traveling in packs

34.

Multiple Choice from Item CentralAs populations grow, they need more resources, such as food. But Thomas Robert Malthus claimed that human populations and the resources they need increase at different rates. The graph below illustrates his theory.


What is happening at Point A?

a)

There are not enough resources for the population.

b)

There are no resources available for the population.

c)

There are just enough resources for the population.

d)

There are more than enough resources for the population

35.

A large quantity of heavy rain falling in a short time period will MOST likely

a)

reduce the amount of nutrients in the soil.

b)

increase the number of minerals in the soil.

c)

reduce oxygen levels in the soil.

d)

increase the temperature of the soil.

36.

Which best describes mutualism?

a)

Ticks live and feed on dogs and other animals’ blood to survive.

b)

Mushrooms send out long, underground structures which allow them to grow in other areas.

c)

Ants attack animals that try to feed on the acacia tree, and the ants feed on the nectar of the tree.

37.

As a dog walks through thick brush, a tick attaches to its leg. Which best describes the relationship between the dog and the tick?

a)

parasitism

b)

mutualism

c)

commensalism

38.

Which is an example of parasitism?

a)

cat and mouse

b)

tadpole and frog

c)

human and tapeworm

d)

caterpillar and butterfly

39.

Kudzu vines grow by climbing and wrapping around trees. Trees covered by kudzu can die because they are starved of sunlight. What type of relationship exists between the trees and the kudzu growing on them?

a)

competition

b)

mutualism

c)

parasitism

d)

predator-prey

40.

Which of these organisms is a producer in a marine ecosystem?

a)

fish

b)

gull

c)

algae

d)

worm

41.

Radioactive waste from nuclear power plants is sealed in containers and deeply buried in the ground. Sealing and burying waste reduces the chances that water will become contaminated. At which point in the water cycle would radioactive contamination MOST likely be found?

a)

rain

b)

fog

c)

groundwater

d)

surface water

42.

In an ecosystem, not all of the energy that is available is used by the organisms. Some energy becomes unavailable before it can be transferred to organisms in the next trophic level. How does the energy MOST likely become unavailable?

a)

The energy is stored as food.

b)

The energy is dissipated as heat.

c)

The energy is trapped in dead organisms.

d)

The energy is moved to another ecosystem.

43.

When animals break down glucose to create energy, they release water and carbon dioxide (CO2.) How can carbon dioxide (CO2) be reused within the food web?

a)

It can be used by animals as a source of oxygen.

b)

It can be used by both plants and animals to produce energy.

c)

It can be used by plants during photosynthesis to create glucose.

44.

Some bacteria, fungi, and insects can decompose other organisms. Which BEST describes the role of insects in the decomposition process?

a)

Insects help break down organic material.

b)

Insects are the final step in the nutrient cycle.

c)

Insects provide the nitrogen needed for producers.

d)

Insects consume fungi and bacteria to produce carbon

45.

Near Earth’s equator, water generally exists naturally in the liquid and gas states. In which other part of Earth is water usually found naturally in only two states?

a)

Indian Ocean

b)

interior of Africa

c)

South Pole

d)

Tropic of Cancer

46.

Greenhouse gases are often produced as a result of obtaining and using fossil fuels. Which greenhouse gas most likely has the greatest impact on global warming?

a)

carbon monoxide

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

methane

47.

How has burning fossil fuels MOST caused a decline to the quality of air that people breathe?

a)

by adding particle pollution

b)

by creating a hole in the ozone layer

c)

by causing acid precipitation to fall

d)

by increasing the levels of carbon dioxide

48.

Which of these human activities MOST likely helped in depleting the ozone layer?

a)

building hydroelectric plants

b)

runoff from fertilized farm fields

c)

burning of fossil fuels

d)

release of chlorofluorocarbons from aerosol cans

49.

Which of the following is an example of how the production of hydroelectric power could potentially harm the environment?

a)

The dam causes silt and sediment buildup.

b)

The radioactive waste is a threat to wildlife.

c)

The dam changes the salt content of the water downstream.

d)

The generators make a loud noise that disrupts the migration patterns of birds.

50.

Why is solar energy seldom used as an environmentally safe energy source in households to provide electricity?

a)

Solar energy can only be used with gasoline.

b)

Solar power facilities destroy animal habitats.

c)

Solar energy is difficult to capture and store for later use.

51.

Some regions produce large amounts of geothermal energy. This energy production indicates that the crust in these regions

a)

has large oil reserves.

b)

reaches deep into Earth.

c)

is rich in precious metals.

d)

is heated by nearby magma.

52.

Compared to similar-sized gasoline-powered vehicles, electric-gasoline-hybrid vehicles are primarily designed to

a)

produce more horsepower.

b)

eliminate greenhouse gas emissions.

c)

operate independently of fossil fuels.

d)

provide better gas mileage.

53.

Which upgrade to a school will most likely reduce the school’s consumption of nonrenewable resources?

a)

solar-collection panels

b)

high-speed computers

c)

wireless internet connections

d)

biodegradable carpeting

54.

Why is it important to limit the use of fossil fuels such as coal and natural gas?

a)

Fossil fuels are an unlimited resource on the Earth.

b)

Fossil fuels can be renewed in a matter of a few years.

c)

Fossil fuels can be replenished only after thousands of years.

55.

Which best describes a renewable energy source?

a)

oil

b)

coal

c)

sunlight

56.

This diagram represents a classification of living organisms.


Which word is the BEST title for this diagram?

a)

Phyla

b)

Classes

c)

Families

d)

Domains

57.

Which would indicate that a series of fossils represent the evolution of the horse?

a)

All of the fossils were found in the same layers of rocks as horse fossils.

b)

All of the fossils are completely identical to horse bones.

c)

All of the fossils show similar structures to that of the modern horse.

d)

All of the fossils were located in the same place on Earth as horses.

58.

Millions of years ago, four aquatic organisms died, and their remains came to rest on Earth’s surface beneath the water.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

59.

Organisms are classified into three domains:


1. Archaea

2. Bacteria

3. Eukarya


Organisms can reproduce with spores in

a)

A1 only.

b)

B3 only.

c)

C1 and 3.

d)

D2 and 3.

60.

Which best explains why the wing of a bat and the fin of a whale are similar?

a)

a mutation in nature that caused them to be similar

b)

a common ancestor between the bat and the whale

c)

a simple coincidence between the bat and the whale

61.

A new predator has just moved into an area with a population of rabbits. The rabbits with longer back legs have an advantage because they can run faster. Which is an example of adaptation?

a)

The species of rabbits will become extinct due to stress.

b)

The rabbits with the shorter back legs will learn to hide.

c)

The future generations of rabbits will have longer legs.

62.

Charles Darwin made famous observations of finches on islands in the Pacific Ocean. The birds were believed to have come all from one population, but when separated on the islands with differing habitats, the birds changed. The beaks of the birds on islands with lots of seeds were different from the beaks of the birds on islands with lots of insects. How did their beaks come to match the food in their environments so well?

a)

The birds migrated to the island with the right food supply for their beaks.

b)

The food supply on the islands changed to match the birds’ beaks.

c)

The predators on the islands eliminated the birds with the “wrong” beaks.

d)

The birds with the “right” beaks for the food supply had more young.

63.

Which would best allow a species to survive environmental changes?

a)

similar physical features

b)

low mutation rate

c)

small population

d)

genetic diversity

64.

A low-level species in a food web suddenly becomes extinct. Of its predators, which will most likely survive?

a)

the predators that are genetically similar

b)

the predators that feed on many different organisms

c)

the predators that primarily feed on the now-extinct species

65.

Scientists estimate that whaling activity in the 19th and early 20th centuries had reduced the number of adult female southern right whales to as few as sixty individuals by 1920. This reduction resulted in a genetic bottleneck for the species.


Treaties to stop whaling have substantially increased the number of southern right whales. Despite this increase, the bottleneck still threatens the future of the species. Which capacity of the species is MOST severely diminished by the bottleneck?

a)

remaining genetically stable

b)

maintaining a healthy social structure

c)

acquiring random mutations

d)

responding to environmental changes

66.

Which of the following results when hydrogen and chlorine chemically bond to form hydrogen chloride?

a)

a mixture

b)

a solution

c)

a compound

d)

a precipitate

67.

An element is identified by

a)

its number of protons.

b)

the atomic mass.

c)

the type of charge.

d)

its number of isotopes.

68.

What number and types of atoms occur in a formula unit of Ca(NO3)2?

a)

1 carbon atom, 1 neon atom, and 6 oxygen atoms

b)

1 calcium atom, 2 neon atoms, and 3 oxygen atoms

c)

1 carbon atom, 1 nitrogen atom, and 3 oxygen atoms

d)

1 calcium atom, 2 nitrogen atoms, and 6 oxygen atoms

69.

An element, X, contains 14 protons, 15 neutrons, and 14 electrons. Which is most likely the same element as X?

a)

Element A: 13 protons, 15 neutrons, 14 electrons

b)

Element B: 14 protons, 14 neutrons, 14 electrons

c)

Element C: 15 protons, 14 neutrons, 15 electrons

70.

How are atoms combined in a mixture?

a)

chemically combined and cannot be separated

b)

physically combined and can be separated

c)

chemically combined and can be separated

71.

What physical property is characteristic of all of the elements in the group located in the rightmost column of the periodic table?

a)

very high melting point

b)

gas state at room temperature

c)

good conductor of electric current

d)

extremely brittle solid at room temperature

72.

Which statement BEST describes the organization of the periodic table of the elements?

a)

All gases are grouped together.

b)

Gases easily form compounds with other elements.

c)

Elements within a group have similar properties.

d)

Elements within a period have the same number of electrons.

73.

Sodium (Na) reacts with water. Which element is most likely to have a similar effect to sodium if it is exposed to water?

a)

carbon (C)

b)

oxygen (O)

c)

potassium (K)

d)

Iron (Fe)

74.

Which subatomic particles determine the reactivity of groups of elements in the periodic table?

a)

electrons

b)

neutrons

c)

protons

75.

Which pair of elements has the most similar properties?

a)

ALi and B

b)

BI and Ca

c)

CK and He

d)

DN and P

76.

Which statement BEST describes the formation of rust?

a)

Rust results from a physical mixing of iron with water.

b)

Rust forms from a chemical breakdown of old metal.

c)

Rust results from a chemical reaction between iron and water.

d)

Rust forms from a physical change when wind blows against metal.

77.

When iron combines with oxygen in a moist environment, rust forms because of a

a)

chemical reaction.

b)

physical reaction.

c)

change in density.

d)

change in temperature.

78.

Some power plants produce energy by burning coal. In these power plants, the heat from burning coal is used to boil water. Which statement BEST describes the changes that occur when burning coal and boiling water?

a)

Burning coal and boiling water are both physical changes.

b)

Burning coal and boiling water are both chemical changes.

c)

Burning coal is a chemical change, and boiling water is a physical change.

d)

Burning coal is a physical change, and boiling water is a chemical change.

79.

What happens to water molecules during the boiling process?

a)

They move faster and move farther apart as they absorb heat.

b)

They move faster and remain close together as they absorb heat.

c)

They move more slowly but move farther apart as they lose heat.

d)

They move faster and move farther apart as they lose heat

80.

An ice cube is put into a heated pan. What will most likely happen to the molecules in the ice as the ice is heated?

a)

The molecules will begin to move slower.

b)

The molecules will begin to move faster.

c)

The molecules will begin to increase in density.

d)

The molecules will begin to condense in the air.

81.

Which is best represented by the equation?

2Mg + O2 2MgO

a)

Law of Conservation of Energy

b)

Law of Conservation of Mass

c)

Law of Superposition

82.

Which set of coefficients will balance this chemical equation?


__C2H4(g) + __O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 2H2O(g)

a)

1,2

b)

1,3

c)

2,3

d)

2,5

83.

If 100 grams of vinegar and 5 grams of baking soda are poured in a container, a small amount of gas will be produced. What will the final mass of the products be if the gas is trapped in the container?

a)

100 grams

b)

104 grams

c)

105 grams

d)

110 grams

84.

The chemical equation below shows reactants and products.


Which statement is BEST supported by analyzing this equation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
85.

If a chemical reaction such as photosynthesis begins with 6 atoms of carbon (C), how many atoms of carbon (C) should be in the products?

a)

12 atoms of carbon (C)

b)

6 atoms of carbon (C)

c)

3 atoms of carbon (C)

d)

2 atoms of carbon (C)

86.

Which two statements in the table are true for plant cells and FALSE for animal cells?

a)

1 and 2

b)

2 and 3

c)

3 and 4

d)

4 and 1

87.

Which food items can be broken down mostly into amino acids?

a)

spaghetti noodles

b)

hamburger patties

c)

apple slices

d)

cucumber slices

88.

A lion and a crocodile are both large animals, but a lion has to eat much more than a crocodile of the same mass to survive. Which statement BEST explains the difference?

a)

The crocodile eats larger prey than the lion can.

b)

The lion can store much more food than the crocodile can.

c)

The crocodile uses its food more efficiently than the lion does.

d)

The lion has to generate thermal energy and the crocodile does not.

89.

How are bacterial cells and human cells alike?

a)

They allow oxygen through the cell wall.

b)

They allow carbon dioxide through the cell wall.

c)

They allow nutrients through the cell membrane.

d)

They allow nutrients through the nuclear membrane.

90.

After a person eats, the food is converted into energy by

a)

muscles.

b)

tissues.

c)

bones.

d)

cells.

91.

Which statement BEST describes why a calcium-fortified juice would advertise that it is good for growing children?

a)

Calcium helps the growth of bones.

b)

Calcium provides energy for growth.

c)

Children need to drink a lot of fluids.

d)

Children need calcium to prevent allergies.

92.

Why is a healthy diet important?

a)

It maintains a constant body temperature.

b)

It prevents damage to internal organs.

c)

It makes oxygen for all the cells in the body.

d)

It supplies the body’s needs for growth and energy.

93.

Which technology enables doctors to monitor the function of the heart?

a)

dialysis machine

b)

electrocardiogram

c)

electroencephalogram

d)

automatic external defibrillator

94.

Which food provides the most energy for the body in the shortest amount of time?

a)

potato

b)

meat

c)

milk

d)

fruit

95.

Which best describes the relationship between digestion and respiration?

a)

The respiratory and digestive systems are separate in their activities.

b)

The muscles along the digestive tract depend upon oxygen in order to function.

c)

Digestion breaks down food as fuel and the respiratory system only affects the lungs as well as the blood cells.

96.

Which of these conditions MOST likely results from infection?

a)

high blood sugar levels

b)

swelling of throat tissues

c)

numbness in fingers

d)

blockage of blood vessels in the leg

97.

HIV is a retrovirus. Which sequence does it use as part of its reproductive cycle?

a)

RNA → DNA → RNA → protein

b)

protein → DNA → RNA → DNA

c)

DNA → RNA → DNA → protein

d)

RNA → protein → RNA → DNA

98.

Why are viruses considered to be nonliving organisms?

a)

They do not have genetic information.

b)

They are not able to move on their own.

c)

They do not interact with their environment.

d)

They are not able to reproduce without a host cell.

99.

What characteristic of viruses distinguishes them from cells?

a)

They do not have hereditary material.

b)

They are not separated from their environments.

c)

They lack an independent metabolism.

d)

Their traits do not evolve in response to selection pressures.

100.

Which statement best describes fungi?

a)

All fungi are scavengers.

b)

All fungi are multicellular.

c)

All fungi are producers.

101.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS. The first known human cases AIDS were in Africa in the late 1950s. Since then, tens of millions of people have died from the disease, and tens of millions more people all over the world are infected. Which term BEST describes the disease AIDS?

a)

isolated cases

b)

outbreak

c)

epidemic

d)

pandemic

102.

Millions of people living all over the world have cancer. Is cancer a pandemic?

a)

No, because cancer is not contagious.

b)

No, because cancer is not always fatal.

c)

Yes, because millions of people have cancer.

d)

Yes, because people all over the world have cancer.

103.

The bacteria B. anthracis causes the deadly disease anthrax. Here is one way humans can contract the disease:


1.The bacteria form tough endospores that rest in soil indefinitely.


2.Grazing animals such as sheep inhale the endospores from the soil.


3.Once inside the sheep, the spores reactivate and cause infection.


4.Infected sheep then pass the bacteria to humans who become infected.

In this scenario, what is the vector of anthrax?

Dhumans

a)

endospores

b)

soil

c)

sheep

d)

humans

104.

The table below shows some human diseases, how they are spread, and the state of the carrier that infects humans with the virus.

a)

Lyme disease and West Nile disease

b)

West Nile disease and Rabies

c)

HPS and Lyme disease

d)

Rabies and HPS

105.

Which tool is MOST responsible for preventing future pandemics of smallpox?

a)

worldwide vaccination for smallpox

b)

global education about smallpox

c)

improved global quarantine facilities

106.

Which is a career that would use microorganisms to remove pollutants from water?

a)

medical specialist

b)

DNA fingerprint specialist

c)

Environmental Protection Agency specialist

107.

What is one benefit of giving farm animals vaccines?

a)

It kills insects that attack farm animals.

b)

It reduces the cost of farm animals.

c)

It produces healthier farm animals.

108.

To help meet the world’s demand for food, which biotechnological process is most likely to be used by agricultural industries?

a)

crop rotation

b)

crop diversification

c)

use of transgenic crops

d)

spraying of organic herbicide

109.

Which is an example of scientists using biotechnology to benefit aquaculture?

a)

creating pest-resistant crops

b)

making new forms of human antibiotics

c)

developing a rot-resistant gene for trees

d)

producing a faster-growing salmon species

110.

Which organisms are used to manufacture human insulin?

a)

algae

b)

amoebas

c)

bacteria

d)

protozoans